Pharm 3 Flashcards
(117 cards)
1
Q
If a drug is not producing the effect that it’s supposed to, the FDA has the right to take it off the shelves
A
True
2
Q
A patient with gingivitis hates the taste of chx mouthwash. What else could they use?
A
0.2% TTO
3
Q
What drug has a similar effect of captopril without the side effect of cough
A
-sartan
4
Q
All of the following ultimately result in an increase in cGMP EXCEPT
A
Hydralazine
5
Q
Fibrates work by
A
Binding to the PPAR alpha nuclear receptor and increasing its activity
6
Q
Which drug decreases the cholesterol of absorption and can be combined with statins?
A
Ezetimibe
7
Q
Which drug has the major side effect of flushing?
A
Niacin
8
Q
What does PCSK-9 do?
A
Promotes degradation of LDL receptors
9
Q
Named a statin. What is the major ADR
A
Myopathy
10
Q
What drug inhibits VKORC1?
A
Warfarin
11
Q
What drug inhibits VKORC1?
A
Warfarin
12
Q
Argatroban is monitored using what parameter?
A
aPTT
13
Q
what converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
A
renin
14
Q
What is the key mediator in fibrinolysis?
A
Plasmin
15
Q
St John’s wart is a major inducer of drugs that are metabolized by what
A
3A4
16
Q
What binds to the PAR-1 receptor?
A
Thromboxane A2
17
Q
Which of the following is true of cAMP?
A
Increased cAMP leads to vasodilation
18
Q
Which of the following is true of cAMP?
A
Increased cAMP leads to vasodilation
19
Q
Which of the following blocks L type calcium channels?
A
-dipine
20
Q
Which of the following has the side effect of hair growth?
A
Minoxidil
21
Q
Which increases intracellular NO?
A
Sodium nitroprusside
22
Q
Which increases intracellular NO?
A
Sodium nitroprusside
23
Q
Someone with marked limitation is classified as what by WHO?
A
Class III
24
Q
Which of the following is a PDE-5 inhibitor?
A
Sildenafil
25
When does IP3 cause vasoconstriction?
When Ca is released from the SR
26
When does IP3 cause vasoconstriction?
When Ca is released from the SR
27
Which of the following has the highest proportion of TGs
Chylomicrons
28
Which of the following is good cholesterol
HDL
29
10 year risk assessment is
ASCVD
30
10 year risk assessment is
ASCVD
31
When cholesterol and TGs are taken in from the diet, what pathway are they metabolized by?
Exogenous
32
When cholesterol and TGs are taken in from the diet, what pathway are they metabolized by?
Exogenous
33
Which of the following has intense GI problems?
Welchol
34
Which of the following affects Xa and thrombin?
Heparin
35
Which of the following affects Xa and thrombin?
Heparin
36
Negative effect of bile acid binding agents?
Increased TGs
37
Which of the following is a PCSK9 inhibitor?
Evoloumab
38
If supplements have a proprietary blend, they do not have to list out the individual
ingredients?
True
39
Which of the following interferes with the final platelet aggregation?
Eptifibatide
40
Patient wants supplement that increases salivary flow
Co-Q
41
Which of the following helps with burning mouth?
Alpha lipoic acid
42
Which of the following has the shortest onset of action?
Cangrelor
43
Which factor is not vitamin K dependent
Factor IV
44
Which of the following is an anti-fibrinolytic agent?
Aminocaproic acid
45
Which of these can be taken orally, inhalation, intravenous, and subcutaneously?
Treprostinil
46
Which of these can be taken orally, inhalation, intravenous, and subcutaneously?
Treprostinil
47
A patient wants to take 250mg of ginger before treatment and 250mg after treatment.
What should you tell her?
That’s fine as long as she takes the dose as she described above
48
A patient likes to take Valium but you know they also took Echinacea, which inhibits the
enzyme that normally metabolizes Valium. What should you tell the patient?
Be careful driving home bc the effects will be increased
49
```
A patient undergoes radiation therapy. Which of the following can you use to prevent
oral mucositis?
a. Tea tree oil
b. Chamomile
c. Co-enzyme Q10
d. Tumeric
e. BandD
```
B and D
50
```
A patient undergoes radiation therapy. Which of the following can you use to prevent
oral mucositis?
a. Tea tree oil
b. Chamomile
c. Co-enzyme Q10
d. Tumeric
e. BandD
```
B and D
51
Which of the following should have a warming to avoid drinking alcohol?
Valerian
52
You colleague does not believe in taking or prescribing dietary substances. Which of the
following would you NOT do?
There is no need to ask the patient about these supplements.
53
The 4 Gs cause increased bleeding risk due to what mechanism?
Decrease platelet activation and platelet aggregation
54
Which of the following does IIb/IIIa receptor do?
Platelet aggregation
55
Which drug prevents conversion from angiotensinogen 🡪 angiotensin I
Aliskiren
56
What is a side effect of ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin (occurs 10% of the time)
Cough
57
Which of the following drugs does not have an adverse drug reaction of hyperkalemia
Minoxidil
58
Which of the following has the side effect of hair growth?
Minoxidil
59
What receptor results in vasoconstriction, bronchoconstriction, and increased aldosterone secretion when endothelin-1 binds to it
Eta
60
What binds to AT1 that causes vasoconstriction?
Angiotensin II
61
Nitric Oxide activated what enzyme to increase vasodilation?
Guanylyl cyclase
62
Nitric Oxide activated what enzyme to increase vasodilation?
Guanylyl cyclase
63
What drug increases intracellular NO concentration?
Nitroprusside
64
What is the effect of nitric oxide
Increase in cGMP
65
What activates adenylyl cyclase resulting in an increase in cAMP
Prostacyclin
66
Sildenafil is a part of what classification
PDE-5 inhibitors
67
Pulmonary arterial HTN is considered what group by WHO?
Group 1
68
What drug decreases formation of IP3 through blocking ETa receptors
Bosentan
69
Which of the these can be taken orally?
Apixaban
70
What drug can be taken orally, inhaled, IV, or subcutaneously
Treprostinil
71
What is bad cholesterol
LDL
72
What is good cholesterol
HDL
73
What’s the optimal dose of LDL?
<100
74
What risk assessment would you use to determine the 10 year risk of MI or stroke?
ASCVD
75
10 year risk assessment is
ASCVD
76
Which of the following is not a risk factor of atherosclerosis
Exercise
77
What’s the first step of atherosclerosis
Endothelial dysfunction
78
A 50yo lady smokes tobacco, has high blood pressure, and diabetes mellitus. How many risk factors for atherosclerotic disease does she have
3
79
What -statin ha the least amount of drug-drug interaction
Pravastatin
80
Which drug has pleiotrophic effects such as plaque stabilization and reduced
inflammation
-statin
81
Which of the following drugs is pregnancy a contraindication
-statin
82
What is a negative/neutral effect of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?
Inhibition of germ cell migration during development
83
What is a rare reaction of Simvastatin
Memory loss
84
FenoFIBrate increases lipoprotein lipase levels by what mechanism?
PPARa nuclear receptors
85
FenoFIBrate increases lipoprotein lipase levels by what mechanism?
PPARa nuclear receptors
86
Binding of PPARa nuclear receptor causes an increase in what?
Lipoprotein lipase
87
Bile acid binding agents do what?
Increase triglycerides
88
What drug lowers intracellular Ca by blocking L-type calcium channels
Felodipine
89
Ezetimibe has what mechanism of action
Blocks the NPC1L1 transport protein
90
Ezetimibe blocks cholesterol absorption through what mechanism?
Blocks NPC1L1 transport protein
91
Which drug has an adverse drug reaction of flushing
Niacin
92
What does PCSK-9 inhibitors mainly do
Decrease LDL
93
What is the function of PCSK-9 enzyme?
Promotes degradation of LDL receptors
94
Which of the following has the highest effect on LDL?
PCSK9 receptor inhibitor
95
What is the term for stopping bleeding from an injured blood vessel
Hemostasis
96
What are the 3 Virchow’s Triad?
Stasis, vessel wall injury, hypercoagulability
97
What is the vitamin K-dependent clotting factor
II, VII, XI, X
98
Which of the following is true about the intrinsic pathway?
All components present in the blood
99
Which of these is not a Vitamin K dependent clotting factor?
Factor IV
100
Which of the following is a COX-1 inhibitor?
Aspirin
101
What stage does thrombin come into play
Activation
102
What is the key mediator in fibrinolysis
Plasmin
103
Which of the following drugs has an adverse drug reaction of a “purple toe”
Warfarin
104
Which of the following binds to plasminogen and blocks its activation by TPA?
Aminocaproic acid
105
Which of the following is an anti-fibrinolytic medication
Tranexamic acid
106
The 4 Gs cause increased bleeding risk due to what mechanism?
Decrease platelet activation and platelet aggregation
107
Which of the following increases antithrombin III affinity for BOTH Factor Xa and Thrombin?
Heparin
108
Which of the following increases antithrombin III affinity for BOTH Factor Xa and Thrombin?
Heparin
109
Which drug inhibits the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
Edoxaban
110
Which of the following is a P2Y12 inhibitor
Clopidogrel
111
Which of the following P2Y12 inhibitors has the shortest onset?
Cangrelor
112
What substrate binds to the P2Y12 receptor?
ADP
113
A patient wants to take 250mg of ginger before treatment and 250mg after treatment. What should you tell her?
That’s fine as long as she takes the dose as she described above
114
A patient likes to take Valium but you know they also took Echinacea, which inhibits the enzyme that normally metabolizes Valium. What should you tell the patient?
Be careful driving home bc the effects will be increased
115
Which of the following should have a warming to avoid drinking alcohol?
Valerian
116
You colleague does not believe in taking or prescribing dietary substances. Which of the following would you NOT do?
There is no need to ask the patient about these supplements.
117
Which of the following is an adverse effect of Kava?
Liver failure
