Pharm Flashcards

(78 cards)

1
Q

Whats the most common absorption method used by drugs

A

Diffusion through cell membrane with gradient

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2
Q

When is there a 50/50 ratio of ionized to unionized amounts of a drug?

A

Pka of drug = pH of area in body where drug is

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3
Q

Abuse and addiction potential dictate the schedule / control of medication which can limit what

A

Dispense quantity, refills allowed, prescription life span

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4
Q

Convert kg to lb

A

1 kg = 2.2 lb

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5
Q

Abbreviation for right eye

A

Od

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6
Q

Abbreviation for left eye

A

Os

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7
Q

Abbreviation for both eyes

A

Ou

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8
Q

Abbreviation for right ear

A

Ad

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9
Q

Abbreviation for left ear

A

As

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10
Q

Abbreviation for both ears

A

Au

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11
Q

How. Do you calculate % of substance in IV solution

A

g in 100 mL

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12
Q

What two areas of teh body use pH to impact ionization status

A

GI, kidney

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13
Q

What are. Teh 2 states of distribution that exist with a drug in the body

A

Bound or unbound to serum. Protein

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14
Q

What do we call the unbound fraction of a drug in the blood

A

Alpha

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15
Q

A drug with low percent bound to protein has high potency / activity and what is teh effect of displacement by another drug or pH change or somehting along those lines

A

Little change after displacement

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16
Q

A drug with high percent bound to protein has low potency / activity and what is the effect of displacement by another drug or pH change or somehting along those lines

A

Much increase in free drug = more activity (warfarin)

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17
Q

What do you. Call. A biotransformation reaction that involves oxidation / reduction / hydrolysis / cytochrome p450

A

Phase 1

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18
Q

What. Are drugs that act as inducers of the cytochrome p450 system

A

Carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital, isoniazid, ethanol, benzo-a-pyrene

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19
Q

What. Are drugs that act as inhibitors of the cytochrome p450 system

A

Fluoxetine, omeprazole, cimetidine, ketoconozole, grapefruit juice

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20
Q

What type of biotransformation reaction involves conjugation such as glucoronidation, sulfation, acetylation

A

Phase II

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21
Q

Whats one way we can help eliminate. Toxin during asprin overdose

A

Alkalinize the urine with sodium bicarb to increase ionization, reduce reabsorption, and increase elimination

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22
Q

what does first order elimination look like for a drug

A

elimination rate is proportionate to plasma concentration (percent eliminated is fixed for a certain amount of time, 10% per hour)

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23
Q

what does zero order elimination look like for a drug

A

elimination of the same amount of drug over the same amount of time (1 mg per hour)

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24
Q

fraction of a dose that enters circulation (extent of absorption)

A

bioavailability (F)

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25
what is F for a drug administered via IV
F=1
26
lidocaine is extensively metabolized on first pass by ___ so it has a low F value <35
CYP1A2
27
what factors determine the amount of drug that gets absorbed
dose, bioavailability, salt factor
28
how do you calculate ideal body weight
female: 45 kg + (2.3 kg * height-60 in) male: 50 kg + (2.3kg * height-60 inches)
29
dosing interval in hours is referred to by what symbol
tau
30
what is tau for an IV infusion
1
31
how long does it take for a drug to reach a steady state plasma concentration
4-5 half lives
32
equation for amount of drug absorbed
SF(dose)
33
how to convert to a new dosage form
SF*dose from current form / (SF of dosage form)
34
equation for plasma concentration (may have to multiply by patients weight)
Cp= (SF*dose) / Vd
35
equation for loading dose (may have to multiply by patients weight)
Vd*Cp / SF
36
equation for supplemental loading dose
Vd*(Cp desired - Cp initial) / SF
37
equation for clearance
Cl= SF(Dose/tau)/Cp
38
creatinine clearance equation
(140-age) * IBW / 72* SerumCr
39
maintanance dose calculation
MD= (Cl)(Cp)(tau)/SF
40
half life calculation
0.693/Kel.... (Kel=Cl/Vd)
41
equation for therapeutic index
TI= TD50/ED50
42
this will produce sub maximal pharmacological effects at full receptor occupancy
partial agonist
43
a partial agonist has a lower ___ than full agonist
Emax
44
what type of competitor increases EC50 but does not change Emax
competative
45
what type of competitor decreases Emax but does not change EC50
noncompetative
46
a lower ED50 indicates a drug that binds efficiently with its target and therefore is more __
potent
47
beta arrestin, protein phosphotase and GRK are all responsible for what
GPCR downregulation
48
monomeric GTPases (like SOS) are activated by what accessory protein
GEF
49
this drug targets L type calcium channels to treat arrhythmia, angina, HTN, and can cause constipation
verapamil
50
this drug targets NaK ATPase to enhance cardiac contractility
digoxin
51
side effects of digoxin
vomit, diarrhea, disorientation, visual disturbance, bradycardia
52
alpha 1 is what receptor type
Gq
53
alpha 2 is what receptor type
Gi
54
beta receptors are what receptor type
Gs
55
phenylephrine
alpha 1 agonist | causes BP elevation
56
clonidine
alpha 2 agonist | decreases sympathetic outflow, decrease BP
57
NE and E
mixed alpha and beta agonists | NE slows HR because it really activates alpha1 strongly, and NE lacks beta 2 agonist effects
58
dobutamine
beta 1 agonist | ionotropic (increase force of contraction)
59
isoproterenol
nonspecific beta receptor agonist | increase cardiac output, vasodilator, bronchodilation
60
terbutaline
beta 2 agonist
61
albuterol
beta 2 agonist
62
dopamine
D1 stimulation causes vasodilation in renal, cerebral, mesentery, coronary vessels
63
phentolamine
nonspecific alpha receptor antagonist
64
phenoxybenzamine
nonspecific alpha receptor antagonist
65
prazosin, terazosin, tamsulosin, doxazosin, alfuzosin, silodosin
alpha 1 receptor antagonist decrease peripheral resistance miosis
66
labetalol
beta and alpha 1 antagonist | partial agonist
67
carvedilol
beta and alpha 1 antagonist | inverse agonist
68
propranolol
non selective beta blocker
69
pindolol
non selective beta blocker | partial agonist
70
nadolol
non selective beta blocker
71
penbutolol
non selective beta blocker | partial agonist
72
metoprolol
beta 1 blocker | inverse agonist
73
betaxolol
beta 1 blocker
74
acebutolol
beta 1 blocker (partial agonist)
75
atenolol
beta 1 blocker
76
adverse affects of beta blockers
sleep disturbance, trigger asthma attack (switch to beta 1 selective)
77
inhibits reuptake of NE and DA
cocaine
78
reverse NE and DA uptake mechanism and increase their release
amphetamines, tyramine