Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

COMLEX/USMLE 1 > PHARM 2 > Flashcards

PHARM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

MOA of adenosine

A

Gs protein mechanism, decreases AV and SA node action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MOA of digoxin

A

inhibit Na/K/ATPase (improves contractility)
increases parasympathetic tone (vagus)

ade: yellow halos vision, ventricular arrhythmias, gynecomastia, n/v/diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what drug moa is selective If channel inhibitor (funny channel of SA node)

A

Ivabradine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does metronidazole cover? “GET GAP on the METRO”

A

Giardia
Entamoeba
Trichomonas
Gardnerella
Anaerobes (clost, actinomycetes)
H. PYLORI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what 2 classes of drugs affect GABA A receptor?

A
  1. Barbituates: INC DURATION of Cl channel opening
  2. Benzos: INC FREQUENCY of Cl channel opening
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what drug affects GABA B receptor?

A

Baclofen:
*G inhibitory mechanism= reduce aden. cyclase and cyclic amp
*I inhibition of excitatory NT release= glutamate and aspartate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what 3 anti neoplastic drugs cause peripheral neuropathy

A
  1. Platin drugs (carboplatin, cisplatin)- these also cause acoustic nerve damage
  2. Vincristine- also causes alopecia
  3. Paclitaxel- also causes alopecia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what anti neoplastic drug causes pulmonary fibrosis

A

Bleomycin/busulfan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what anti neoplastic drug causes hemorrhagic cystitis/ increases risk of bladder cancer

A

cyclophosphamide (DNA cross linkage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

paclitaxel, vinBLASTine, 5FU, mercaptopurine, methotrexate, etoposide, irinotecan/topecan all cause what (antineoplastic drugs)

A

myelosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MOA of aramotase inhibitors (anastrozole and Letrozole) that treat ER+ breast cancer

A

inhibit peripheral conversion of androgens –> estrogen

(ade: osteoporosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MOA of Tamoxifen in treating ER+ breast cancer

A

selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)
-estrogen receptor antagonist in breast
-estrogen receptor agonist in bone/endometrium

ade: DVT, pulmonary embolism, endometrial hyperplasia/endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MOA of trastuzumab in treating HER2+ breast cancer

A

monoclonal antibody against HER2 (tyrosine kinase receptor)

ADE: dilated cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what chemo drug targets CD20 and has ADE of PML in patients with JC virus

A

Rituximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What chemo drug inhibits phospholipase A2 and NF -kB? ADE: cushing syndrome

A

Prednisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

phenylephrine is what

A

alpha 1 agonist (Gq)

17
Q

prazosin (tx HTN and BPH)
doxazosin
terazosin
Tamsulosin (tx BPH)

(treat urinary retention)
are what?

A

alpha 1 BLOCKERS

**take at bed time, can cause orthostatic hypotension

18
Q

Clonidine= ade: rebound hypertensive crisis

Methyldopa
Brimonidine

are what?

A

Alpha 2 agonists (Gi)

19
Q

-Mirtazapine (depression)

-phenoxybenzamine (irreversible, tx pheochromocytoma)

-phentolamine (reversible, tx HTN)

are what?

A

Alpha 2 BLOCKERS

20
Q

albuterol (short acting)
terbutaline (short acting)
salmeterol (long acting)

A

Beta 2 agonists **bronchodilation, uterine relax

21
Q

Moa of ACE inhibitors (lisinopril)

A

inhibit ace–> dec ang II–> dec aldosterone–> dec sodium

in CD

22
Q

what is a direct renin inhibitor

A

aliskiren

23
Q

what anti seizure med treats focal seizures and has ADE of decreasing leukocytes? (agranulocytosis)

A

Carbamazapine

MOA: block voltage gated Na channels in a voltage dependent fashion

24
Q

acute variceal hemorrhaging: hematemesis (blood in vomit)

cirrhosis/Portal HTN: jaundice, scleral icterus, ascites, splenomegaly

how to treat??

A

Octreotide (long acting somatostatin analog) prior to endoscopy

**can also treat acromegaly, carcinoid tumors, gastrinoma, glucagonoma, VIPoma

25
Q
  1. Lithium- ADE: nephrogenic diabetes insidious, HYPOthyroidism, inc thirst, inc peeing
  2. Valproic acid (block Na channels to increase GABA) ADE: hepatotoxicity
  3. Lamotrigine (ade: rashes/SJS)
  4. Carbamazepine (ade: aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis-low leukocytes)

all treat what?

A

bipolar

26
Q

what would treat hyperkalemia in EKG

A

beta AGONIST, calcium gluconate

**b blocker would worsen hyperkalemia

27
Q

MOA impair synthesis of LDL due to inhibitory effects on HMG COA reductase

A

statins

28
Q

MOA: prevents intestinal absorption of cholesterol (decreases LDL)

A

ezetimibe

29
Q

MOA: promotes activity of lipoprotein lipase, which hydralyzes fatty acids from VLDL, CLEARING VLDL and decreasing triglyceride levels

A

FIBRATES (gemfibrozil)

30
Q

moa: increases calcium permeability

TX: schistoma

A
31
Q

Hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets (HELLP) in pregnancy… what should you monitor for

A

severe pre eclampsia in preg pt
HYPERMAGNESIUM toxicity
MONITOR DEEP TENDON REFLEXES

32
Q

PSC in UC.. drugs you take are cholestyramine (not absorbed in gut) and ursodeoxycholic acid.. what are the MOA of both and why are they taken 4-6 hours

(PSC is P-anca, ^ ALP, ^ direct conjugated billi)

A

Cholestyramine: bile acid binding resin

UDA: bile acid

TAKING THEM TOGETHER will decrease UDA absorption, and no change in cholestyramine so you take them 4-6 hours apart

33
Q
  1. Fenoldopam (D1 receptor agonist- ^ cAMP, vasodilation) *especially pt w/ renal dz
  2. Hydralazine (^ cGMP, vasodilator of arteries- REBOUND TACHY *do not use in pt w tachy)
  3. Labetalol (nonselect a/b blocker- vasodilation)
  4. Nicardipine (block VG L type CC of smooth muscle- vasodilation)
  5. Nitroprusside (short acting, ^ cGMP via DIRECT RELEASE OF NO) ADE: cyanide toxicity
A

HYPERTENSIVE EMERGENCY MEDS
(mc used are nitroprusside, fenoldopam)

**systolic >180, or diastolic >110, evidence of end organ fail (papilledema)

34
Q

preventing panic attacks (agoraphobia- scared of public places)

*sweating, choking sensation, chills

A

SSRI (paroxetine)

35
Q

mood stabilizer used for bipolar, adjunct therapy for depression, can possibly decrease suicide risk

A

lithium carbonate

36
Q

Pt with a sub therapeutic INR is potentially caused by

A

coadministration of CYP450 inducer

37
Q

Pt with a SUPRAtherapeutic INR is potentially caused by

A

coadministration of CYP450 INHIBITOR

38
Q

transposition of great arteries, MC cause of extreme cyanosis in babies, single loud S2 heart sound

TX?

A

PGE1 analog, Alprostadil

COMLEX/USMLE 1 (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions