perinatal care triggers Flashcards

(78 cards)

1
Q

Early first-trimester insults like chromosomal or congenital abnormalities, resulting in global growth delay

this is the primary cause of what?

A

fetal grwoth restriction (FGR) and IUGR

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2
Q

what mechanism causes the closure of the PFO

A

Increased O2 in blood –> increased blood flow in lungs —> increased venous return to LA —> LA pressure increase closes PFO

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3
Q

what aids babies in learning to regulate their temperature and also helps moms milk production

A

skin to skin in the golden hour after birth

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4
Q

what ceases low-resistane circuit in the placenta and also increases systemic BP and relaxes lung vessels for a baby

A

clamping of the umbilical cord

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5
Q

Apnea/gasping & HR < 100 BPM indicates what should be done

A

PPV via BVM at 40-60 breaths per minute

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6
Q

when do we use MR SOPA

A

when PPV does not seem to be working properly

while doing MR SOPA place baby on SPO2 moniter and continuous EKG.

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7
Q

if the heart rate is <60 despite 30s of PPV what is the next step

A

intubate.

compressions recommended for resuscitation.
3:1 compressions for 90 compressions and 30 breaths.

consider umbilical vein catheterization

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8
Q

when should epinephrine be considered

A

if HR <60

(im assuming after youve tried PPV and compressions)

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9
Q

when should we examine for hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy or therapeutic hypothermia

A

if a newborn >= 36 weeks received resuscitation

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10
Q

Delayed resorption of lung fluid leading to pulmonary edema leading to tachypnea

A

TTN

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11
Q

CXR shows pleural effusions, perihilar densities with fissure fluids and hyperexpansion of the lungs

A

TTN

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12
Q

occurs in teh First 2 hours, lasting up to 72 hours but typically resolving within 12-24 hrs

A

TTN

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13
Q

respiratory distress and hypoxia triggered by uterine stress during delivery

A

meconium aspiration syndrome

(they just get so stressed that they poop everywhere and then inhale it)

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14
Q

CXR shows bilateral fluffy densities with hyperinflation of the lungs.

A

MAS

also diagnostic is to see meconium present in amniotic fluid or trachea during intubation

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15
Q

see meconium present in amniotic fluid or trachea during intubation

A

MAS

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16
Q

results in inflammation and surfactant inactivation, atelectasis, rupture of alveoli and V/Q mismatches

A

progression of MAS

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17
Q

it is NOT recommended to intubate these patients

A

MAS

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18
Q

ground glass opacities on CXR

A

RDS

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19
Q

glucocorticoids and postnatal surfactant with ventilation via NCPAP is tx for what

A

RDS

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20
Q

MC in GA>34 weeks

A

PPHN

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21
Q

associated with MAS, PNA and RDS

A

PPHN

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22
Q

this is associated with intrauterine/perinatal asphyxia as well as the exposure of fetus to SSRIs in the 2nd half of pregnancy

A

PPHN

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23
Q

presents with meconium staining, respiratory distress, and a possible harsh systolic murmur at the lower left sternal border

A

PPHN

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24
Q

echo showing normal anatomy with pulmonary HTN is diagnostic of which disease

A

PPHN

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25
use nitric oxide or sildenafil in severe disease
PPHN use ECMO as last resort
26
use ECMO as last resort for this disease
PPHN
27
risk factors include maternal exposure to labetalol or terbutaline bronchodilator, LGA, SGA, and maternal diabetes
neonatal hypoglycemia
28
high risk symptoms for this disease includes floppiness, exaggerated moro reflex, seizures irritability, and more
neonatal hypoglycemia
29
preterm babies, LGA, SGA and babies with diabetic mothers should all be screened for what
neonatal hypoglycemia
30
just gonna leave this right here in case anyone wants to look at it
31
what is pathognomonic of neonatal jandice
jaundice presenting within the first 24 hours of birth.
32
risk factors includes GA <38wks, albumin <3, hemolytic diseases, sepsis
neurotoxicity due to hyperbilirubinemia
33
what does TcB have to be for you to suspect jaundice enough to run a TSB
within 3mg/dl of the threshold or >15
34
What value is used as the definitive test to guide phototherapy and escalation of care decisions in jaundiced babies (including need for exchange transfusion)
TSB
35
what is a significant conjugated/direct bilirubin in relation to TSB
when conjugated/direct bilirubin exceeds 20% of the TSB
36
Fasting abd US for biliary atresia or choledochal cyst should be assessed when
when a baby has high bilirubin
37
caused by poor feeding, Intestinal hypomotility or poor elimination of bilirubin in stool
breastfeeding jaundice
38
Post 1st week of birth and lasts up to 3 wks, Inhibition of UGT and deconjugation of conjugated bilirubin
breast milk jaundice
39
what treatment increases an infants neurotoxicity risk factors
phototherapy during treatment of hyperbilirubinemia
40
feeding is considered the most important first line intervention for what diagnosis
jaundice
41
IV fluids is NOT recommended in combination with what therapy?
phototherapy
42
hypertonia of the extensor muscles such as opisthotonus and retrocollis si seen in what phase of neonatal acute bilirubin neurotoxicity
phase 2
43
When can we D/C phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia?
TSB < 2 mg/dl below the hour-specific threshold
44
Venous Hct > 65% at term
polycythemia
45
Hyperviscosity of blood, resulting in decreased perfusion of the capillary beds.
polycythemia
46
delayed cord clamping can lead to what problem
benign neonatal polycythemia
47
CNS: irritability, jittery, seizures, lethargy Cardio: respiratory distress, CHF, PPH (postpartum hemorrhage) GI: emesis, heme-positive stool, distension Renal: Decrease output, rena vein thrombosis Metabolic: Hypoglycemia Heme: Hyperbilirubinemia, thrombocytopenia this is alot but whats it for
benign neonatal polycythemia
48
Isovolemic partial exchange transfusion with NS to dilute blood but only if pt is symptomatic
benign neonatal polycythemia
49
amino acidopathy with a deficiency in PAH
PKU
50
this illness if left untreated leads to permanent brian injury due to accumulation of phe
PKU treat by lifelong restriction of phe by eating phe - free proteins
51
D10 IVF given to promote anabolic state. consider hemodialysis if elevated ammonia is present.
PKU
52
Liver dysfunction, jaundice, and coagulopathy E. coli sepsis and cataracts metabolic decompensation of the infant
galactosemia Metabolic decompensation when an infant gets formula with lactose in it.
53
X linked recessive
G6PD
54
if you test TRAbs in newborns with hypothyroidism and they are negative, what is the assumption of etiology
I think its inborn error or excess maternal iodine may wanna lok this up becuase im only 86% sure
55
Protruding abdominal organs without a protective sac, almost always to the right of umbilicus
gastroschisis
56
Protruding abdominal organs with a protective sac
omphalocele
57
Usually associated with genetic anomaly/syndrome in 1/2 of cases.
omphalocele
58
this hernia goes straight through umbilicus
omphalocele
59
Elevated AFP in mothers blood may suggest what problem (not chromosomal , think physiologic developement)
omphalocele/gastroschisis and NTD
60
if you underestimate gestational age what lab level will be falsely elevated
AFP
61
Blind esophageal pouch that does not connect with esophagus/airway or connects both the esophagus and airway later.
esophageal atresia
62
Baby will be choking, coughing, cyanosis
esophageal atresia
63
TX: Acutely: suction, elevate head, IV glucose Definitive: Make a fistula to solve problem
esophageal atresia fistula connects esophagus
64
presents with emesis after birth
upper/proximal intestinal obstruction
65
presents with abdominal distension, late emesis, late/no stooling in baby
distal/lower intestinal obstruction
66
dueodenal intestinal atresia is one of the MC intestinal atresias. what is it assocaited with
down syndrome jejunoileal is the other MC cause and its assocaited with CF
67
risk factors for this is smoking and being a preemie
intestinal atresias
68
double bubble sign on Xray
duodenal
69
triple bubble sign on Xray
jejunal atresia
70
risk factors include inadequate folic acid, maternal DM, maternal Hyperthermia and VPA exposure
neural tube defects
71
missing part of the brain/skull with inability to control swallowing
ancephaly
72
tuft of hair on dimple
spina bifida occulta
73
protrusion of only the meninges
meningocele
74
protrusion of meninges + the spinal cord
myelomeningocele
75
Extremely Elevated AChesterase in amniotic fluid can confirm
NTDs
76
77
which NTD has normal AFP
spina bifida occulta
78
Encephalopathy due to hyperbilirubinemia (consequence of untreated jaundice)
kernicterus