PennFoster VetTech Pharmacology study guide Flashcards
(222 cards)
1
Q
What are indications in pharmacology?
A
Indications are the reasons for giving a drug to a patient.
2
Q
What are contraindications?
A
Contraindications are the reasons for not giving a drug to a patient.
3
Q
What is the FDA’s regulation regarding certain drugs?
A
Some drugs are regulated by the FDA as prescription drugs (legend drugs) and must be labeled with the statement: ‘Caution: Federal law restricts the use of this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.’
4
Q
What defines the veterinarian-client relationship?
A
The veterinarian-client relationship is when the veterinarian assumes responsibility for clinical judgments about the health of the animals and the client agrees to follow the veterinarian’s instructions. The veterinarian must have seen the animal recently and be familiar with its husbandry , have enough info about the animal to establish a diasgnosis. Vet must be available for follow up.
5
Q
What is a drug regimen?
A
A regimen is a plan for administering drugs, which includes kind of drug, route of administration, dosage, frequency, and duration.
6
Q
What does t.i.d stand for?
A
t.i.d stands for ‘ter in die,’ meaning three times a day.
7
Q
What does q.i.d stand for?
A
q.i.d stands for ‘quater in die,’ meaning four times a day.
8
Q
What does b.i.d stand for?
A
b.i.d stands for ‘bis in die,’ meaning two times a day.
9
Q
What is pharmacokinetics?
A
Pharmacokinetics is the complex series of events that occurs once a drug is administered to the patient.
10
Q
What is the oral route of administration?
A
The oral route (PO) involves administering drugs in the mouth, but may not be effective if the animal is vomiting or has diarrhea.
11
Q
What is the intravenous route of administration?
A
The intravenous route (IV) involves administering drugs into the veins, taking effect almost immediately but not lasting as long as other routes.
12
Q
What is the intramuscular route of administration?
A
The intramuscular route (IM) involves injecting drugs into the muscle, which may be painful and is absorbed more slowly than IV.
13
Q
What is the subcutaneous route of administration?
A
The subcutaneous route (SQ or SC) involves injecting drugs into the tissue beneath the skin.
14
Q
What is the intradermal route of administration?
A
The intradermal route (ID) involves injecting drugs into the skin, often used for allergy testing.
15
Q
What is the intraperitoneal route of administration?
A
The intraperitoneal route (IP) involves injecting drugs into the abdominal cavity.
16
Q
What is the intraarterial route of administration?
A
The intraarterial route (IA) involves injecting drugs into an artery.
17
Q
What is the intraarticular route of administration?
A
The intraarticular route involves injecting drugs into a joint.
18
Q
What is the intracardiac route of administration?
A
The intracardiac route involves injecting drugs into the heart, often used for euthanasia or CPR.
19
Q
What is the intramedullary route of administration?
A
The intramedullary route involves injecting drugs into the bone marrow cavity.
20
Q
What is the epidural/subdural route of administration?
A
The epidural/subdural route involves injecting drugs into the spine (epidural) or near the spine (subdural).
21
Q
What is a nebulizer?
A
A nebulizer allows drugs to be inhaled in a fine mist, often used for antibiotics or bronchodilators.
22
Q
What is a metered-dose inhaler?
A
A metered-dose inhaler is a hand-held device that administers medication by fitting over an animal’s nose and mouth.
23
Q
What are anesthetic gases?
A
Anesthetic gases are gaseous forms of drugs given with vaporizers.
24
Q
What is transdermal administration?
A
Transdermal administration involves placing drugs on the skin, allowing slow absorption over time.
25
What is the concentration gradient?
The concentration gradient is the movement of drugs from areas of high concentration to lower concentration.
26
What is bioavailability?
Bioavailability measures the amount of drug that gets absorbed and is available to the patient.
27
What are water-soluble drugs?
Water-soluble drugs dissolve in water and tend to stay in the bloodstream.
28
What are lipid-soluble drugs?
Lipid-soluble drugs are absorbed by bodily fats and tend to move out of the bloodstream into interstitial fluid.
29
What are drug residues?
Residues are drugs that appear in the animal's milk or meat products, which may cause allergic reactions in some people.
30
What is pharmacodynamics?
Pharmacodynamics is the study of how drugs produce physiological changes in the body.
31
What is efficacy?
Efficacy is the degree to which a drug produces its desired effect.
32
What is potency?
Potency is the amount of drug needed to produce the desired effect.
33
What is a lethal dose (LD50)?
LD50 is the dose of the drug that is lethal to 50% of the animals given that drug.
34
What is an effective dose (ED50)?
ED50 is the dose of a drug that produces the desired effect in 50% of the animals given that drug.
35
What is the therapeutic index?
The therapeutic index is the relationship between a drug’s ability to achieve the desired effect and its tendency to produce toxic effects. The therapeutic index, which is expressed as the ratio between the LD50 and the ED50, quantitates the drug’s margin of safety. The LD50 is the dose of a drug that is lethal to 50% of the animals in a dose-related trial. The ED50 is the dose of a drug that produces the desired effect in 50% of the animals in a dose-related trial. The index is calculated as follows: therapeutic index = LD50/ED50.
The larger the number that is produced by dividing the LD50 by the ED50, the greater the level of safety. Drugs with a narrow margin of safety (low therapeutic index) must be administered with caution to prevent toxic or fatal effects. The drugs used to treat cancer often have a low therapeutic index
36
What is an adverse drug reaction?
An adverse drug reaction is any undesired response to a drug.
37
What is a formulary?
A formulary is a book that contains drug dosages and a listing of adverse reactions.
38
How are drugs classified?
Drugs are classified as proprietary (trade name) or generic (unpatented copy).
39
What information must drug labels contain?
Drug labels must contain drug names, concentration and quantity, manufacturer details, controlled substance status, lot number, and expiration date.
40
What does the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulate?
The EPA regulates the development and approval of animal topical pesticides.
41
What does the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) regulate?
The DEA regulates substances with potential for human abuse and requires careful record-keeping for dispensed drugs.
42
What does the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) regulate?
The USDA regulates the development and approval of biologics such as vaccines and serums.
43
What is the Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act (AMDUCA)?
AMDUCA made the extra label use of approved veterinary drugs legal under certain conditions.
44
What are the six rights of drug administration?
The six rights are: right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time and frequency, and right documentation.
45
What forms do oral medications come in?
Oral medications come in tablets, suspensions, and capsules.
46
What are emulsions?
Emulsions are milky solutions containing the drug that need to be shaken before use.
47
What are elixirs?
Elixirs are liquid medications held in solution by alcohol, often containing flavoring and sweeteners.
48
What are the four types of syringes?
The four types of syringes are slip tip, luer lock, eccentric tip, and catheter tip.
49
What is an IV catheter?
An IV catheter is used for repetitive intravenous medications, placed into the vein for repeated injections.
50
What are butterfly catheters used for?
Butterfly catheters are used for short-term IV therapy.
51
What are endotracheal tubes?
Endotracheal tubes are placed into the trachea for controlled ventilation or anesthesia.
52
What are tranquilizers?
Tranquilizers are drugs used to calm or quiet a patient, such as acepromazine.
53
What are neuroleptanalgesics?
Neuroleptanalgesics are a combination of an opioid and a tranquilizer, useful for restraint and minor surgical procedures.
54
What is behavioral pharmacotherapy?
Behavioral pharmacotherapy is the use of drugs to treat various behavioral problems in animals.
55
What are antianxiety medications?
Antianxiety medications help relieve anxiety in animals, with side effects including lethargy and hyperexcitability.
56
What are antidepressant medications?
Antidepressant medications block reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain, used for various conditions.
57
What are serotonin-reuptake inhibitors?
Serotonin-reuptake inhibitors increase serotonin levels in the brain by preventing its removal.
58
What are monoamine oxidase-B inhibitors?
Monoamine oxidase-B inhibitors block the enzyme that breaks down dopamine, increasing dopamine levels.
59
What are inotropic drugs?
Inotropic drugs affect the force of heart contractions; positive inotropic drugs improve strength, while negative inotropic drugs decrease it.
60
What are chronotropic drugs?
Chronotropic drugs affect heart rate; positive chronotropic drugs increase heart rate, while negative chronotropic drugs decrease it.
61
What are emetics?
Emetics are drugs that cause vomiting, used in treatment of poisonings and drug overdoses.
62
What are antiemetics?
Antiemetics help control or prevent vomiting but do not cure the underlying disease.
63
What are hemantics?
Hemantics are iron supplements that help correct anemia.
64
What are anticoagulants?
Anticoagulants are drugs used to stop clot formation.
65
What are laxatives?
Laxatives are medications given to stimulate bowel movements.
66
What are anti-acids?
Anti-acids neutralize stomach acid by binding directly to it.
67
What are antitussives?
Antitussives suppress or inhibit coughing, usually for nonproductive cough.
68
What are expectorants?
Expectorants liquefy/dilute secretions in respiratory tract. They reduce the adhesiveness of mucus by direct action on mucus-secreting glands. Make evacuation of mucus easier. Indicated for productive coughs.
69
What are mucolytics?
Mucolytics alter the chemical composition of mucus. Administered by nebulization.
70
What are decongestants?
Decongestants eliminate or reduce swelling or congestion of nasal passages.
71
What are corticosteroids?
Corticosteroids are used primarily in the treatment of allergic respiratory conditions and for their antiinflammatory properties. Oral corticosteroids are considered the drugs of choice in the treatment of chronic airway inflammation in dogs and cats. Corticosteroid therapy controls the signs of respiratory disease, not the cause. Corticosteroids treat respiratory conditions due to allergies and help control inflammation.
72
What is acetylcholine?
Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that enables learning, memory, and muscle contraction. The neurotransmitter for cholinergic sites is acetylcholine. Acetylcholine combines with both nicotinic and muscarinic receptors. Acetylcholine is the most widely distributed neurotransmitter in the body.
73
What are anticholinergics?
Cholinergic blocking agents are drugs that block the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system. Anticholinergic agents are also called parasympatholytic because their effects reduce the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system. Anticholinergics decrease GI motility, dry secretions, dilate pupils, and prevent bradycardia.
74
What are adrenergic agents?
Adrenergic agents bring about action at receptors mediated by epinephrine or norepinephrine; mimic the “fight or flight” response. Adrenergic agents may be classified as catecholamines or noncatecholamines, and either category can also be classified according to the specific receptor types activated (alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1, beta-2). Adrenergic agents stimulate heart beats, correct hypotension, and cause vasodilation.
75
What are barbiturates?
Very potent class of drugs
non revirsible, must be metabolized + excreted by liver and kidneys. Barbiturates depress the central nervous system. Classified by duration of action. Long-acting, short acting, ultra short acting) Ex: phenobarbital, pentobarbital, thiobaerbituates (tissue sloughing, goes into fat storage, not for sighthounds)
76
What are non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
NSAIDs are analgesic drugs that provide mild pain relief and anti-inflammatory benefits for conditions like arthritis. The most common side effects of the NSAIDs are GI ulceration and bleeding.
NSAIDs are thought to work by inhibiting an enzyme called cyclooxygenase (COX), which synthesizes prostaglandin. Two forms (COX-1 and COX-2) of COX exist. COX-1 maintains physiologic functions such as modulation of renal blood flow, platelet function, and gastric mucosal integrity. Therefore, the disadvantage of administering NSAID is COX-1 inhibition resulting in reduced renal blood flow, bleeding, and GI ulceration. COX-2 is considered the induced (by tissue injury) form that promotes the formation of prostaglandin from cell membrane arachidonic acid. So, COX-2 is associated with tissue trauma and inflammation. Generally, inhibition of COX-2 is responsible for effectiveness of NSAIDs and reduces inflammation and fever whereas inhibition of COX-1 is associated with side effects.
77
What are synthetic progestins?
In the anti-depressant class, synthetic progestins are used to treat behavioral problems associated with hormonal changes. ex: for treatment of urine spraying/marking, intermale aggression, and dominance aggression
78
What are euthanasia agents?
Euthanasia agents are used to relieve suffering by ending an animal's life humanely.
79
What are antidiuretic hormones (ADH)?
Antidiuretic hormones (Adh), including vasopressin, treat diabetes insipidus by regulating urine production.
80
What are urinary acidifiers?
Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine/lower urine ph, which assists in dissolving and preventing formation of struvite uroliths / crystals. Since the introduction of urinary acidifying diets, urinary acidifiers have not been routinely prescribed.
81
What are urinary alkalinizers?
Urinary alkalinizers raise urine pH to discourage the formation of urinary stones that form in acid urine. ex: calcium oxalates.
82
What is urinary incontinence?
Urinary incontinence is the inability of the animal to urinate on demand. The animal can’t urinate at all
or urinates uncontrollably. Nerve damage and hormonal imbalance are the two most common
conditions associated with urinary incontinence
83
What are glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)?
GAGs help manage interstitial cystitis by covering epithelium of urinary tract and preventing microorganisms and crystals from adhering to bladder wall.
84
What types of stones or crystals can form in acid urine?
Urate, calcium oxalate, and cystine stones or crystals.
85
What is urinary incontinence?
The inability of the animal to urinate on demand, either not urinating at all or urinating uncontrollably.
86
What are the common conditions associated with urinary incontinence?
Nerve damage and hormonal imbalance.
87
What role do glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) play in interstitial cystitis?
GAGs help manage interstitial cystitis by preventing microorganisms and crystals from sticking to the bladder wall.
88
What is Epakitin and its function?
Epakitin is extracted from crab and shrimp shells and binds phosphorus in the intestine to help eliminate high blood phosphorus levels in pets with renal failure.
89
What are catecholamines and their effects?
Catecholamines, such as epinephrine, are ADRENERGIC agents that increase heart contraction force and rate, constrict peripheral blood vessels, and elevate blood glucose levels.
## Footnote
Side effects include tachycardia, dyspnea, and blood pressure changes.
90
What do bipyridine derivatives do?
Bipyridine derivatives, like amrinone and milrinone, are positive inotropic drugs (increase strength of heart contractions) that inhibit calcium producing enzymes within the cell
91
What is the function of surfactants?
Surfactants, are stool softeners that reduce water surface tension, allowing water to penetrate and soften gastrointestinal contents are therefore softening stool.
92
What are protectants and their examples?
Protectants, like bismuth subsalicylate and activated charcoal, coat the intestinal mucosa and protect it from further inflammation. Binds with toxins and bacteria to prevent their absorption.
93
What are antifoaming agents and their use?
Antifoaming agents, such as bloat guard, prevent gas bloating in ruminants by changing bubble surface tension to facilitate expulsion.
94
What are anti-inflammatory drugs used for in the context of GI issues?
Anti-inflammatory drugs, like prednisolone and azathioprine, decrease inflammation in the intestinal walls during idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease (IBD).
95
What do GI prokinetics/stimulants do?
They increase gastrointestinal motility to speed up material transit through the tract.
96
What are bulk-producing agents and their examples?
Bulk-producing agents, such as Metamucil, bran, or psyllium, absorb water and swell to increase intestinal bulk and stimulate peristalsis.
97
What is recommended to rule out parasites as a cause of gastrointestinal issues?
A fecal examination, including a float and centrifuge separation, is recommended.
98
What are prostaglandin E-1 analogs used for?
Prostaglandin E1 analogues are used primarily to prevent or treat gastric ulcers associated with the use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). decrease stomach acid production, protect the stomach lining, and prevent or treat gastric ulcers.
99
What are the components of the endocrine system?
Pituitary gland, adrenal gland, thyroid gland, ovaries or testicles, pancreas, kidneys, and hypothalamus.
100
What factors influence hormone production by the hypothalamus?
Odors, sounds, sights, stress, and temperature.
Hypothalamus sense whether certain hormones need produced, some factors that influence that are
Odors, Sounds, Sights, Stress, Temperature. It releases trophic (growth-type) hormones, which travel
through the blood to various organs. Negative feedback is where high levels of hormone decrease the
activity of the hypothalamus. Positive feedback is where low levels of the hormone cause increased
activity of the hypothalamus
101
What is the role of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)?
GnRH causes the pituitary gland to release follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
102
What does FSH do?
FSH causes a follicle to form and begins to release estrogen.
103
What is the function of estrogen in the reproductive cycle?
Estrogen transitions the body from proestrus to estrus, indicating readiness for breeding.
104
What does LH do?
LH causes the mature follicle to ovulate and form a corpus luteum.
105
What is the role of progesterone?
Progesterone prepares the uterus for reproduction and decreases GnRH production through negative feedback.
106
What is gonadorelin?
Gonadorelin is a SYNTHETIC gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
It is produced endogenously by the hypothalamus. Gonadorelin causes the release of FSH and LH by the anterior pituitary (it is a GnRH)
Clinical Uses
Gonadorelin is used to treat cystic (follicular) ovaries in dairy cattle. It has also been used in cats and horses (with limited success) to induce estrus.
107
What is the use of chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
hCG causes an animal to produce mostly LH and is used to treat cystic ovaries in cattle.
108
What is the function of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)?
FSH causes growth and maturation of the ovarian follicle.
FSH has been used in veterinary medicine to induce superovulation and for out-of-season breeding.
109
What are estrogens used for?
Estrogens inhibit ovulation, increase uterine tone, and treat persistent corpus luteums in cattle.
110
What are androgens and their effects?
Androgens, including testosterone, promote weight gain, red blood cell formation, and tissue growth; they can prevent estrus in female dogs.
111
What are progestins?
Progestins are synthetics similar to progesterone and have similar effects. They help maintain pregnancy/ trick body into thinking it is pregnant.
Uses: estrus synchronization (mimics or supresses estrus for better management of breeding times)
112
What is prostaglandin used for?
| In reproduction, specifically
Prostaglandin breaks down the corpus luteum, contraction of uterine muscles, relax cervix.
Uses: helps abort pregnancies, induce parturition, treat pyometra. (mostly in large animals)
113
What hormones do the thyroid glands produce?
The thyroid glands convert iodine into T3 (active) and T4 (inactive) hormones.
114
What bodily processes are influenced by the thyroid gland?
Heart rate, body temperature, metabolic rate, metabolism, and skin condition.
115
What are the signs of hyperthyroidism?
Fast heart rates, weight loss despite eating, and hyperexcitability.
116
What are the signs of hypothyroidism?
Lethargy, poor skin and hair coat conditions, and bradycardia.
117
What is hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s disease)?
Affects mostly dogs. A disorder where the adrenal gland cannot produce aldosterone and glucocorticoids, leading to weakness, collapse, and diarrhea. fatal if not treated.
Signs:
* Lethargy
* weight loss
* PU/PD
* skin changes
* ARYTHMIAS
118
What is hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s disease)?
The oversecretion of aldosterone and glucocorticoids by the adrenal gland, often caused by a pituitary tumor. Mostly present in older dogs.
Signs:
* A+
*PU/PD
*hairloss
*enlarged abdomen
*skin infections
*lethargy
119
What is the purpose of ophthalmic drugs?
To help veterinarians treat eye problems in animals.
120
What does the Schirmer tear test measure?
The amount of tears produced by the lacrimal glands.
121
What does fluorescein stain check for?
It checks if the cornea is intact or has an ulcer.
122
What is the significance of corneal ulcers?
They must be treated promptly to prevent eye rupture.
123
What is Rose Bengal used for?
To detect corneal damage due to viruses or low tear production.
124
What is intraocular pressure measurement used for?
To detect high pressure that can lead to blindness.
125
What are topical anesthetic drops used for?
To numb an eye for checking and removing foreign bodies.
126
What is the use of diluted povidone iodine solution?
As an antiseptic to clean the eye surface before surgery.
127
What are mydriatics?
Agents used to dilate pupils for better examination of the eye.
128
What are miotics used for?
To constrict pupils and help treat glaucoma.
129
How can intraocular pressure be controlled?
By decreasing the production of aqueous humor using carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.
130
What is a tonometer used for?
To measure eye pressure.
131
What are otic drugs used for?
To treat ear problems in animals.
132
What does a dermatophyte test do?
Detects fungal agents using a woods lamp.
133
What are the functions of the skin?
Protection, temperature regulation, storage, sensory perception, secretion, and vitamin D production.
134
What are the three layers of the skin?
Epidermis (outermost), dermis (contains blood vessels and nerves), and hypodermis (contains fat and connective tissues).
135
What is seborrhea?
A skin condition resulting in increased scaling.
136
What is a keratolytic agent?
An agent that promotes loosening of the epidermis to remove scaling.
137
What are astringents used for?
To precipitate proteins and treat moist dermatitis.
138
What is an antiseptic?
An agent that inhibits bacterial growth on the skin, used for cleaning wounds.
139
What is an antipruritic?
Anti-itching medicine, such as fatty acid supplements.
140
What does zoonotic mean?
Diseases from animals that can affect humans, such as roundworms and toxoplasmosis.
141
What are the four stages of wound healing?
1. Inflammation and clotting. 2. White blood cell activity. 3. Fibroblast activity and granulation tissue formation. 4. Remodeling and strengthening of the healed area.
142
What is an Elizabethan collar?
A reverse lampshade placed over the neck of an animal to prevent licking of wounds.
143
What are caustic agents?
Substances that burn away or eat dead flesh.
144
What are microorganisms?
Organisms that can only be seen with a microscope, including bacteria, fungi, viruses, and protozoa.
145
What do gram tests classify?
Bacteria based on staining characteristics: gram-positive (blue) and gram-negative (red).
146
What is an acid-fast stain used for?
To classify bacteria that do not stain with gram tests.
147
What are aerobic and anaerobic bacteria?
Aerobic bacteria require oxygen, while anaerobic bacteria thrive in oxygen-free environments.
148
What are antibiotics used for?
To inhibit bacterial growth (bacteriostatic) or kill bacteria (bactericidal).
149
How are fungal infections categorized?
Into superficial (skin and eyes) and systemic (blood, lungs, CNS) infections.
150
What is the purpose of culture and sensitivity tests?
To identify the infectious agent and determine which antibiotics inhibit its growth.
151
What is the difference between disinfectants and antiseptics?
Disinfectants are for inanimate objects, while antiseptics are for living tissues.
152
What are ectoparasites and endoparasites?
Ectoparasites live on a host, while endoparasites live inside a host.
153
What is parasitiasis?
When an animal is infected but shows no clinical signs.
154
What is paratiosis?
When an animal is infected and clinical signs are present.
155
What is an anthelmintic?
A drug used to eliminate intestinal worm parasites, such as roundworms.
156
What are anticestodal medications used for?
To treat tapeworms.
157
What are antitrematodal drugs used for?
To remove flukes, which affect the liver.
158
What are antiprotozoal drugs used for?
To treat protozoa, such as coccidia and giardia, which cause diarrhea.
159
What are indirect signs of pain in a dog?
Abnormal body position, increased heart rate, decreased appetite, and vocalization.
160
What are corticosteroids?
Potent anti-inflammatory agents that relieve symptoms but do not treat the underlying disease.
161
What is the function of mineralocorticoids?
To help regulate electrolyte and water balance in the body.
EX: aldosterone
162
What are signs of dehydration?
Vomiting, diarrhea, lack of desire to drink, dry mucous membranes, and weak pulse.
163
What is a macrodrip set?
A set that gives 10, 15, or 20 drops per ml, while a microdrip set gives 60 drops per ml.
164
What are fat-soluble vitamins?
Vitamins A, D, E, and K, which are not removed from the body with increased fluids.
165
What is the role of vitamin A?
Growth and adequate visual pigment in eyes.
166
What is the role of vitamin D?
Growth and regulation of calcium levels.
167
What is the role of vitamin E?
Acts as an antioxidant; too little can cause muscle diseases.
168
What is the role of vitamin K?
Involved in the clotting process and can act as an antidote.
169
What are immunosuppressive agents?
Drugs used to treat immune-mediated disorders. Used in cases where the body's immune system attacks itself
170
What are inactivated vaccines?
Vaccines that contain killed organisms, are safe, but may not provide a strong immune response.
171
What are live vaccines?
Vaccines made from living organisms that stimulate a vigorous immune response.
172
What are modified live vaccines?
Vaccines that have been processed to remove virulence from live organisms.
173
What are recombinant vaccines?
Vaccines made by modifying the DNA of organisms.
174
What are core vaccines?
Basic vaccinations recommended for all animals to protect against common diseases.
175
What are noncore vaccines?
Vaccines recommended based on specific risk factors.
176
What are modified live vaccines?
Vaccines that take the live organism and process it to remove the organism’s virulence. Many viruses can be vaccinated for in this way.
177
What are recombinant vaccines?
Vaccines made by modifying the DNA of the organisms in various ways to produce vaccines.
178
What are core vaccines?
The basic vaccinations recommended for all animals that protect from common contagious diseases.
179
What are noncore vaccines?
Vaccines recommended based on risk factors, such as where the animal lives and their way of life.
180
What is a toxoid?
A vaccine used in producing immunity to a toxin rather than to a bacterium or virus.
181
What are some signs that an animal is reacting to a vaccine?
Signs include vomiting, salivation, dyspnea, hives, lack of coordination, and swelling of the face or muscles.
182
What is regenerative medicine?
The use of cells and growth factors to improve the repair of damaged or poorly functioning tissues or organs, usually orthopedic disorders.
183
What are stem cells?
Cells that can differentiate into appropriate tissue or organs, allowing for the continuous renewal of various tissues and organs.
184
What are nutraceuticals?
Food components that have health benefits, including disease prevention and treatment, but do not undergo FDA testing for safety or efficacy.
185
What is chondroprotective therapy?
The use of agents like glucosamines to slow down the erosion of cartilage in animals, best used before the onset of arthritis.
186
What is herbal medicine?
The use of plants to treat disease, available in various forms such as dried, powdered, capsules, or liquid extracts.
187
What are some examples of herbal medicine?
Ginger for anti-inflammatory effects, aloe vera to treat burns and wounds, and milk thistle to support and heal the liver.
188
What are lubricants used for in veterinary practice?
Used for gynecologic and rectal exams; should be water-soluble to help with the cleaning of instruments.
189
Why is inventory control important in veterinary practice?
It ensures the correct completion of DEA forms and verifies that invoices match the prices and quantities ordered and received.
190
Why is having the right supplies on hand important?
It can make a life-or-death difference for animal patients and assure the smooth flow of caregiving.
191
What does triage mean in a veterinary context?
Making an evaluation and choosing the most injured or critically ill patient to be seen first.
192
What supplies are typically found in a crash cart?
Includes endotracheal tubes, gloves, tape, gauze, scissors, IV catheters, fluids, urinary catheters, monitors, bandage material, Ambu-bag, stethoscope, syringes, needles, blood tubes, and other laboratory supplies.
193
What emergency procedures can veterinary technicians perform?
They can perform CPR, catheter placement, and administration of drugs.
194
What is negative/positive feedback?
the plasma level of a particular hormone controls the activity of the gland that produces it. The feedback may be negative or positive.
Negative feedback = high plasma levels of a hormone are sensed by the hypothalamus > reduces the amount of the appropriate releasing factor (or hormone) > reduces the amount of hormone released from the pituitary > causing less activity in the organ that is producing the hormone in question > lower the amount of the hormone in the plasma.
Positive feedback > low levels of a hormone are sensed by the hypothalamus> and release of the appropriate releasing factor increases > Increased amounts of the corresponding trophic hormone are then secreted > increased activity in the target organ and a corresponding rise in the plasma levels of the hormone.
195
What are inhalant anesthetics?
Gases that induce anasthesia once inhaled such as isoflurane and sevoflurane. Enter and exit body via lungs. Allow for quick alteration of anesthesia depth.
196
What is the MAC?
Minimum Alveolar Content.
Measure of potency/concentration of an anesthetic gas that prevents movement in 50% of patient to which it is administered.
Lower MAC = more potent
Higher MAC = less potent.
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What is propofol?
A miscellaneous CNS drug. Short acting. Provides rapid sedation but is very short acting. Good for c-section as does not cross placental barrier. Good alternative to barbituates for sighthounds.
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What is Acetylcysteine?
A mucolytic that can also be administered iv/po in cases of acetaminophen toxicity.
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What are bronchodilators?
A bronchodilator is a substance that dilates the bronchi and bronchioles, decreasing resistance in the respiratory airway and increasing airflow to the lungs.
200
What are antihistamines?
Substances that block the effect of histamine. Used for treatment of allergic responses & respiratory conditions.
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What is histamine?
Histamine is released by mast cells in allergic response and cause bronchoconstriction.
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What are the main functions of the respiratory system?
1.oxygen-carbon dioxyde exchange
2. acid-base balance regulation
3. body temperature regulation
4. voice production
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What are the main functions of the urinary system?
1. Water balance
2. acid-base balance
3. osmotic pressure regulation
4. electrolytes regulation
5. concentration of plasma substances
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How do kidneys affect red blood cell production?
Kidneys release erythropoeitin which sends signal to bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. If kidney failure occurs, erythropoeitin production is affected which can lead to anemia as bone marrow isnt getting signal to produce more RBCs.
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What are diuretics?
Drugs that remove excess extracellular fluids. Work by increasing bloodflow + sodium excretion + reducing hypertension.
3 categories : loop, osmotic, thiazide.
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What are loop diuretics?
Drugs that inhibit tubular reabsorbtion of sodium + promote excretion of chloride, potassium, water.
* May lead to hypokalemia long term.
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What are osmotic diuretics?
Drugs that promote diuresis by exerting high osmotic pressure in kidney tubules and limit tubular reabsorption.
* rapid reduction of edema
* may cause electrolyte imbalance
* reduction of intraoccular/intracerebral pressure
* Not used for severely dehydrated patients or patients with anuria or pulmonary congestion
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What are potassium-sparing diuretics?
weaker diuretics, conserve potassium, enhances excretion of sodium+water.
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What is preload/afterload/stroke volume?
**preload ** = amount of blood being forced INTO the heart with each contraction
**afterload** = how much pressure the heart must work against to pump blood into the body
**stroke volume** = amount of blood moved with each contraction
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What are Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme inhibitors?
ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Used for the treatment of heart diseases.
Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor, ADH releaser, blood pressure raising agent which promotes sodium/water retention. Not good for heart conditions.
ex: benazepril
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What are the objectives of the treatment of heart disease?
1. control rythm disturbances
2. maintain/increase cardiac output
3. increase strength of contractions
4. decrease afterload
5. increase oxygenation of blood
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How are diuretics helpful in treating heart conditions?
They reduce the preload through diuresis and remove edema
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What are the compensatory mechanisms of the cardiovascular system?
1. increased HR
2. increase stroke volume
3. increase efficiency of cardiac muscles
4. cardiac remodeling.
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What are the functions of the GI system?
1. Reception of food and fluid into the body (mouth)
2. Nutrient & fluid absoption
3. Excretion of waste products
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How do NSAIDs work?
| COX 1 , COX 2
NSAIDs work by inhibiting an enzyme called cyclooxygenase (COX), which synthesizes prostaglandin. Two forms (COX-1 and COX-2) of COX exist.
COX-1 maintains physiologic functions such as modulation of renal blood flow, platelet function, and gastric mucosal integrity. COX-1 inhibition results in reduced renal blood flow, bleeding, and GI ulceration.
COX-2 is associated with tissue trauma, inflammation and thermoregulation. NSAIDs that selectively inhibit COX-2 are thought to produce fewer GI side effects.
Inhibition of COX-2 is responsible for effectiveness of NSAIDs and reduces inflammation and fever whereas inhibition of COX-1 is associated with side effects.
NSAIDs that spare COX-1 and selectively inhibit COX-2 would reduce inflammation and eliminate the negative effects.
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What are the 4 phases of the animal reproductive cycle?
proestrus, estrus, diestrus, anestrus
OR
follicular / luteal phase
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What are the 3 categories of insulin?
short acting, intermediate acting, long acting
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What are Bactericidals and some examples?
| PeCeFlAm
Antibiotics that work by killing bacteria.
*Penicilins
* Cephalosporins
* Aminoglycosides
* Fluoroquinolones
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What are Bacteriostatics and some examples?
| SuTeCh
Antibiotics that work by inhibiting bacterial growth.
* Tetracyclines
* Chloramphenicol
* Sulfonamides
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What can cause S.L.U.D.G.E and what is it?
Organophosphate toxicity.
Salivation
Lethargy
Urination
Defecation
Gi upset
Emesis
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What is ADH?
Antidiuretic hormone
Secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. Regulates fluid balance in the body. In some conditions, such as pituitary diabetes insipidus, this hormone fails to be synthesized or excreted properly, and polyuria and polydipsia may occur.
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What has lower ph? Acid or base?
Acid
