Penny Review Questions Flashcards
(180 cards)
1
Q
Transitional cell carcinoma is commonly found in all of the following locations except:
a. liver
b. renal pelvis
c. urinary bladder
d. ureter
A
A
2
Q
The neuroblastoma is a malignant pediatric mass commonly found in:
a. kidney
b. liver
c. testicle
d. adrenal gland
A
D
3
Q
The pheochromocytoma is a benign mass commonly located in:
a. testicle
b. thyroid gland
c. adrenal gland
d. liver
A
C
4
Q
Which of the following is not considered an intaperitoneal organ?
a. liver
b. pancreas
c. gallbladder
d. spleen
A
B
5
Q
Which of the following is not considered retroperitoneal organs?
a. abdominal lymph nodes
b. kidneys
c. adrenal glands
d. ovaries
A
D
6
Q
The hypernephroma may also be referred to as:
a. nephroblastoma
b. neuroblastoma
c. hepatocellular carcinoma
d. renal cell carcinoma
A
D
7
Q
A type of reverberation artifact caused by several small, highly reflective interfaces, such as gas bubbles, describes:
a. mirror image artifact
b. posterior shadowing
c. comet tail artifact
d. ring-down artifact
A
C
8
Q
The term cholangiocarcinoma denotes:
a. bile duct carcinoma
b. hepatic carcinoma
c. pancreatic carcinoma
d. splenic carcinoma
A
A
9
Q
The hepatoma is a:
a. benign tumor of the spleen
b. benign tumor of the liver
c. malignant tumor of the pancreas
d. malignant tumor of the liver
A
D
10
Q
The hepatoblastoma is a:
a. benign tumor of the pediatric liver
b. benign tumor of the adult liver
c. malignant tumor of the pediatric liver
d. malignant tumor of the pediatric adrenal gland
A
C
11
Q
A Wilms tumor may also be referred to as a:
a. neuroblastoma
b. nephroblastoma
c. hepatoblastoma
d. hepatoma
A
B
12
Q
An angiosarcoma would most likely be discovered in the:
a. rectum
b. gallbladder
c. spleen
d. pancreas
A
C
13
Q
A gastronoma would most likely be discovered in the:
a. pancreas
b. adrenal gland
c. stomach
d. spleen
A
A
14
Q
The space located behind the liver and stomach, and posterior to the pancreas is the:
a. hepatosplenic space
b. lesser sac
c. greater sac
d. supraduodenal space
A
B
15
Q
Of the list below, which is considered to be an intraperitoneal organ?
a. left kidney
b. aorta
c. inferior vena cava
d. liver
A
D
16
Q
Of the list below, which is considered to be a malignant testicular neoplasm?
a. neuroblastoma
b. hepatoma
c. yolk sac tumor
d. hamartoma
A
C
17
Q
The oncocytoma is a mass noted more commonly in the:
a. liver
b. adrenal gland
c. pancreas
d. kidneys
A
D
18
Q
These potential spaces extend alongside the ascending and descending colon on both sides of the abdomen.
a. parabolica gutters
b. periumbilical gutters
c. greater gutters
d. suprapubic gutters
A
A
19
Q
This common tumor of the kidney consists of blood vessels, muscle, and fat.
a. hemangioma
b. angiomyolipoma
c. oncocytoma
d. pheochromocytoma
A
B
20
Q
Which of the following is not a pediatric malignant mass?
a. hepatoblastoma
b. neuroblastoma
c. pheochromocytoma
d. nephroblastoma
A
C
21
Q
A tumor that consists of tissue from all three germ cell layers is the:
a. pheochromocytoma
b. oncocytoma
c. choriocarcinoma
d. teratoma
A
D
22
Q
A benign tumor that consists primarily of blood vessels best describes:
a. adenocarcinoma
b. oncocytoma
c. hemangioma
d. lymphoma
A
C
23
Q
The insulinoma is a:
a. malignant pediatric adrenal tumor
b. benign pancreatic tumor
c. malignant pancreatic tumor
d. benign liver tumor
A
B
24
Q
A tumor that consists of a group of inflammatory cells best describes the:
a. hematoma
b. hemangioma
c. lymphoma
d. granuloma
A
D
25
A tumor that consists of a focal collection of blood best describes the:
a. hematoma
b. hemangioma
c. hamartoma
d. hepatoma
A
26
The malignant testicular tumor that consists of trophoblastic cells is the:
a. cholangiocarcinoma
b. teratoma
c. yolk sac tumor
d. choriocarcinoma
D
27
Which of the following laboratory values would be most helpful in evaluating a patient with recent trauma?
a. white blood cell count
b. alpha-fetoprotein
c. blood urea nitrogen
d. hematocrit
D
28
Which of the following laboratory values would be most helpful in evaluating a patient with an infection?
a. white blood cell count
b. alpha-fetoprotein
c. blood urea nitrogen
d. hematocrit
A
29
The artifact most commonly encountered posterior to a gallstone is:
a. acoustic enhancement
b. shadowing
c. ring down
d. reverberation
B
30
A collection of abdominal fluid within the peritoneal cavity often associated with cancer is termed:
a. transudate ascites
b. peritoneal ascites
c. exudate ascites
d. chromatin ascites
C
31
The covering of the liver is referred to as:
a. glisson capsule
b. gerona fascia
c. morison pouch
d. hepatic fascia
A
32
The left lobe of the liver can be separated from the right lobe by:
a. right hepatic vein
b. middle hepatic vein
c. left hepatic vein
d. falciform ligament
B
33
The right lobe of the liver is divided into segments by the:
a. middle lobar fissure
b. middle hepatic vein
c. right hepatic vein
d. left hepatic vein
C
34
The right intersegmental fissure contains the:
a. right hepatic vein
b. middle hepatic vein
c. left portal vein
d. right portal vein
A
35
The main portal vein divides into:
a. middle, left, and right branches
b. left and right branches
c. anterior and posterior branches
d. medial and lateral branches
B
36
The ligament trees can be used to separate the:
a. medial and lateral segments of the left lobe
b. medial and posterior segments of the right lobe
c. anterior and medial segments of the left lobe
d. anterior and posterior segments of the right lobe
A
37
The main lobar fissure contains the:
a. right hepatic vein
b. middle hepatic vein
c. main portal vein
d. right portal vein
B
38
All of the following are located within the portal hepatic except:
a. main portal vein
b. common bile duct
c. hepatic artery
d. middle hepatic vein
D
39
Right-sided heart failure often leads to enlargement of the:
a. abdominal aorta
b. inferior vena cava and hepatic veins
c. inferior vena cava and portal veins
d. portal veins and spleen
B
40
The right portal vein divides into:
a. middle, left, and right branches
b. left and right branches
c. anterior and posterior branches
d. medial and lateral branches
C
41
The diameter of the portal vein should not exceed:
a. 4 mm
b. 8 mm
c. 10 mm
d. 13 mm
D
42
The right lobe of the liver can be divided into:
a. medial and lateral segments
b. medial and posterior segments
c. anterior and medial segments
d. anterior and posterior segments
D
43
Which of the following is true concerning the portal veins?
a. portal veins carry deoxygenated blood away from the liver
b. portal veins have brighter walls than the hepatic veins
c. portal veins should demonstrate hepatofugal flow
d. portal veins increase in diameter as they approach the diaphragm
B
44
The left lobe of the liver can be divided onto:
a. medial and lateral segments
b. medial and posterior segments
c. anterior and medial segments
d. anterior and posterior segments
A
45
Budd-Chiari syndrome leads to a reduction in the size of the:
a. hepatic arteries
b. portal veins
c. hepatic veins
d. common bile duct
C
46
A tonguelike extension of the right lobe of the liver is termed:
a. papillary lobe
b. focal hepatomegaly
c. riedel lobe
d. morison pouch
C
47
The left portal vein divides into:
a. middle, left, and right branches
b. left and right branches
c. anterior and posterior branches
d. medial and lateral branches
D
48
The left umbilical vein after birth becomes the:
a. falciform ligament
b. main lobar fissure
c. ligamentum teres
d. ligamentum venosum
C
49
The inferior extension of the caudate lobe is referred to as:
a. papillary process
b. focal hepatomegaly
c. riedel process
d. morison lobe
A
50
Clinical findings of fatty infiltration of the liver include:
a. elevated liver function tests
b. fever
c. fatigue
d. weight loss
A
51
Shortly after birth, the ductus venous collapses and becomes the:
a. falciform ligament
b. main lobar fissure
c. ligamentum teres
d. ligamentum venosum
D
52
Sonographically, when the liver is difficult to penetrate and diffusely echogenic, this is indicative of:
a. portal vein thrombosis
b. metastatic liver disease
c. primary liver carcinoma
d. fatty liver disease
D
53
The most common cause of cirrhosis is:
a. portal hypertension
b. hepatitis
c. alcoholism
d. Cholangitis
C
54
Clinical findings of hepatitis include all of the following except:
a. jaundice
b. fever
c. chills
d. pericholecystic fluid
D
55
Immunocompromised patients are more prone to develop what form of hepatic abnormality?
a. hepatic adenoma
b. amebic abscess
c. hydatid liver abscess
d. candidiasis
D
56
All of the following are sequela of cirrhosis except:
a. portal vein thrombosis
b. hepatic artery enlargement
c. portal hypertension
d. splenomegaly
B
57
Normal flow toward the liver in the portal veins is termed:
a. hepatopetal
b. hepatofugal
A
58
Which of the following is the most common form of liver cancer?
a. hepatocellular carcinoma
b. adenocarcinoma
c. metastatic liver disease
d. hepatoblastoma
C
59
Which hepatic mass is closely associated with oral contraceptive use?
a. hepatic adenoma
b. hepatic hypernephroma
c. hepatic hamartoma
d. hepatic hemangioma
A
60
All of the following are clinical findings of hepatocellular carcinoma except:
a. reduction in alpha-fetoprotein
b. unexplained weight loss
c. fever
d. cirrhosis
A
61
A 71-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with painless jaundice and an enlarged, palpable gallbladder. These findings are highly suspicious for:
a. acute cholecystitis
b. chronic cholecystitis
c. courvoisier gallbladder
d. porcelain gallbladder
C
62
The innermost layer of the gallbladder wall is the:
a. fibromuscular layer
b. mucosal layer
c. serial layer
d. muscular layer
B
63
The cystic artery is branch of the:
a. main pancreatic artery
b. celiac artery
c. right hepatic artery
d. left hepatic artery
C
64
The middle layer of the gallbladder wall is the:
a. fibromuscular layer
b. mucosal layer
c. serosal layer
d. muscularis layer
A
65
Which structure is a useful landmark for identifying the gallbladder?
a. main lobar fissure
b. hepatoduodenal ligament
c. falciform ligament
d. ligamentum venosum
A
66
What hormone causes the gallbladder to contact?
a. estrogen
b. cholecystokinin
c. bilirubin
d. biliverdin
B
67
The gallbladder wall should measure no more than:
a. 5 mm
b. 6 mm
c. 4 mm
d. 3 mm
D
68
The direct blood supply to the gallbladder is the:
a. cholecystectomy artery
b. common hepatic artery
c. main portal vein
d. cystic artery
D
69
The outermost layer of the gallbladder wall is the:
a. fibromuscular layer
b. mucosal layer
c. serosal layer
d. muscularis layer
C
70
Hartmann pouch involves which part of the gallbladder:
a. neck
b. fundus
c. body
d. phrygian cap
A
71
The gallbladder is connected to the biliary tree by the:
a. common hepatic duct
b. common bile duct
c. cystic duct
d. right hepatic duct
C
72
The junctional fold is found at which level of the gallbladder:
a. neck
b. fundus
c. body
d. phrygian cap
A
73
What is/are cholelithiasis?
a. inflammation of the gallbladder
b. gallstones
c. hyperplasia of the gallbladder wall
d. stones within the biliary tree
B
74
The most common variant of gallbladder shape is the:
a. phrygian cap
b. hartmann pouch
c. septated gallbladder
d. junctional fold
A
75
The diameter of the gallbladder should not exceed:
a. 8 cm
b. 5 cm
c. 7 mm
d. 3 cm
B
76
Acute cholecystitis that leads to necrosis and abscess development within the gallbladder wall describes:
a. emphysematous cholecystitis
b. gangrenous cholecystitis
c. chronic cholecystitis
d. gallbladder perforation
B
77
All of the following are sources of diffuse gallbladder wall thickening except:
a. malignant ascites
b. AIDS
c. hepatitis
d. adenomyomatosis
A
78
Which statement is not true of cholelithiasis?
a. men have an increased likelihood of developing cholelithiasis
b. patients who have been or are pregnant have an increased occurrence of cholelithiasis
c. a rapid weight loss may increase the likelihood of developing cholelithiasis
d. patients who have hemolytic disorders have an increased occurrence of cholelithiasis
A
79
WES sign denotes:
a. the presence of a gallstone lodged in the cystic duct
b. multiple biliary stones and biliary dilatation
c. a gallbladder filled with cholelithiasis
d. the sonographic sign of a porcelain gallbladder
C
80
All of the following are sources of diffuse gallbladder wall thickening except:
a. benign ascites
b. hepatitis
c. congestive heart failure
d. gallbladder polyp
D
81
Tumefactive sludge can resemble the sonographic appearance of:
a. cholelithiasis
b. gallbladder carcinoma
c. cholecystitis
d. adenomyomatosis
B
82
The sequela of acute cholecystitis that is complicated by gas within the gallbladder wall is:
a. emphysematous cholecystitis
b. membranous cholecystitis
c. chronic cholecystitis
d. gallbladder perforation
A
83
A 32-year-old female patient presents to the sonography department with vague abdominal pain. The sonographic investigation of the gallbladder reveals a focal area of gallbladder wall thickening that produces comet tail artifact. These findings are consistent with:
a. gangrenous cholecystitis
b. gallbladder perforation
c. calculus cholecystitis
d. acute cholecystitis
D
84
Intermittent obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone results in:
a. emphysematous cholecystitis
b. gangrenous cholecystitis
c. chronic cholecystitis
d. acute cholecystitis
C
85
A nonmobile, non shadowing focus seen within the gallbladder lumen. This most likely represents a:
a. gallstone
b. gallbladder carcinoma
c. gallbladder polyp
d. sludge ball
C
86
Focal tenderness over the gallbladder with probe pressure describes:
a. murphy sign
b. strawberry sign
c. courvoisier sign
d. hydrops sign
A
87
The sequela of acute cholecystitis that is found more often in diabetic patients is:
a. emphysematous cholecystitis
b. gangrenous cholecystitis
c. chronic cholecystitis
d. gallbladder perforation
A
88
Cholesterol crystals within the Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses are found with:
a. acute cholecystitis
b. acalculous cholecystitis
c. adenomyomatosis
d. gallbladder perforation
C
89
The spiral valves of Heister are found within the:
a. gallbladder neck
b. cystic duct
c. gallbladder fundus
d. gallbladder wall
B
90
Courvoisier's gallbladder is associated with which of the following:
a. a pancreatic head mass
b. a stone in the cystic duct
c. cholecystitis
d. chronic diverticulitis
A
91
A congenital disease in which there is narrowing or obliteration of the bile ducts is referred to as:
a. caroli disease
b. mitizzi disease
c. choledochal cysts
d. biliary atresia
D
92
Primary biliary tree cancer is referred to as:
a. gallbladder carcinoma
b. biloma
c. cholangiocarcinoma
d. lymphangioma
C
93
The merging point of the pancreatic duct and common bile duct at the level of duodenum is referred to as the:
a. sphincter of Oddi
b. ampulla of vater
c. common bile duct
d. cystic duct
B
94
A gallstone located within the biliary tree is referred to as:
a. cholecystitis
b. choledocholithiasis
c. cholangitis
d. cholangiocarcinoma
B
95
The yellowish staining of the whites of the eyes and the skin secondary to a liver disorder or biliary obstruction is referred to as:
a. AIDS cholangitis
b. pruritus
c. jaundice
d. bilirubinemia
C
96
The Klatskin tumor is located:
a. at the junction of the right and left hepatic ducts
b. at the junction of the cystic and common bile duct
c. at the junction of the common bile duct and common hepatic duct
d. between the pancreatic head and duodenum
A
97
Inflammation of the bile ducts is referred to as:
a. pneumobilia
b. choledocholithiasis
c. cholelithiasis
d. cholangitis
D
98
A patient presents with jaundice, pain, and fever, secondary to an impacted stone in the cystic duct. This is referred to as:
a. caroli syndrome
b. mirizzi syndrome
c. choledochal cysts
d. biliary atresia
B
99
Air within the biliary tree is referred to as:
a. pneumobilia
b. cholangitis
c. choledocholithiasis
d. cholesterolosis
A
100
The spiral valves of Heister are located within the:
a. common bile duct
b. pancreatic duct
c. common hepatic duct
d. cystic duct
D
101
If a gallstone, causing obstruction, is located within the distal common hepatic duct, which of the following would become dilated?
a. common bile duct only
b. gallbladder only
c. intrahepatic ducts
d. all of the above
C
102
Which of the following is considered the most proximal portion of the biliary tree?
a. intrahepatic radicles
b. cystic duct
c. common hepatic duct
d. common bile duct
A
103
Which of the following would be the most distal portion of the biliary tree?
a. common bile duct
b. common hepatic duct
c. gallbladder
d. intrahepatic radicles
A
104
If an obstructive biliary calculus is located within the distal common duct, which of the following could ultimately dilate?
a. common bile duct
b. gallbladder
c. common hepatic duct
d. all of the above
D
105
The gallbladder is connected to the biliary tree by the:
a. cystic duct
b. ampulla of vater
c. sphincter of oddi
d. common bile duct
A
106
The most common level for biliary obstruction to occur is the:
a. junction of the right and left hepatic ducts
b. proximal common hepatic duct
c. distal common bile duct
d. cystic duct
C
107
A 32-year-old female patient presents to the sonography department with a history of fever, leukocytosis, and right upper quadrant pain. Sonographically, you visualize dilated bile ducts that have thickened walls and contains sludge. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. choledocholithiasis
b. cholangitis
c. mirizzi syndrome
d. biliary atresia
B
108
Sonographically, you visualize scattered echogenic linear structures within the liver parenchyma that produce ring-down artifact. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. pneumobilia
b. choledocholithiasis
c. sludge balls
d. cholesterolosis
A
109
A 64-year-old man presents to the sonography department for a right upper quadrant sonogram. He is complaining of abdominal pain, weight loss, and pruritus. Sonographically, you visualize an area of dilated ducts that abruptly end. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. biliary atresia
b. choledocholithiasis
c. caroli syndrome
d. cholangiocarcinoma
D
110
An abdominal sonogram is ordered on an infant in the intensive care unit who is suffering from jaundice and fever. Sonographically, you visualize a cystic mass within the common bile duct that is causing a focal enlargement. This is most suggestive of:
a. cholangiocarcinoma
b. mirizzi syndrome
c. choledochal cyst
d. biliary atresia
C
111
All of the following are clinical findings consistent with cholangiocarcinoma except:
a. pruritus
b. weight loss
c. elevated bilirubin
d. dilation of the intrahepatic ducts
D
112
Which of the following is not associated with the development of pneumobilia?
a. cholangiocarcinoma
b. gastric surgery
c. acute cholecystitis
d. fistula formation
A
113
A Klatskin tumor is a form of:
a. lymphocytic carcinoma
b. cholangiocarcinoma
c. pancreatic carcinoma
d. gallbladder carcinoma
B
114
The biliary duct wall should never measure more than:
a. 2 mm
b. 9 mm
c. 4 mm
d. 5 mm
D
115
Clinical findings of choledocholithiasis include all of the following except:
a. jaundice
b. elevated bilirubin
c. elevated blood urea nitrogen
d. elevated alkaline phosphatase
C
116
Which segment of the biliary tree tends to dilate first with obstruction:
a. intrahepatic
b. extrahepatic
B
117
Which of the following is not a plausible cause of common bile duct obstruction in adults?
a. choledocholithiasis
b. chronic pancreatitis
c. choledochal cyst
d. pancreatic carcinoma
C
118
All of the following are forms of cholangitis except:
a. acute bacterial
b. AIDS
c. oriental
d. parabolic
D
119
The yellow pigment found in bile that is produced by the breakdown of old red blood cells by the liver is:
a. alkaline phosphatase
b. bilirubin
c. cholesterol
d. chyme
B
120
For patients older than age 60, or those who have had a cholecystectomy, a maximum diameter of _____ may be considered normal.
a. 1 cm
b. 12 mm
c. 14 mm
d. 1.5 cm
A
121
All of the following are part of the exocrine function of the pancreas except for the:
a. production of lipase
b. production of glucagon
c. production of amylase
d. production of sodium bicarbonate
B
122
What is an additional name for the accessory duct of the pancreas?
a. duct of santorini
b. duct of langerhans
c. duct of oddi
d. duct of wirsung
A
123
Which of the following is associated with development of cysts within the pancreas?
a. autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
b. von hippel-lindau disease
c. zollinger-ellison syndrome
d. endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
B
124
The most common form of malignancy of the pancreas is:
a. cystadenocarcinoma
b. islet cell tumors
c. cyst adenoma
d. adenocarcinoma
D
125
The most common location of adenocarcinoma of the pancreas is within the:
a. head of the pancreas
b. neck of the pancreas
c. body of the pancreas
d. tail of the pancreas
A
126
The most common location of focal pancreatitis is within the:
a. head of the pancreas
b. neck of the pancreas
c. body of the pancreas
d. tail of the pancreas
A
127
All of the following are sonoraphic features of chronic pancreatitis except:
a. dilated pancreatic duct
b. calcifications within the pancreas
c. pancreatic pseudocyst
d. diffusely hypo echoic pancreas
D
128
All of the following are classic clinical features of acute pancreatitis except:
a. leukocytosis
b. back pain
c. weight gain
d. fever
C
129
Which laboratory value listed below appears to be more specific for acute pancreatitis?
a. amylase
b. lipase
c. AST
d. SGOT
B
130
One of the most common locations for a pancreatic pseudocyst is within the:
a. parabolica gutters
b. groin
c. spleen
d. lesser sac
D
131
Which of the following is the most common islet cell tumor?
a. granuloma
b. gastrinoma
c. insulinoma
d. cystadenoma
C
132
Courvoisier gallbladder is found in the presence of:
a. hepatitis
b. cholecystitis and chronic pancreatitis
c. adenocarcinoma in the head of the pancreas
d. islet cell tumor in the tail of the pancreas
C
133
A gastrinoma of the pancreas can produce:
a. autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
b. von hippel-lindau disease
c. zollinger-ellsion syndrome
d. hyperinsulinemia
C
134
The muscle that controls the emptying of bile and pancreatic juices into the duodenum is the:
a. sphincter of vater
b. sphincter of oddi
c. ampulla of vater
d. ampulla of oddi
B
135
What is the name for the main pancreatic duct?
a. duct of santorini
b. duct of langerhans
c. duct of oddi
d. duct of wirsung
D
136
All of the following are clinical findings associated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma except:
a. epigastric pain
b. weight loss
c. jaundice
d. decrease amylase and lipase
D
137
The portion of the bowel that encompasses the head of the pancreas is the:
a. duodenum
b. jejunum
c. ileum
d. cecum
A
138
Which cells carry out the exocrine function of the pancreas?
a. whipple cells
b. Isles of langerhans
c. delta cells
d. acing cells
D
139
The most common echogenicity of an acutely inflamed pancreas is via the:
a. anechoic
b. hyperechoic
c. hypoechoic
d. calcified
C
140
The arterial blood supply to the head of the pancreas is via the:
a. superior mesenteric artery
b. splenic artery
c. gastroduodenal artery
d. hepatic artery
C
141
One clinical sign of an insulinoma is the presence of:
a. low blood sugar symptoms
b. elevated alpha-fetaprotein
c. hepatitis
d. zollinger-ellison syndrome
A
142
What is the early sonographic appearance of acute pancreatitis?
a. calcifications within the gland
b. pancreatic pseudocyst
c. normal
d. hyper echoic glandular echotexture
C
143
Mucinous cystadenocarcinomas of the pancreas are most often located within which parts of the pancreas?
a. uncinate process and neck
b. head and neck
c. body and tail
d. fundus and neck
C
144
Co-existing obstruction of the common bile duct and pancreatic duct may be referred to as the:
a. double-barrel shotgun sign
b. courvoisier sign
c. mitizzi sign
d. double-duct sign
D
145
Courvoisier gallbladder is:
a. enlargement of the pancreatic duct secondary to co-existing masses within the pancreatic body and gallbladder
b. palpable gallbladder caused by a biliary obstruction in the area of the pancreatic head
c. gallbladder disorder associated with the buildup of cholesterol crystals within the gallbladder wall
d. type of the gallbladder carcinoma that is the result of chronic cholecystitis
B
146
The pancreas is an:
a. intraperitoneal organ
b. retroperitoneal organ
B
147
Which part of the pancreas is located right lateral to superior mesenteric vein, anterior to inferior vena cava, and inferior to portal vein?
a. head
b. neck
c. body
d. tail
A
148
The pancreatic tail is outlined posteriorly by what vascular structure?
a. superior mesenteric artery
b. inferior mesenteric vein
c. portal confluence
d. splenic vein
D
149
Which part of the pancreas is located anterior to portal confluence?
a. uncinate process
b. pancreatic body
c. pancreatic neck
d. pancreatic tail
C
150
Which of the following is the hormone released by the pancreas that encourages the body's use of glucagon?
a. insulin
b. somatostatin
c. glycogen
d. sodium bicarbonate
A
151
A 25-year-old female patient presents to the ultrasound department for a complete abdominal ultrasound. She complains of right upper abdomen appears normal. A small mass is noted in the area of the splenic hilum. This mass appears isoechoic to the spleen. What does this most likely represent?
a. pancreatic cystadenocarcinoma
b. splenic hemangioma
c. accessory spleen
d. neuroblastoma
C
152
A rare malignant tumor of the spleen that consists of blood vessels is a/an:
a. lymphoma
b. angiosarcoma
c. hemangioma
d. granuloma
B
153
A 48-year-old male patient with a history of severe, sudden onset of the left upper quadrant pain without trauma presents to the ultrasound department for a sonogram of the spleen. You visualize a wedge-shaped, hypo echoic area within the spleen. This most likely represents a:
a. splenic infarct
b. splenic hematoma
c. splenic hemangioma
d. splenic metastasis
A
154
What is the most common sonographic appearance of a splenic hemangioma?
a. echogenic
b. hypoechoic
c. anechoic
d. complex
A
155
The process of making red blood cells is termed:
a. erythropoiesis
b. leukopoiesis
c. histopoiesis
d. anemia
A
156
The splenic artery marks the:
a. posterior aspect of the pancreatic body and tail
b. superior aspect of the pancreatic body and tail
c. medial surface of the pancreatic body and tail
d. lateral aspect of the pancreatic body and tail
B
157
The most common cause of splenomegaly is:
a. hepatitis
b. portal hypertension
c. lymphoma
d. trauma
B
158
The type of tissue within the spleen that is responsible for its phagocytic function is the:
a. red pulp
b. white pulp
c. culling pulp
d. pitting pulp
A
159
A 32-year-old female patient presents to the ultrasound department for an abdominal sonogram. An evaluation of the spleen reveals a 1 cm, rounded, echogenic mass that does not produce acoustic shadowing. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. pheochromocytoma
b. lipoma
c. splenic metastasis
d. hemangioma
D
160
The spleen is a/an:
a. intraperitoneal organ
b. retroperitoneal organ
A
161
The type of tissue within the spleen that is responsible for its lymphatic function us the:
a. red pulp
b. white pulp
c. culling segment
d. pitting segment
B
162
The splenic vein marks the:
a. posterior aspect of the pancreatic body and tail
b. anterior aspect of the pancreatic body and tail
c. medial aspect of the pancreatic body and tail
d. lateral aspect of the pancreatic body and tail
A
163
All of the following are functions of the spleen except:
a. storage of iron
b. defense against disease
c. blood reservoir
d. destruction of phagocytic cells
D
164
Where is the most common location of an accessory spleen?
a. superior to the spleen
b. medial to the diaphragm and left kidney
c. splenic hilum
d. anterior to the pancreatic body
C
165
All of the following can be associated with splenomegaly except:
a. trauma
b. hemolytic abnormalities
c. mononucleosis
d. pancreatitis
D
166
Diffuse involvement of lymphoma or leukemia of the spleen will often lead to:
a. splenomegaly
b. splenic atrophy
c. epstein-barr infection
d. splenic torsion
A
167
The splenic artery originates at the:
a. superior mesenteric artery
b. inferior phrenic artery
c. celiac trunk
d. gastroduodenal artery
C
168
A 35-year-old male patient presents to the ultrasound department for an abdominal sonogram with a history of abdominal pain and histoplasmosis. What are you more likely to identify within the spleen?
a. multiple histomas
b. multiple hemangioma
c. multiple metastatic lesions
d. multiple granulomas
D
169
A 14-year-old male patient presents to the ultrasound department after falling for his bicycle. An abdominal sonogram reveals a complex-appearing mass within the spleen. This most likely represents a:
a. splenic hemangioma
b. splenic granuloma
c. splenic hematoma
d. splenic infarct
C
170
Sickle cell disease will often lead to:
a. splenic metastasis
b. sarcoidosis
c. splenomegaly
d. wandering spleen
C
171
Epstein-Barr infection is best described as:
a. a herpesvirus that can lead to infectious mononucleosis in children
b. a herpesvirus that is often associated with splenic granulomatous disease
c. an infection that results in sickle cell anemia in children
d. an infection within a splenic hematoma following blunt trauma
A
172
The spleen removes irregular cells from the bloodstream and retains them through a process called:
a. pitting
b. culling
c. crimping
d. amassing
B
173
An area within the spleen that has become necrotic because of a lack of oxygen is referred to as a:
a. splenic hemangioma
b. splenic hematoma
c. splenic infarct
d. granuloma
C
174
What systemic disease results in the development of granulomas within the spleen and throughout the body?
a. granulomatosis
b. sarcoidosis
c. sickle cell anemia
d. histoplasmosis
B
175
A complex cyst that results from the parasitic infestation of the spleen by a tapeworm is the:
a. bacterial endocarditic cyst
b. choledochal cyst
c. hydatid cyst
d. candidiasis
C
176
From the list below, what is the most likely clinical finding of a patient who has a splenic hemangioma?
a. fever
b. decreased hematocrit
c. elevated white blood cell count
d. none
D
177
In a patient with suspected lymphoma, the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells indicates:
a. Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
c. metastatic liver disease
d. splenic infarction
A
178
All of the following are true of the spleen except:
a. it is the largest structure of the reticuloendothelial system
b. the primary objective of the spleen is to filter the peripheral blood
c. the spleen has a convex inferior margin and a concave superior border
d. the spleen is considered the largest lymphatic organ
C
179
The splenic vein joins with what structure posterior to the pancreatic neck to form the portal vein?
a. inferior mesenteric artery
b. superior mesenteric vein
c. inferior mesenteric artery
d. main hepatic vein
B
180
Small echogenic foci scattered throughout the spleen most likely represent:
a. multiple benign hemangioma
b. multiple benign hematomas
c. multiple benign granulomas
d. malignant lymphoma
C
