Pharm Flashcards by Jordan Blumenthal

What abx causes methemoglobinemia?

Prilocaine

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What drugs can be used to tx HTN? Give examples

Diuretics such as high ceiling or loop acting: Furosemide
Beta blockers: Propanolol
Cardio selective beta blockers: Metoprolol atenolol
Alpha-1 blockers: prazosin
Centrally acting adrenergic: Methyldopa, clonidine
Neuronal blockers: Guanethidine (for severe HTN)
ACE inhibitors: Lisinopril captopril

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Drugs to treat angina?

Nitroglycerin

Ca2+ channel blockers: verapamil propanolol

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What treats ventricular arrhythmias?

Lidocaine

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What treats supraventricular tachyarrhythmias and a-fib?

Quinidine
digitalis
Verapamil

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What treats a-fib?

Verapamil, digitalis, quinidine

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What treats congestive heart failure?

Glycosides such as digitalis and digoxin

ACE inhibitors such as captopril

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How does nitroglycerin work?

Increase O2 supply to heart by a direct vasodilatory action on smooth muscle to the coronary arteries

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How do Ca2+ channel blockers work?

Decrease O2 demand by reducing afterload by reducing peripheral resistance via vasodilation

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For antihypertensive drugs, most have the ultimate effect of__?

Reducing peripheral resistance via vasodilation

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How do diuretics work?

Decrease renal absorption of sodium=fluid loss and reduction of blood volume. This decreases the work the heart has to pump.

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Examples of diuretics

Thiazides: Chlorothiazide
High-ceiling or loop acting: furosemide
Potassium sparing: spironolactone

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Aspirin mechanism of action

Analgesic effect: Inhibits synthesis of prostaglandins
Antipyretic effect: Inhibits prostaglandin synth in hypothalamic temp regulation center
Bleeding time: Inhibits synthesis of thromboxane A2 preventing platelet synthesis

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Therapeutic effects of aspirin?

Pain relief, anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, antiheumatic

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Adverse/toxic effects of aspirin?

GI bleeding

tinnitus,nausea, vomiting, metabolic acidosis and more

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How is acetaminophen different from aspirin?

Acetaminophen lacks anti-inflammatory activity, is hepatotoxic, and does not cause GI upset

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Acetaminophen causes ___ toxicity, especially when combined with ___ in __grams/day

liver toxicity
alcohol
4grams/day

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What drug should be avoided in a feverish child? What can it cause?

Aspirin

Reye’s syndrome

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What is the drug of choice for a feverish child?

acetaminophen

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What are the effects of morphine?

respiratory depression, euphoria, sedation, dysphoria, analgesia, and constipation and urinary retention

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Signs of morphine overdose?

Miosis (pupil constriction/pin point pupils), coma, respiratory depression. Miosis is the most distinct.

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Opioid overdose antidote?

Naloxone (narcan)

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Examples of cholinergic drugs that are sometimes used to control salivary secretions?

Atropine

Scopolamine

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Atropine and Scopolamine are what type of receptor blockers?

Competitive muscarinic receptor blockers

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Atropine also blocks ____ resulting in ____

Vagal reflexive control of heart rate | tachycardia

What can be used to treat xerostomia?

Pilocarpine, methacholine, neostigmine etc | these are direct acting cholinergic agonists

Anticholinergic agents ___ salivation

reduce

Cholinergic agents __ salivation

increase

In the presence of an alpha blocker, epinephrine causes __.

decrease in BP

Beta BLOCKER causes __

``` decreased HR (B1) Bronchoconstriction (B2) ```

Drug to tx parkinsons?

Levadopa (type of dopamine that crosses the bbb easily)

Alpha and beta blockers are types of ___ drugs

adrenergic

What drug competitively blocks the action of norepinephrine at beta-adrenergic receptors?

Propanolol

Albuterol is what type of drug?

Beta-2 agonist

What drug best reverses the effects of benzos?

Flumazenil

Drug of choice for status epilepticus

diazepam (valium)

White area that disappears when pulling or stretching the mucosa

Leukodema

Epstein-barr virus can cause

oral hairy leukoplakia

__is seen in immunocompromised (commonly HIV) patients

oral hair leukoplakia

Wickham's striae: interlacing white lines in what oral pathology?

Lichen planus (reticular pattern)

____ and lidocaine are contraindicated because it can keep lido in the blood longer and cause toxicity

propanolol

What abx can cause GI upset and pseudomonas colitis?

clindamycin

What abx is associated with aplastic anemia?

Chloramphenicol

What abx is associated with liver damage or hepatotoxicity?

tetracycline

___ and ___ abx's cancel each other out due to opposing mechanisms of action

penicillin and tetracycline

Why is erythromycin responsible for numerous drug interactions that can be fatal?

Decreases cytochrome P-450 metabolism of other drugs

contractions of lateral pterygoid moves articular disk in which direction?

anterior and medially

What signs indicate severe CNS oxygen deprivation?

Dilated (medriasis) pupils with absence of light reflex

What drug is used to correct a condition of atropine poisoning evidence by rapid heart rate, dry mouth and GI inactivity?

Physostigmine

Tender swelling in the soft tissue of the submandibular triangle is most likely caused by__.

Lymphadenopathy

What is least helpful in determining the anatomical integrity of the tmj?

Pano films

Chronic osteomyelitis has ___ appearance

moth eaten

Therapeutic index indicates___

safetey

Optimal flap design for palatal tori removal?

"double-Y"

Which abx has been implicated in the vast majority of cases of oral contraceptive failure during abx use?

Rifampin

Most serious result of digoxin intoxication?

ventricular fibrillation

Definition of transparency

The depth of light penetration into the tooth

Definition of value

Lightness/darkness of color

Definition of chroma

Saturation

Definition of Hue

The color

Definition of metamerism

Phenomenon where various light sources produce different perceptions of color

Main function of the liner used in a casting ring is to__.

allow uniform and uninhibited setting expansion of the investment

Shrinkage porosity in gold casting is associated with ___

Sprue diameter

Back pressure porosity is often evidenced by ___

Rounded margins on the casting

Most likely cause of failure in the pre-ceramic soldering technique is ___

overheating the parts to be joined

Casting shrinkage of cobalt-chromium allow is approximately what percent?

2.2%

Base incision of gingivectomy technique is located ___ the mucogingival junction

above

Heparin's anticoagulant effect interferes with conversion of __ to ___

fibrinogen to fibrin

What is high compressive strength but low tensile strength?

brittle

What is recoil or spring back into shape after bending, stretching, or being compressed?

Resilient

able to be deformed without losing toughness. Able to be drawn out into a thin wire

ductile

able to be hammered or pressed permanently out of shape without breaking or cracking.

Malleable

How many hours a day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve effective results?

14 hrs

Ions involved with opioid receptors?

sodium

Prolonged use of amyl nitrite may result in __.

Methemoglobinemia

DMFS stands for what?

Decayed, Missing, Filled, Surfaces

Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in ___

trauma to underlying supporting tissues

Replace aging/leaking amalgam filling with gold to ___

Achieve more ideal contours

Decrease in source film distance = increase in ___

radiographic density

Fibrous dysplasia radiographic appearance

ground glass appearance

What is often associated with osteogenesis imperfecta that includes symptoms of blue sclera and multiple bone fractures

dentinogenesis imperfecta

Condensing osteitis is with a vital or non-vital tooth?

non-vital. Tooth HAS to be dead.

Pemphigus has positive ____

nikolsky sign

Pink tooth associated with __ resorption

internal tooth resorption

Multiple myeloma associated with what lab finding?

Bence jones proteinuria

__ , ___, and ___ all have soap bubble appearance on radiograph

ameloblastoma, giant cell granuloma, odontogenic myxoma

Most radiosensitive tissue is?

Hematopoetic

Which functional appliance is the only tissue born appliance?

Frankel

Function of frankel ortho appliance?

- Expands arch by "padding" against the pressure of the lips and cheeks on the teeth - Postures the mand downward and forward

Function of Activator ortho appliance?

- Corrects class II malocclusion | - Moves mandible to and edge-to-edge position to induce mand.

Function of Bionater ortho appliance?

``` Corrects class II malocclusion Similar to activator but more comfortable ```

Function of herbst appliance?

- Corrects class II malocclusion - Can be fixed or partially removable - Induces mand growth by positioning mand forward

Function of twin block appliance ortho appliance?

-Corrects class II malocclusion

Function of quad-helix ortho appliance?

Corrects posterior cross-bite in cases with a digit-sucking habit

What is considered a functional appliance?

Ones that change the posture of the mandible. Used to treat class II malocclusion.

Headgear is used to modify what?

Maxilla

What can be used to correct a single tooth crossbite?

Cross elastics

Class I elastics are used for what?

INTRAmaxillary | Used for traction bw teeth and groups of teeth within the SAME arch

Class II elastics are used for what?

INTERmaxillary | Worn from max ant tooth to mand post tooth

Class III elastics are used for what?

INTERmaxillary | Worn from max post tooth to mand ant tooth

Cervical pull headgear indication?

Class II malocclusion with deep bite

High pull headgear indication?

Class II malocclusion with increased vertical dimension and minimal overbite

Straight pull headgear indication?

Class II division I malocclusion

Reverse pull headgear indication?

Class III malocclusion (when you want to protract the maxilla)

Chin cup headgear indication?

Class III malocclusion (due to excessive mand growth)

SNA greater than __ degrees is max prognathic. Less than this is retrognathic

SNB greater than __ degrees is mand prognathic. Less than this is retrognathic

Class I skeletal profile ANB angle = __degrees

Class II skeletal profile has an ANB angle greater than __ degrees

Class III skeletal profile has an ANB angle less than __ degrees.

Lisinopril is what type of antihypertensive?

ACE inhibitor

Lethal dose of fluoride?

20-50 mg/kg

What is microfilled composite?

flowable

Drug that treats HIV patients?

Zidovudine (Retrovir)

Abx that are bacteriostatic?

tetracycline, clindamycin, erythromycin,azithromycin

Abx that are bacteriocidal?

Penicillin, cephalosporins, vancomycin, metronidazole

Most common salivary gland tumor?

Pleomorphic adenoma (also is the most common benign salivary gland tumor)

Most common malignant salivary gland tumor?

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Most common location of salivary gland tumors?

parotid gland

Canalicular adenoma is most commonly where?

upper lip

Is epi contraindicated for pts with multiple sclerosis?

yes

What characterizes replacement resorption?

ankylosis

Apical foramen most often exits the root how many mm from the anatomic apex?

.5-1mm

What is the only joint that exerts posterior traction on the articular disc?

superior retrodiscal lamina

What should you include in tx for localized juvenile periodontitis?

systemic abx therapy (tetracycline most likely)

What muscles are influential in molding the lingual border of the final mandibular impression for a complete denture?

Palatoglossus, superior pharyngeal, mylohyoid, genioglossus

What drug is given orally to treat vaginal candidiasis?

fluconazole (diflucan)

Which penicillin cant be given orally?

methicillin

Drug that treats trigeminal neuralgia?

carbamezipine

What group of drugs is contraindicated in pts with glaucoma?

anticholinergic

What is MTA used for?

Repair tooth structure if perforated like during RCT

Purpose of sodium hypochlorite?

dissolves necrotic (ORGANIC) tissue

EDTA function?

Chelator that removes smear layer and INORGANIC material. Can be placed on a calcified canal to soften it.

Ankylosed tooth is associated with ___resorption.

replacement

Port wine stain?

Sturger Weber

toxic dose of fluoride?

5-10mg/kg

Rapid palatal expander used for?

unilateral crossbite

Prevalence

Proportion of a given population that is affected by a condition at any given point in time. PERCENTAGE

Incidence

Number of new cases that will occur within a population over a period of time. (# of new cases of the disease)/(total number of people at risk)

Cross-sectional study

a study in which the health conditions of a group of people who are assumed to be a sample of the population AT ONE POINT IN TIME

Case control study

People with a condition are compared to people with out it

Prospective cohort study

a general population is followed through time to see who develops the disease

Retrospective cohort study

To evaluate the effect that a specific exposure has had on a population

zyrtec causes..

excess salivation

Smoker red dots on SOFT palate?

Erythroplakia

Smoker red dots on HARD palate?

nicotinic stomatitis

Capitation pays for ___

HMO

Pharm Flashcards

(147 cards)