Pharm - Antibiotics/Antivirals

Question 1

With which antibiotic is gonorrhea and chlamydia each treated?

Answer 1

• gonorrhea = ceftriaxone 500 mg IM

- chlamydia = doxycycline 100 mg PO twice daily 7 days

Question 2

What is the main difference between Dicloxacillin and Oxacillin?

Answer 2

• Dicloxacillin can be given PO
• Oxacillin is given IV

*both are used for treatment of serious skin infections

Question 3

What is Rifampin’s effect on enzymes?

Answer 3

• it is an enzyme inducer = plasma levels of other drugs may fall sub-therapeutic

Question 4

What is the drug of choice to treat an inpatient with MRSA?

Answer 4

• Vancomycin

Question 5

A patient on Rifampin or Isoniazid for TB prophylaxis needs to refrain from doing what?

Answer 5

• drinking alcohol

* risk of liver toxicity is high

Question 6

What are the general side effect profile with NRTIs?

Answer 6

• flu like symptoms

- nausea

Question 7

What 2 antibiotic choices are available for TB prophylaxis?

Answer 7

• Rifampin

- Isoniazid

Question 8

A patient needs to minimize sun exposure if they are given any one of these 3 antibiotics.

Answer 8

• Bactrim (sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim)
• Tetracycline
• FQs

Question 9

All NRTI drugs are analogs of what?

Answer 9

endogenous nucleosides

Question 10

What are the 2 antibiotics therapy regimens for CAP in a patient that has co-morbidities?

Answer 10

• B-lactam + (macrolide OR doxycycline)
  OR
• Respiratory FQ (levofloxacin)

Question 11

What are the 3 antibiotics indicated for CAP in an otherwise healthy individual?

Answer 11

• Amoxicillin
• Doxycycline
• Macrolides

Question 12

Lyme prophylaxis should be initiated if a tick has been attached for how long? What is the drug of choice?

Answer 12

• between 36-72 hours

- single dose doxycycline 200 mg

Question 13

What is the difference been TDF and TAF for Tenofovir?

Answer 13

• by adding alafenamide (TAF) it made the drug more potent

Question 14

A patient on NRTIs for HIV prophylaxis also needs to be screened for this other virus.

Answer 14

• HBV

Question 15

What are the 2 main side effects with tenofovir?

Answer 15

• kidney toxicity

- reduced bone density

Question 16

You should avoid taking these 2 antibiotics with milk or antacids.

Answer 16

• Tetracyclines

- FQs

Question 17

What is the drug of choice to treat an outpatient with MRSA?

Answer 17

• Bactrim is first line

- Doxycycline is alternative

Question 18

What is the main adverse effect with Flagyl?

Answer 18

• antabuse effect = can’t drink alcohol

Question 19

The effectiveness of Dyscovia (emtricitabine + TAF) is unknown in these 2 populations.

Answer 19

• heterosexual men/women

- injection drug use

Question 20

What vitamin is prescribed in addition to Rifampin/Isoniazid to minimize the risk of neuropathy?

Answer 20

• Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)

Question 21

What antibiotic causes body fluid secretion to change to an orange-red color?

Answer 21

• Rifampin (Rifadin)

Question 22

What is chloramphenicol indicated for?

Answer 22

• meningitis in developing countries

Question 23

If a patient receives the first HPV vaccine but misses her second dose by over a year what do you do?

Answer 23

• pick up where you left off = give the 2nd and 3rd dose

Question 24

What is the difference between drug make up for Truvada and Dyscovia?

Answer 24

• Truvada = emtricitabine + TDF

- Dyscovia = emtricitabine + TAF

Question 25

Why do we only give a 90 day supply of PrEP?

Answer 25

- We need screen for HIV every 3 months and this forces the patient to return to clinic

Question 26

If Vancomycin PO is unsuccessful at treating C. Diff what is the next drug in line?

Answer 26

- Fidaxomicin (Difacid)

Question 27

What is the main difference between Ceftriaxone and Cefepime?

Answer 27

- Cefepime has anti-pseudomonal activity

Question 28

What antibiotic is known to cause pill-induced esophagitis?

Answer 28

- Doxycycline (Tetracyclines)

Question 29

If a patient is hospitalized taking vancomycin but is doing well enough to go home what drug do you transition them to?

Answer 29

- Linezolid (Zyvox)

Question 30

A CSF fluid gram stain reveals a gram negative diplococci. What infection are you suspicious for?

Answer 30

- bacterial meningitis

Question 31

What is the name of the only 3rd generation cephalosporin that is administered PO?

Answer 31

- Cefpodoxime (Vantin)

Question 32

A 68 year old female patient with RA is treated with a combination of methotrexate and adalimumab (Humira). Which vaccine should be avoided at this time? a. influenza b. measles, mumps, & rubella c. zoster d. all of the above

Answer 32

b. measles, mumps, & rubella

Question 33

What is the mechanism of action of all the Beta-Lactams?

Answer 33

- block transpeptidase to inhibit cell wall synthesis

Question 34

What 2 antibiotics are linked to cardiac abnormalities?

Answer 34

- Macrolide | - FQs

Question 35

What antibiotic is the first line treatment for PJP?

Answer 35

- Bactrim (sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim)

Question 36

Penicillin is the drug of choice to treat what 2 infections?

Answer 36

- strep throat | - syphillis

Question 37

Ceftriaxone is the drug of choice for what 2 infections?

Answer 37

- Gonorrhea | - Neisseria meningitis

Question 38

What antibiotic is known to cause diarrhea?

Answer 38

- Azithromycin (macrolide)

Question 39

What is the first line choice for Lyme disease?

Answer 39

- Doxycycline 100 mg bid

Question 40

Which 2 drugs are the backbone for HIV prophylaxis?

Answer 40

- Emtricitabine + Tenofovir | * both are NRTIs

Question 41

What antibiotic drug is known to cause C. diff?

Answer 41

Clindamycin

Question 42

What was the first drug marketed to treat HIV?

Answer 42

``` AZT Zidovudine (Retrovir) ```

Question 43

Which of the following drugs' adverse effects includes kidney toxicity and bone density decrease? TAF or TDF

Answer 43

TDF

Question 44

Which of the following drugs' adverse effects includes dyslipidemia and weight gain? TAF or TDF

Answer 44

TAF