Peri-Operative Care Flashcards
(153 cards)
1
Q
What is Malignant Hyperthermia?
A
Autosomal Dominant Disorder Initial muscle rigidity followed by increased temperature under General Anaesthesia
2
Q
Why should you check the airways in a Pre-Op Exam?
A
- Degree of mouth opening
- Teeth (Any loose?)
- Palate (Mallampati Classification)
- How far can they extend neck
3
Q
What is the American Society of Anaesthesiologist Grade?
A
Grades a patient from I-VI, with increasing severity of disease Subsequently gives a prediction of mortality from anaesthesia
4
Q
What is a Group and Save?
A
- Done when blood loss is NOT anticipated
- Determines blood group/rhesus status/atypical antibodies
- No blood is issued
5
Q
What is a Cross - Match?
A
Done when blood loss IS anticipated Mixed with donor blood to see if reaction happens
6
Q
What should you advise patients regarding eating Pre-Op?
A
Stop Eating 6hrs before Stop clear fluids 2hrs before To prevent Aspiration Pneumonitis (gastric contents) or Aspiration Pneumonia (direct inhalation)
7
Q
why are patients NBM before surgery?
A
To prevent Aspiration Pneumonitis (gastric contents) or Aspiration Pneumonia (direct inhalation)
8
Q
Using the mnemonic CHOW, what medications should be stopped Pre - Op?
A
- Clopidogrel (7d before)
- Hypoglycaemics
- Oral Contraceptives/HRT (stopped four weeks before)
- Warfarin (5d before)
9
Q
How are T1DM patients managed Pre-Op? Give three features
A
- Should be first on the morning list
- Reduce the insulin dose by a 1/3 the night before
- Omit morning insulin and set up sliding scale of Actrapid
10
Q
How are T1DM patients managed Post-Op?
A
- After Op give SC Insulin 20 mins before first meal
- Stop IV infusion 30-60 mins after first meal
11
Q
How are T2DM patients managed Pre-Op? Give three features
A
-Metformin stopped the morning of the Op -Others stopped 24hrs before -Patients put on sliding scale of Insulin, given 5% Dextrose and managed the same as T1DM
12
Q
How should Steroids be adapted in an operative scenario?
A
-Need to be continued due to risk of Addisonian Crisis -HPA axis increases its activity in surgery due to ‘stress state’ which may end up supressing steroids -Stress dose should be given
13
Q
All Operative patients are started on LMWH, give an exception
A
Head and Neck Surgery
14
Q
Give three contraindications to TED Stockings
A
- Severe Peripheral Vascular Disease
- Recent Skin Graft
- Severe Eczema
15
Q
Give three indications for prophylactic antiobiotics
A
Orthopaedics Bowel Surgery Vascular Surgery
16
Q
What Bowel Procedures require preparation? How would you do so?
A
Left Hemicolectomy/Sigmoidectomy/AP Resection/Anterior Resection - Phosphate Enema the morning of
17
Q
Give four key considerations for fluid management
A
What is the aim? (Rescucitation/Maintenance/Replacement) Most recent electrolytes Comorbidities Weight and Size
18
Q
Describe the distribution of fluid in a 70kg man
A
42L Total 28L - Intracellular 14L - Extracellular (11L interstitial, 3L circulating)
19
Q
Describe the target fluid compartment for different purposes
A
General Hydration - distributed across all fluid compartments Rescucitation - Intravascular
20
Q
Explain the fluid consideration in septic patients
A
Tight junctions between capillary endothelium breaks down causing fluid to leak out into tissues (therefore large volumes of IV fluid may be needed)
21
Q
State four fluid outputs
A
- Urine
- Sweating
- Respiration
- Faeces
22
Q
Give 4 features of fluid depletion OE
A
- Reduced Skin Turgor
- Decreased Urine Output
- Orthostatic Hypotension
- Increased Cap Refill Time
23
Q
Give 2 features of fluid overload OE
A
Raised JVP Oedema
24
Q
State the daily requirements of Water, Na+, K+, Glucose
A
Water - 25ml/kg/d Na+ - 1mmol/kg/d K+ - 1mmol/kg/d Glucose - 50g/d
25
What is a Crystalloid Fluid?
* Contains mineral salts
* Cheaper so used more often
* Saline/Dextrose/Hartmanns
26
What is a Colloid Fluid?
* Contains larger molecules
* Higher Osmotic Pressure
* Volplex/Blood
27
Give 2 examples of pathological fluid loss
Bowel Lumen in Bowel Obstruction Retroperitoneum in Pancreatitis
28
At what concentration of Haemoglobin is a transfusion recommended?
\<70g/L
29
Why is Rhesus D Status an important consideration in blood transfusions
* Not important if not pregnant as patients won't attack their own RBC
* In pregnancy if first child is Rh positive to a Rh negative mother, antibodies against Rh will be formed, which will cause HND in second child
30
State the Universal Donor and the Universal Acceptor
Donor - O neg Acceptor - AB pos
31
Who should be given CMV negative blood?
Pregnant Women, Intrauterine Transfusions, Neonates (\<28d) Can cause sensorineural deafness
32
Give 3 clinical features of administering blood
- Observations before/15 to 20 mins in/1hr/Completion - Given through Grey (16G) or Green (18G) to reduce the risk of haemolysis - Given via blood giving set (which includes a filter)
33
# contents, indication, time
Give 3 clinical features of RBC transfusion
* Contains RBC only
* Indicated in Acute Blood Loss or Symptomatic Anaemia
* Given over 2-4 hrs
34
# indications and time
Give 2 clinical features of Platelets transfusion
* Indicated in Haemorrhagic Shock, Profound Thrombocytopenia, Low Pre-Op Platelet
* Given over 30mins
35
# contents, indication, time
Give 3 clinical features of FFP transfusion
* Contains Clotting Factors
* Indicated in DIC, Haemorrhage Secondary to Liver Disease, All Massive Haemorrhages
* Given over 30 mins
36
# contents & indication
Give 2 clinical features of Cryoprecipitate transfusion
* Contains Fibrinogen, VWF, Factor VIII, Fibronectin
* Indicated in DIC with low fibrinogen or VWF, or massive haemorrhage
37
Give 2 scores which can be used to assess nutritional status
* BMI
* MUST Score
38
State the Hierarchy of Feeding Options
1. Oral Nutritional Supplements
2. NG Tube
3. PEG/RIG
4. Jejunostomy
5. Intestinal Failure
39
Albumin levels were thought to be an indicator of nutritional status, why is this not the case?
Patients with Anorexia Nervosa have normal Albumin levels
40
How should nutrition be managed in an Enterocutaneous Fistula?
* **High** - Enteral/Parenteral Nutrition
* **Low** - Low Fibre Diet
41
Give four medical managements of a High Output Stoma
* Reduce Hypotonic Fluids
* Loperamide
* PPI
* Low Fibre
42
What is a High Output Stoma?
A high output stoma (HOS) is when the output causes the patient to become water, sodium and magnesium depleted.
43
Give three advantages of day case surgery
* Cheaper
* Lower infection rates
* Reduces waiting list
44
Give four requirements in order for a procedure to be able to be done as a day case
1. Minimal Blood Loss expected
2. Short operating time
3. No expected complications
4. No requirements for specialist aftercare
45
State three types of Haemorrhage
* **Primary** - Occurring within the intra-operative period
* **Reactive** - Occurring within the first 24 hours of surgery (due to slipped ligature or missed vessels from intraoperative hypotension and vasoconstriction)
* **Secondary** - Occurring 7 to 10d post op, normally infective erosion
46
Other than visible bleeding, give four clinical features of Haemorrhage
* Tachycardia
* Dizziness
* Agitation
* Reduced UO
47
State the classification of Haemorrhage from I-IV
I - **\<15%** blood loss
II - **15-30%** blood loss
III - **30-40%** blood loss
IV - **\>40%** blood loss
48
How does Haemorrhage post Neck Surgery present?
Primary Sign is airway obstruction - because **pretracheal** **fascia** only distends so far
49
What vessel is most at risk during Laproscopic procedures?
* Inferior Epigastric Artery
* Runs from External Iliac up Mid-Clavicular line
50
Define SIRS
**Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome**
Two or more of the following criteria:
* **tachycardia** (heart rate \>90 beats/min)
* **tachypnea** (respiratory rate \>20 breaths/min)
* **fever** or **hypothermia** (temperature \>38 or \<36 °C)
* leukocytosis, leukopenia, or bandemia (white blood cells \>1,200/mm3, \<4,000/mm3 or bandemia ≥10%)
51
Define Sepsis
* **SIRS** + Evidence of **Infection**
* Life threatening **Organ Dysfunction** due to **dysregulated** **host response to infection**
52
Define Septic Shock
Perisistent **Hypotension** despite **fluid** **rescucitation**
53
Describe the qSOFA score
* RR\>22/min
* Altered Mental State
* Systolic\<100mmHg
54
Describe the 7C's of Sepsis source identification on a surgical ward
1. Chest
2. Catheter
3. Cannula
4. Central Line
5. Collections
6. Cut
7. Calves (DVT)
55
What 3 situations should pain be assessed in?
1. In bed
2. Mobilising
3. Deep Breathing
56
Using the mnemonic IGRAB, state the side effects of NSAIDs
Interactions with other medications (eg Warfarin) Gastric Ulcers Renal Impairment Asthma Sensitivity Bleeding Risk (interacts with platelets)
57
Give an example of a weak and strong Opioid respectively
* Weak - Codeine
* Strong - Fentanyl
58
How do Opioids work as pain relief?
Work by activating the opioid receptors MOP, DOP and KOP in the CNS, modifying pain perception
59
Give four side effects of Opioids
* Nausea
* Constipation
* Sedation
* Respiratory Depression
60
What Opioid should be given in Renal Impairment?
Oxycodone or Fentanyl rather than Morphine
61
Give two points about co-prescribing with Opioids
* Paracetamol should be co-prescribed to reduce the requirements of opiates
* Do not co-prescribe weak and strong opioids as they competitively inhibit the same receptors
62
Describe the bioavailability of Morphine
* Oral is 30%
* SC/IV is 80%
63
What is Patient Controlled Analgesia?
* Use of pumps that give IV bolus when patient presses a button
* Analgesia is tailored to patient, and the amount they use it can be converted to a regular dose
64
What is Neuropathic Pain?
Irritation/Injury to nerves which present as shooting/stabbing pain
65
Describe the non pharmacological and pharmacological management of Neuropathic Pain
Non Pharmacological - CBT, Transcutaneous Nerve Stimulation Pharmacological - Gabapentin, Amitryptyline, Pregabalin
66
Define Major Haemorrhage
Bleeding to the extent that the patient is in shock
67
Define Massive Haemorrhage
Loss of whole blood volume within 24 hours
68
How does Tranexamic Acid work?
Reduces the conversion of Plasminogen to Plasmin and hence clot break down
69
What is Thromboelastography?
Measures: How quickly a clot forms, how 'strong' the clot is, and how quickly the clot breaks down
70
What is the Lethal Triad of Death
Acidosis Hypothermia Coagulopathy
71
What is Cell Salvage?
Used in haemorrhages where you give the patient back their own blood Good for Jehovah's Witnesses
72
State the order of Cannulas from smallest to largest
Blue - 22G Pink - 20G Green - 18G Grey - 16G Orange - 14G
73
Give 6 complications of blood transfusions
ARDS O2 Affinity Abnormalities Hypothermia Electrolyte abnormalities Thrombocytopenia Acid Base Abnormalities
74
State four consequences of PONV
Increased recovery time Aspiration Pneumonia Incisional Hernia Metabolic Alkalosis
75
Name one patient factor, one surgical factor and one anaesthetic factor increasing risk of PONV
Patient - Female Surgical - Intra-abdominal Lapropscopic Surgery Anaesthetic - Inhalation agents
76
What is the Vomiting Centre?
Lateral reticular formation located in Medulla Oblongata responsible for co-ordinating movements involved in vomiting
77
Name four inputs to the Vomiting Centre
Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone Vestibular System GI tract Higher Cortical
78
Give an example of neurotransmitters used in : Vomiting Centre, CTZ, GI tract, Vestibular Apparatus
Vomiting Centre and Vesitibular Apparatus: Histamine GI Tract and CTZ: Dopamine
79
What prophylaxis could you give a patient to try and avoid PONV?
Reduce use of volatile gases Anti-Emetics Dexamethasone at anaesthetic induction
80
The management of PONV post op should be multimodal. Give two examples of medications that could be used
Ondansetron Cyclizine
81
Describe the likely aetiology of a post-op infection depending on the time frame
Day 1-2 : Resp Source Day 3-5: Urinary Tract Source Day 5-7: Surgical Site/Abscess
82
What is PUO
Pyrexia of Unknown Origin Recurrent Fever\>38 persisting for more than 3 weeks without an obvious cause despite more than a weeks worth of inpatient investigations
83
How should you treat a PUO with an unknown infective cause?
IV Cefuroxime, Metronidazole and Gentamicin
84
What is Atelectasis?
Partial collapse of the small airways
85
What causes Atelectasis
Thought to be a combination of airway compression, intraoperative alveolar gas resorption, and impaired surfactant production
86
Give four risk factors for Atelectasis
Age Smoking Prolonged Bed Rest Pre-existing lung disease
87
How would Atelectasis present clinically?
Varying degrees of compromise but normally increased resp rate and decreased O2 sats
88
How is Atelectasis managed?
Deep breathing exercises Chest Physio If persisting - Bronchoscopy
89
State four O2 giving devices WITHOUT ventilatory support
Nasal Cannulae Simple Hudson Face Mask Venturi Face Mask Non Rebreath Mask
90
Why is a Venturi Mask used for Controlled Oxygen Therapy?
Can measure the exact oxygen given
91
What is a physiological shunt (in terms of ventilation)?
Alveoli that are perfused but not ventilated
92
What is physiological dead space (in terms of ventilation)?
Alveoli that are ventilated but not perfused
93
What is PEEP?
Positive End Expiratory Pressure Splints open small airways so that they don't collapse after expiration (hence reducing physiological shunt)
94
What is CPAP?
Focuses on maximising PEEP by giving a continuous amount of pressure
95
What is BiPAP?
Respiratory support AND ventilatory support Two different levels of CPAP (one higher during insp and one lower during exp) Used in Type 2 Resp Failure
96
Name two possible harmful outcomes of artifical ventilation
Volutrauma Barotrauma
97
Give three reasons why post- op patients are pre-disposed to Pneumonia
Reduced chest ventilation (stasis of fluids) Change of Commensals (Hospital) Intubation
98
What is ARDS?
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome Acute lung injury characterised by severe hypoxaemia in the absence of a cardiogenic cause
99
Describe the four diagnostic features of ARDS
- Acute onset within 7 days - PaO2:FiO2 is less than 300 - Bilateral infiltrates on CXR - Alveolar Oedema not explained by cardiogenic causes or fluid overload
100
Give two direct and two indirect causes of ARDS
Direct - Pneumonia, Smoke Inhalation Indirect - Sepsis, Polytrauma
101
Describe the pathophysiology of ARDS
- Direct injury or activation of inflammatory cascade results in breakdown of alveolar capillary barrier - Permeability increases leading to alveolar oedema - Reduces gas exchange and damages type II alveolar cells
102
How would you manage ARDS?
Resp Support (likely requiring intubation and ITU) Treat underlying cause
103
Describe the components of Virchow's Triad
- Abnormal Blood Flow - Abnormal Blood Contents - Abnormal Vessel Wall
104
Give four clinical features of a DVT
Unilateral leg pain and swelling Low grade pyrexia Pitting Oedema Prominent Superficial veins
105
How is the Wells Score used to determine further investigations in DVT?
If Wells Score\<1 then a DVT is unlikely and D-Dimers should be used If Wells Score\>1 then DVT is likely and should be confirmed using USS or Contrast Venography
106
Describe D-Dimers in terms of Sensitivity and Specificity
High Sensitivity Low Specificity (also raised in Heart Failure, Cancer etc)
107
How would you manage a haemodynamically stable DVT/PE?
DOACs (Unless Renal Impairment - Warfarin) Direct Factor Xa Inhibitor - Apixiban, Rivaroxiban Direct Thrombin Inhibitor - Dabigatran (5 days of LMWH first)
108
How is the Wells Score used to determine further investigations in PE?
If Wells Score\<4 then a PE is unlikely and D-Dimers should be used If Wells Score\>4 then PE is likely and should be confirmed using CTPA
109
Describe 3 ways a PE could present on an ECG
RBBB RV Strain (inverted T waves in V1-V4) S1Q3T3 - Deep S, Pathological Q, Inverted T
110
What is a Massive PE?
PE causing haemodynamic compromise Requires thrombolysis
111
Give two examples of mechanical thromboprophylaxis
Antiembolic Stockings Intermittent Pneumatic Compression (in theatre)
112
What is an Anastamotic Leak?
Leak of luminal contents from a surgical join
113
Name four risk factors for Anastamotic Leaks
Steroid Use Obesity Emergency Surgery Longer Intraoperative Time
114
Give 3 clinical presentations of Anastamotic Leaks
Abdominal Pain and Fever (usually 5-7 days post-op) Delirium Prolonged Ileus
115
What technique of imaging should be used for Anastamotic Leaks?
CT with contrast
116
Describe three managements of Anastamotic Leaks
NBM Broad Spectrum Abx Percutaneous Drainage/Explorative Laparatomy
117
What is Post-Op Ileus?
- Deceleration/Arrest in intestinal motility following surgery - Very common but may be a sign of a more serious pathology such as anastamotic leaks
118
Give four risk factors for Post-Op Ileus
Electrolyte Imbalances Anticholinergics Opioids Extensive Intra-Operative bowel handling
119
Give three clinical features of Post-Op Ileus
- Failure to pass flatus/faeces - Nausea/Vomiting - Bloating
120
Describe the bowel sounds of Post-Op Ileus compared to Mechanical Obstruction
Post - Op Ileus = Absent Mechanical Obstruction = Tinkling
121
Describe the management of Post-Op Ileus
Conservative Daily Bloods Encouraging mobilisation Could drain with NG tube Warn patients they may have watery diarrhoea for the first few days after
122
What are Bowel Adhesions?
Fibrous bands of scar tissue secondary to previous surgery or intra-abdominal inflammation Most common cause of small bowel obstruction
123
How would you manage uncomplicated Bowel Obstruction?
Tube decompression NBM Analgesia IV Fluids
124
How would you manage complicated (ie ischaemia, perforation) Bowel Obstruction?
Adhesiolysis (normally laproscopically)
125
What is an Incisional Hernia? Give 3 risk factors
Protrusion of contents of a cavity through the previously made incision in the bowel wall Midline Incision, Pre-Op Chemo, BMI\>25
126
Give four different aetiologies of Constipation
Physiological (eg low fibre diet) Iatrogenic (eg Opioids) Pathological (eg BO) Functional (eg previously painful defaecation)
127
Give an example of an Osmotic, Stimulant, Bulk Forming and Rectal Laxative respectively
Osmotic - Movicol Stimulant - Sodium Picosulfate Bulk Forming - Ispaghula Husk Rectal - Glycerin Suppository
128
Give four causes of Post-op Hypogylcaemia
- Hypoglycaemics/Insulin Overdose - Late Gastric Dumping - Decompensated Liver Disease - Adrenal Insufficiency
129
State four clinical features of Hypoglycaemia
Sweating Tingling Lips Slurred Speech Tachycardia (Beta Blockers may distort this)
130
How should you manage conscious patients with Hypoglycaemia?
Oral Glucose and Complex Carbohydrates
131
How should you manage unconscious patients with Hypoglycaemia?
O2 and IV Glucose IV Glucose Fluid Therapy Any delay - IM Glucagon
132
How is Hypoglycaemia managed intra-operatively?
BM measurements taken every 30 mins \<4mmol/l causes insulin infusion to be stopped \<2mmol/l is a hypoglycaemic emergency
133
Give 3 causes of post op Hyperkalaemia
Post Op AKI Repeated Blood Transfusions Diuretics
134
What other electrolyte abnormality might you have to correct along with HYPOkalaemia?
HYPOmagnesaemia
135
Why is Post-Op HYPOnatraemia a problem?
Most common post-op electrolyte abnormality Can cause cellular oedema and swelling which impairs tissue healing
136
Why is Post-Op Hyponatraemia common?
They are likely given a lot of Dextrose Fluid intra-op Fluid retention is part of the stress response to surgery (via increased cortisol and ADH)
137
Give 3 Pre-Op prophylactic measures to prevent wound infections
Prophylactic Antibiotics Dont routinely remove hair Maximise Diabetic control
138
What is Wound Dehiscence?
The wound fails to heal, reopening a few days after surgery Most common with Abdominal Wounds
139
Describe the two types of Wound Dehiscence
Superficial - Skin wound alone fails, rectus sheath remains intact (often secondary to infection/DM) Full Thickness - Rectus sheath fails to heal and bursts causing potential protrusion of abdo organs
140
How would you manage Superficial Wound Dehiscence?
Wash out with saline Simple wound care Advise patient the wound now needs to heal by secondary intention
141
How would you manage Full Thickness Wound Dehiscence?
Analgesia Broad Spectrum Abx Cover with saline gauze Return to surgery
142
What are Keloid Scars?
Abnormal proliferations of scar tissue occurring at the site of injury (due to excess fibroblast activity) Rising above the skin level Projects beyond margins Does not regress
143
Give four risk factors for Keloid Scars
Ethnicity (Black and Asian) Age (between 20 and 30) Cause of injury (Burns) Anatomical Site (Ear Lobes, Shoulder, Sternum)
144
What is the difference between Keloid Scars and Hypertrophic Scars?
Keloid Scars proliferate outside of the wound margins whereas Hypertrophic scars remain within
145
Describe the management of Keloid Scars
Rarely operated on (due to recurrence) Intralesional Steroids Silicone Gel Radiation Therapy
146
How would you classify cardiac risk pre-op?
High: \>5% Intermediate: 1-5% Low: \<1% Increased if you are going into a body cavity
147
Describe the ASA from I to VI
I - Normal Healthy II - Smoker/Obese/Pregnant III - Severe systemic disease IV - Severe systemic disease with constant threat to life V - Will die without op VI - Brain dead
148
What is SORT?
Surgical Outcome Risk Tool Used to stratify the risk of mortality one month after surgery etc If more than 5% consider post-op ITU
149
Describe the time scale of Surgical Procedures
Urgent Emergency Expedited Elective
150
Name a classification system for cellulitis
Enron Classification
151
Name two early and two late adverse transfusion reactions
Early - Anaphylaxis, Acute Haemolytic Late - Infections, Iron Overload
152
How should you manage Heart Failure patients requiring transfusion?
Absolutely essential if Hb\<50g/l Transfuse with caution if Hb 60-80g/l Give blood alongside furosemide
153
