PESTANA 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Why does the tx of flail chest involve fluid restriction and diuresis?

A

The real problem in flail chest is the underlying contusion; contused lung is highly susceptible to fluid overload

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1
Q

How is intraoperative development of coagulopathy treated (i.e. from increased intraop time)? How is the lethal triad in operations for trauma of coagulopathy, metabolic acidosis, and hypothermia treated?

A

Platelet packs and FFP (10 packs each, empiric tx); if the triad occurs then terminate the laparotomy, pack bleeding surfaces and temporarily close

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1
Q

What other injuries are renal injuries often associated with in trauma?

A

Lower rib fractures

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1
Q

Why isnt there any sugar in lactated ringers?

A

To avoid glycosuria and loss of fluids

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1
Q

What is the antidote for black widow spider bites?

A

Calcium gluconate

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1
Q

What is the most reliable diagnostic test of MI in the post op period?

A

Troponins (x3)

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1
Q

How do you diagnose or suspect an “early mechanical bowel obstruction” post-operativley?

A

A “paralytic ileus” that does not resolve may be an early mechanical obstruction from adhesions

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2
Q

On what POD will a DVT cause fever? Dx? Tx?

A

POD 5; Doppler US, heparin bridge to warfarin

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2
Q

What is the main dx to consider when a post op pt becomes disoriented and confused?

A

Hypoxia

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3
Q

When is surgical exploration of penetrating neck trauma done?

A

In cases of expanding hematoma, deteriorrating vitals, and clear signs of esophageal/tracheal injury such as coughing up or spitting up blood

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3
Q

If splenic salvage is not possible and splenectomy is required in trauma, what must be done post-op?

A

Vaccination against meningococcus, pneumococcus, and HiB)

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3
Q

What is a good way to correct a metabolic alkalosis?

A

Abundant KCL administration (5-10 mEq/hr) allows the kidneys to correct it (i.e. you are fixing a hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis!)

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4
Q

What surgical intervention is often needed to treat the sequelae of circumferential burns?

A

Escharotomy (i.e. the circumferential burn forms an eschar that cuts of blood supply)

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5
Q

How can you tell clinically, (by looking at a pt), that the CVP is low?

A

Neck veins are flat (or just veins in general i.e. difficulty getting IV access)

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5
Q

What is the mgmt of GSW to abdomen? Is it necessary to remove bullet?

A

Ex lap with repair of intraabdominal injuries; not required to remove bullet

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5
Q

What is the standard topical tx in burns? What if deep access is needed? How are burns near the eyes treated?

A

Silver sulfadiazine; Mafenide acetate but do not use everywhere since it hurts and can cause acidosis; triple antiobiotic ointment - silver sulfadiazine near the eyes burns

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5
Q

What 2 drugs classically cause malignant hypothermia? What is the Tx? What other sequela must you watch out for?

A

Halothane, Succinylcholine; IV dantrolene, correction of acidosis, 100% O2, and cooling blankets; myoglobinuria

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6
Q

When is ex lap required for blunt abdominal injury?

A

Signs of peritoneal inflammation (acute abdomen) or signs of internal bleeding i.e. hemodynamic instability without a source

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6
Q

Which burn victims are candidates for early excision and grafting?

A

Those with very limited burns i.e. less than 20%

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8
Q

What should you think if there are very high fevers and severe wound pain within hours of surgery?

A

Possible gas gangrene

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10
Q

Loss of motor fxn and loss of pain/temp on both sides distal to injury with preservation of vibratory and positional sense

A

Anterior cord syndrome (often in burst fx of vertebral bodies)

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11
Q

What are some alternatives if peripheral IV lines cannot be inserted for resuscitation?

A

Femoral catheter or saphenous vein cut-downs; kids < 6 can get IO

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11
Q

What if in a trauma pt you attempt to pass a Foley catheter but cannot?

A

Should cue you into urethral injury

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11
Q

How do you treat Ogilvie syndrome?

A

First rule out mechanical obstruction you can then give IV neostigmine and a long rectal tube

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12
Q

On what POD will a UTI cause a fever?

A

POD 3 (UA UC and appropriate Abx)

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13
Q

How do you treat intraoperative tension ptx?

A

If abdomen open, decompress through the diaphragm? If not you can do the same needle decompression as in ED (2nd IC space); either way place formal chest tube later

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14
Q

What if a pt with a potential C spine injury needs an airway?

A

The airway must be dealt with before assessing the C spine

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15
Q

how do you manage a pt with head trauma who went unconscious at any point? What about someone who did not lose consciousness?

A

They need a CT of the head to r/o intracranial hematomas; they can go home if neurologically intact and family will wake them up frequently during next 24 hrs

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16
Q

An entrance or exit below this landmark is said to involve the abdomen?

A

Nipple (so Tx is ex lap)

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16
Q

What test is a good “yes-no” for intraabdominal bleeding?

A

FAST or the time-honored (DPL but that?s rarely ever done)

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17
Q

How is precise diagnosis of spinal cord injury best obtained?

A

MRI

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18
Q

What is the clinical significance of a basilar skull fx?

A

The pt has sustained severe head trauma and also needs evaluation of C spine; will require CT and cannot have nasotracheal intubation

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19
Q

How are penetrating urologic injuries dealt with as a rule?

A

Surgically explored

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21
Q

How much water has been lost for every 3 mEq/L the sodium is above 140?

A

1 L i.e. a sodium of 149 = 3 L lost

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22
Q

On what post-op day will a pneumonia cause a fever?

A

POD 3 but there probably was already a fever from atelectasis this would present as a persistence of atelectasis

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23
Q

What is the hallmark of urologic injuries in trauma?

A

Hematuria

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23
Q

If a pt is therapeutically anticoagulated and throws a PE what should you do?

A

Add an IVC filter (Greenfield filter); this is also done if the pt has one and anticoagulation is contraindicated

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24
Q

If you have hypovolemic shock, what is the one place you should not consider the person to be exsanguinating from?

A

intracranial bleeds cannot cause hypovolemic shock

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26
Q

What is the recommendation for a smoker before any surgery?

A

Cessation of smoking for 8 weeks with incentive spirometry and deep breathing exercises

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27
Q

How do you Tx fracture of the penis?

A

Emergency surgical repair as impotence will ensue as arteriovenous shunts develop

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28
Q

How do you Dx renal injuries? How are they Tx’d? What are the sequelae?

A

CT; usually leave them alone unless vessel disrupted; AVM formation leading to CHF or renal artery stenosis leading to HTN

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29
Q

How do you tx extraperitoneal leaks of bladder injury? Intraperitoneal?

A

Insert foley catheter; surgical repair with protection with suprapubic cystostomy

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31
Q

How are bladder injuries diagnosed?

A

Retrograde cystogram that must include post-void films to r/o extraperitoneal leadks at the bladder that may have been obscured by a bladder full of dye

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32
Q

What is the role of surgery in diffuse axonal injury? How do you know based on CT findings that is the Dx? Tx?

A

None unless there is also a hematoma; blurring of gray-white jxn with small punctate hemorrhages; aim Tx at preventing further increase in ICP

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33
Q

What should be done in penetrating extremity trauma that is not near a major vascular territory?

A

Tetanus ppx and cleaning of the wound

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34
Q

What is the best diagnostic test for pericardial tamponade in trauma setting?

A

FAST, not CXR

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35
Q

Paralysis and loss of proprioception on side of spc injury and loss of pain on the other side

A

Hemisection of spc (Brown-Sequard)

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36
Q

What is a good way to prevent aspiration before intubating?

A

NPO and antacids before induction (since the acid is partially responsible for the chemical pneumonitis)

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37
Q

When should myocardial contusion be suspected? What will Dx it?

A

When there are sternal fx; EKG and troponins; Tx is aimed at complications like arrhythmias

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37
Q

What is the ultimate therapy for hyperkalemia? What are 3 other things that can be done?

A

Hemodialysis; IV dextrose and insulin; IV calcium (neutralizes K effect on plasma membrane); NGT suction to induce a hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis (also sodium kayelxate)

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38
Q

How long post-MI until you can do surgery? If it needs to be done before then, what should you do?

A

6 months; if needs to be done before then, you should admit to the ICU the night before

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39
Q

When can you avoid the OR in stab wounds to the abdomen?

A

If there are no signs of clear penetration (protruding viscera), no hemodynamic instability, no signs of peritoneal instability; if these are not present Tx can be digital insertion of a gloved finger (i.e. to r/o penetration)

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40
Q

What is the most common cause of intraoperative MI?

A

Hypotension

41
Q

What hidden injury should be actively sought in a person with flail chest?

A

Traumatic disruption of the aorta because big chest trauma is required

42
Q

When is hyperventilation recommened in head trauma? What is the goal?

A

When there are signs of herniation (radiographic/clinical); PCO2 of 35

43
Q

What are the indications for surgery in hemothorax?

A

Recovering 1500 ml or more (massive hemothorax) when chest tube inserted or collecting over 600 ml over the next 6 hours; usually due to lung parenchyma bleeding which is low pressure but if intercostal vessel is nicked it can have massive bleeding

44
Q

What would make you suspicious for a traumatic rupture of the trachea or major bronchus? What is the Tx?

A

Subcutaneous emphysema or large air leak from chest tube; fiberoptic bronchoscopy to secure intubation distal to the injury and surgical repair later

45
Q

What is the tx of rib fracture? In whom is it deadly and why?

A

Intercostal nerve block; elderly because of progression of pain –> hypoventilation –> atelectasis –> pneumonia

45
Q

What will you see on an ABG in acute PE?

A

Hypoxemia and hypocapnia (bc not perfusing and hyperventilating)

47
Q

What are the 2 main things on the differential for low UOP in a normotensive pt? What should be done?

A

Fluid depletion vs. AKI; Bolus 500 mL IVF over 10-20 min if UOP increase they were volume depleted, if not there is AKI (a better way is to calculate FENA)

48
Q

How do you Tx shock in a “pink and warm” pt?

A

Vasopressors bc this is vasomotor shock which can be anaphylactic or neurogenic

50
Q

If a person is really starting to show s/s of shock about 1500 ml have probs been lost. What are the 3 places that could “hide”?

A

Abdomen (#1), pelvis, and femur as in femoral fx, but in primary survey the fx are ruled out so it almost always is intraabdominal

51
Q

What are the causes in order of time of post-op fever?

A

APUDWA = Atelectasis (POD 1), Pneumonia (POD 3 if atelectasis not resolve), UTI, DVT, wound infection, deep abscesses

51
Q

What electrolyte abnormality can cause paralytic ileus?

A

Hypokalemia

53
Q

How do you treat a sucking chest wound? What will happen if not Tx’d?

A

3 sided occlusive dressing allowing air out but not in; tension ptx

54
Q

What injury pattern is urethral injury usually associated?

A

Pelvic Fx, almost always in a man

55
Q

Around what POD does a PE usually occur?

A

POD 7

57
Q

In whom is an intraoperative tension ptx likely to occur?

A

In a pt with injury to the lung who is introduced to positive pressure ventilation; i.e. blunt chest trauma

58
Q

What are some signs of basilar skull Fx?

A

Battles sign (ecchymosis behind ear), rhinorrhea, otorrhea, and Raccoon eyes

59
Q

On what POD will a wound infxn cause fever? Dx? Tx?

A

POD 7; erythema and drainage; if cellulitis then abx if also abscess then drainage

60
Q

What is the best diagnostic test to assess the C spine in trauma?

A

CT

61
Q

If bone, vessel, and nerve are all injured what is the order in which they should be repaired?

A

Bone first then vessel (assuming the bone is in the way of the vascular repair), the the nerve; a fasciotomy should be added since compartment syndrome will likely develop

62
Q

What tests can be ordered in a smoker before surgery to evaluate pulmonary risk?

A

Can start with FEV1 and then ABG

63
Q

How does pulmonary contusion show up on CXR?

A

Either immediately or 48 hrs later as a white out; Tx involves fluid restrictions and diuresis to prevent third spacing

64
Q

What is a good way to differentiate, clinically, (i.e. by looking at the pt) whether they have pericardial tamponade or tension pneumo?

A

In pericardial tamponade there is no resp. distress, in tension PTX there is

65
Q

How will traumatic rupture of the diaphragm be diagnosed?

A

Bowel in the chest, always left side; Tx is surgery usually laparascopic unless hemodynamic unstable (a CI to laparascopy)

67
Q

When do you do emergent craniotomies on ppl with subdural hematomas?

A

If there is midline shift noted but prognosis is bad, if no shift then ICP monitoring, raise head of bed 30 degrees, hyperventilate and give mannitol and furosemide

67
Q

Why must you evacuate blood in a hemothorax? How does it present differently from plain ptx?

A

Prevent empyema; dullness to percussion vs. hyperresonance

69
Q

What is a major physical exam differentiator between paralytic ileus and SBO?

A

Bowel sounds are absent in ileus and high-pitched in SBO

71
Q

What is the most common source of significan intraabdominal bleeding in blunt abdominal trauma?

A

Splenic injury

72
Q

In COPD what is compromised in surgery, oxygenation or ventilation?

A

Ventilation i.e. pCO2 is high

73
Q

What is the tx of a human bite?

A

Require surgical debridement and irrigation with broad spec abx

74
Q

How would you diagnose an early mechanical bowel obstruction after surgery?

A

A CT scan would show a transition point between dilated and normal/decompressed bowel whereas ileus would just show distended bowel, also ileus usually resolves in 4-5 days

75
Q

Paralysis and burning pain in the upper extremities with preservation of most fxns in lower extremities

A

Central cord syndrome (often in elderly with hyperextension of neck i.e. rear end collision)

77
Q

What is the first test to order when a post-operative pt becomes disoriented?

A

Blood gas (ABG) since hypoxia is the most likely cause– add resp. support

79
Q

Why do pts with abdominal compartment syndrome have renal failure?

A

Compression on the IVC

80
Q

What is an antibiotic that can be used for brown recluse bites?

A

Dapsone

81
Q

On whom can SCD’s NOT be used on?

A

ppl with lower extremity fx

83
Q

When is wound dehiscence classically seen after laparotomy?

A

POD 5 – cover the wound and make sure things like coughing are done with great care, reoperation should be planned to prevent evisceration now or ventral hernia later

84
Q

What if a chest trauma pt who is on a respirator suddenly dies?

A

Probable air embolus

85
Q

What treatment can shorten the halflife of carboxyhemoglobin?

A

Administration of 100% O2

87
Q

What is the tx of chronic subdural hematoma? Who is it seen in?

A

Surgical evacuation produces dramatic cure (cf to acute subdural bleed); elderly, shaken baby, alcoholics.

88
Q

What is the DDx of subQ emphysema in trauma?

A

Rupture of trachea, major bronchus, tension ptx, or rupture of esophagus (but usually that is after vomiting (Boerhaave) or pneumatic dilation of stricture)

90
Q

What is the usual source of bleeding in a hemothorax?

A

The lung which is a low pressure system so stops bleeding on its own; if an intercostal artery is the cause a thoracotomy may be needed to stop

90
Q

How should hyponatremia be treated if it was slow to develop i.e. SIADH? What about if rapid, i.e. overzealous fluid replacement etc.?

A

Fluid restriction; give isotonic fluids like NS or LR

92
Q

Why should you replace K when correcting a long-standing acidosis?

A

Because the kidneys have been taking H for K and the person will be hypokalemic

93
Q

What is the most common cause of zero urine output?

A

Mechanical issue, look for a kink or clot in the foley

94
Q

What fractures should make you think of possible aortic trauma as welll?

A

First rib, sternum, and scapula, or flail chest (i.e. bones that are very hard to break)

95
Q

What is the best test for detecting traumatic rupture of aorta in trauma?

A

CT angiography

96
Q

Why would an electrical burn cause dislocation of the shoulder?

A

Due to massive high intensity muscle contraction

97
Q

What2 things do you need to essentially deem that breathing is “ok”?

A

Breath sounds bilaterally and satisfactory pulse ox

99
Q

What are some causes of air embolism?

A

Chest trauma, opening subclavian vein to air such as supraclavicular node biopsies, centra line placement

100
Q

What is the usual precipitating event for ARDS?

A

Sepsis

101
Q

How do you treat evisceration in a pt with a laparotomy

A

Keep pt in bed, cover with warm saline soaked sterile dressings and take to OR

103
Q

Which patient is generally worse off clinically? An acute epidural hematoma or acute subdural?

A

Acute subdural, epidurals are often asx; However, epidurals always get emergent craniotomy whereas subdurals get it only if there is midline shift bc the prognosis is bad

104
Q

What must you use to put in an airway if there is subcutaneous emphysema

A

A fiberoptic bronchoscope to assist since that usually indicates severe injury to the tracheobronchial tree

106
Q

Can you use thrombolytic therapy for a perioperative MI?

A

No you’d have to use angioplasty and stenting

107
Q

In whom is Ogilvie syndrome often seen?

A

It is colonic dilation in pts who have not had abdominal surgery; classically in debilitated ppl who have broken their hip or had prostatic or orthopedic surgery

108
Q

What are 4 indicators of hepatic risk in surgery?

A

Bilirubin above 2; albumin below 3 (can also point towards malnutrition/nutrition risk); PT >16, or encephalopathy

109
Q

Before what age is cricothyroidotomy a bad idea

A

12 because of the need for possible future laryngeal reconstruction

110
Q

How do you tx aspiration? Who is the classic surgical pt in whom this occurs?

A

Bronchoscopy with removal of material; bronchodilators and resp support; a pt who is awake in a difficult intubation, combative, with a fulls stomach

111
Q

How do you Tx linear skull fractures?

A

Leave them alone if they are closed (no overlying wound)? If comminuted or depressed need OR

112
Q

What is the best tx for hypernatremia and why?

A

D5 1/2 NS; this rapidly repletes the volume but only nudges the tonicity

113
Q

What is the rule for Tx of pelvic hematomas

A

Typically left alone if not expanding

114
Q

Name 4 surgical risk factors for PE

A

Venous injury i.e. femoral venous catheter, pelvic Fx, age >40, anticipated long immobility period

116
Q

How do you Tx a scrotal hematoma?

A

No specific intervention unless testicle is ruptured

117
Q

What are 2 options for tx of DT’s? When will this develop post-op?

A

POD 2-3; IV bz’s or IV EtOH in D5

118
Q

What are some signs of nutrition depletion pre-op (4)? What should be done?

A

Serum albumin

119
Q

How is antivenin dosage based?

A

By the size of the envenomation not by the size of the person i.e. same dose for kid as adult

120
Q

What should you do in penetrating extremity trauma if the injury occurs in a major vascular territory?

A

If no obvious signs of vascular injury like pulselessness, then you should get a doppler or angiography; if obvious signs of compromise then surgery

121
Q

How do you deal with urinary retention post-op?

A

Straight cath (in and out catheterizations) q 6 hrs on POD 1; at POD 2-3 a Foley would be indicated

122
Q

What physical sign is the worst for cardiac risk pre-operatively?

A

JVD; Tx with ACE-I, BB, diuretics should be done first

123
Q

CT scan in trauma pt shows blurring of gray-white matter interface and multiple small punctate hemorrhages. Dx?

A

Diffuse axonal injury

124
Q

What problems do circumferential burns pose on the extremities? The chest?

A

Formation of eschar that can cut of blood supply like a compartment syndrome but tx is an escharotomy not a fasciotomy; similar problem in chest can interfere with breathing

125
Q

What is the initial Tx of hemorrhagic shock in urban settings (i.e. presence of trauma center)? What about elsewhere?

A

Surgical internvention to stop the bleeding with volume replacement after; Volume replacement first with 2 L LR followed by PRBCs until UOP > 0.5 mg/kg/hr

126
Q

What is a common cause of the abdominal comparment syndrome?

A

Overaggressive volume replacement with IVF and blood in a laparotomy case in trauma

127
Q

On what POD does a deep abscess cause a fever? What are some deep abscesses? Tx?

A

10-15; subhepatic, subphrenic, pelvic; percutaneous drainage

128
Q

What is the mainstay of tx of ARDS?

A

PEEP without excessive volume (tidal volumes that are too large assoc. with barotrauma, pulm fibrosis etc); a source for sepsis should also be sought

129
Q

What is the minimum ejection fraction allowed for noncardiac operations?

A

35%; risk of MI is 75-85%

130
Q

How is orotracheal intubation done in an awake pt?

A

With rapid induction (i.e. etomidate)

131
Q

In what type of injury is anterior cord syndrome often seen?

A

Burst fractures of the vertebral bodies