pharm (conceptual) High yield FA Flashcards

(147 cards)

1
Q

what is Km and how does it relate to substrate affinity?

A

Km = [S] at 1/2 Vmax. Km is inversely related to affinity of the enzyme for its substrate (high Km = low affinity and vice versa)

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2
Q

How is Vmax of a reaction related to the enzyme concentration?

A

Vmax is directly proportional to the [enzyme] (as the enzyme increases, so does the Vmax)

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3
Q

if an enzymatic reaction follows Michaelis-Mentin kinetics (as most do), the graph of [s] vs Vmax is what shape? What shape is the graph for reactions that follow cooperative kinetics?

A

Michaelis-Menten = hyperbolic, cooperative = sigmoidal (think Hgb)

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4
Q

What is the X axis on a Line weaver burke plot? What is the Y axis? And what is the benefit of this graph?

A

X axis = 1/[substrate], y axis = 1/V. The benefit of this graph is you can see how inhibitors (competetive and non-comp) affect the graph

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5
Q

In a Lineweaver-Burke plot, what does the Slope represent? What is the X-intercept? The Y-intercept?

A

Lineweaver burke plot, X axis = 1/[substrate], y axis = 1/V. so the slope = Km/Vmax, x-intercept = 1/-km, y=1/Vmax

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6
Q

On a Lineweaver burke plot, a higher Km (and therefore a lower affinity) crosses the X axis…. whereas a lower Km (and therefore a higher affinity) crosses the X axis…

A

high Km = on the left of the y intercept, but as close to it as possible (small negative numbers), low Km = as far to the left of the y intercept as possible (big negative numbers)

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7
Q

On a Lineweaver burke plot, a higher Vmax crosses the Y axis…. whereas a lower Vmax (and therefore a higher affinity) crosses the Y axis…

A

A higher Vmax crosses the Y axis closer to the X-axis, a smaller Vmax crosses the Y axis in the positive quadrant as far away from the x-axis as possible

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8
Q

Do competitive inhibitors: 1) Resemble the substrate, 2) Overcome by increase [S], 3) Bind active site, 4) Effect Vmax, 5) Effect Km, 6) Effect Pharmacodynamics?

A

competitive inhibitors: 1) Resemble the substrate = yes, 2) Overcome by increase [S] = yes, 3) Bind active site = yes, 4) Effect Vmax = no, you can add more substrate and get to the same Vmax, 5) Effect Km = increased (affinity is decreased) be you need more substrate to get to 1/2 Vmax, 6) Effect Pharmacodynamics = it makes it less potent (you need more substrate to get the same effect)

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9
Q

Do noncompetitive inhibitors: 1) Resemble the substrate, 2) Overcome by increase [S], 3) Bind active site, 4) Effect Vmax, 5) Effect Km, 6) Effect Pharmacodynamics?

A

noncompetitive inhibitors: 1) Resemble the substrate = no, 2) Overcome by increase [S] = no, 3) Bind active site = no, 4) Effect Vmax = yes, Vmax is decreased bc Vmax is directly proportional to the amt of enx avb and now there are fewer enz avb, 5) Effect Km = no, Km is unchanged, 6) Effect Pharmacodynamics = decreased efficacy ( you decrease the maximal effect a drug can provide)

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10
Q

How does a Competitive inhibitor compare to the normal substrate on a lineweaver burke plot in terms of where it crosses on the X and Y axis?

A

the competitive inhibitor crosses the x-axis further to the right of the normal substrate (the Km increases, the affinity decreases), and at the same point of the y-axis (vmax is unchanged) – competitive inhibitors cross each other competitively, noncompetitive inhibitors do not

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11
Q

How does a noncompetitive inhibitor compare to the normal substrate on a lineweaver burke plot in terms of where it crosses on the X and Y axis?

A

the noncompetitive inhibitor crosses the x-axis at the same site of the normal substrate (the Km is unchanged), and a higher point of the y-axis (Vmax is less) – competitive inhibitors cross each other competitively, noncompetitive inhibitors do not

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12
Q

What is the bioavailability of a drug?

A

the fraction of the administered drug that reaches systemic circulation unchanged

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13
Q

What is the bioavailability of an IV drug? An oral drug?

A

IV = 100% (bc the bioavailability is the fraction of the drug administered that reaches the systemic circ. unchanged). Oral bioavailability is typically <100% due to incomplete absorption and first pass metabolism

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14
Q

What is the Volume of Distribution of a drug (Vd), both definition and equation

A

The theoretical fluid vlume required to maintain the total absorbed drug amount at the plasma concentration. volume of distribution = (amount of drug in the body)/(plasma drug concentration)

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15
Q

The Volume of distribution (Vd) can be affected by diseases in what two organ systems?

A

liver and kidney- decreased protein binding increases Volume of distribution

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16
Q

If the Volume of distribution (Vd) is low (4-8 L), where is the drug likely contained and what types of molecules are these?

A

It’s largely distributed in the blood, and it’s large/charged molecules that are plasma protein bound

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17
Q

If the Volume of distribution (Vd) is medium, where is the drug likely contained and what drug types/molecules are these?

A

It’s largely distributed in the ECF and it’s mainly small hydrophilic molecules

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18
Q

If the Volume of distribution (Vd) is high, where is the dug likely contained and what drug types/molecules are these?

A

It’s largely distributed in all tissues, and this is mainly small lipophilic molecules, especially i bound to tissue protein

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19
Q

If a drug has first-order elimination, how many half lives does it take to reach a steady state [ ] of the drug?

A

4-5 half lives

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20
Q

equation for a drug’s half life

A

t(1/2) = (0.7 x Volume of Distribution)/CL where CL = rate of elimination of drug plasma drug concentrations = Vd (volum of distribution) * Ke (elimination constant), sp t(1/2) = 0.7 x Vd/ Vd x Ke

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21
Q

What is Clearance

A

relates the rate of elimination of a drug to the plasma concentration = Vd (volume of distrbution) x Ke (the elimination constant)

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22
Q

Clearance can be impaired with defects in which three organ systems?

A

cardiac, hepatic and renal

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23
Q

How do you calculate the Loading Dose for a drug?

A

Loading Dose = Cp x (Vd/F) where Cp = target plasma conc., Vd = volume of distribution and F = bioavailability

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24
Q

How do you calculate Maintenance dose?

A

Maintenance dose = Cp x CL/F where Cp = target plasma conc, CL = clearance (Vd x Ke (the elimination constant) and F = bioavailability

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25
How are the maintenance and loading doses affected by renal and liver disease
the maintenance dose goes down (Maintenance dose = Cp x CL/F and clearance would decrease in renal disease and bioavailability would increase in liver disease), but loading dose is unchanged
26
the time to steady state depends primarily on...
t(1/2). it is independent of dosing frequency or size
27
endings commonly used for antimicrobial meds (4)
azole (antifungal) cillin (penicillin) cycline (antibiotic, prot. synth inhib) navir (protease inhib)
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antimicrobial ending "azole" - usually...
antifungal (ie ketoconazole)
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antimicrobial ending "cillin"- usually...
a penicillin antimicrobial (like methicillin)
30
antimicrobial ending "cycline"- usually...
antibiotic, prot. synth inhib (like tetracycline)
31
antimicrobial ending "navir" usually...
protease inhib. like saquinavir
32
11 endings commonly used in CNS drugs...
1. triptan (5-HT 1B/1D agonists) 2. ane (inhalational general anesthetic) 3. caine (local anesthetic) 4. operidol (butyrophenone (neuroepileptic)) 5. azine (phenothiazine (neuroepileptic, antiemetic) 6. barbital (barbituate) 7. zolam (Benzodiazepine) 8. azepam (Benzodiazepine) 9. etine (SSRI) 10. ipramine (TCA) 11. triptyline (TCA)
33
ending "triptan" is what type of CNS drug?
5-HT 1B/1D agonists - migraines (ie sumatriptan)
34
ending "ane" is what type of CNS drug?
inhalational general anesthetic - Halothane
35
ending "caine" is what type of CNS drug?
local anesthetic- lidocaine
36
"operidol" is what type of CNS drug?
Butyrophenone (neuroepileptic)- Haloperidol
37
ending "azine" is what type of CNS drug?
phenothiazine (neuroepileptic, antiemetic) ie chlorpromazine
38
ending "barbital" is what type of CNS drug?
barbituate-- ie phenobarbital
39
ending "zolam" is what type of CNS drug?
benzodiazepine-- Alprazolam
40
ending "azepam" is what type of CNS drug?
benzodiazepine - diazepam
41
ending "etine" is what type of CNS drug?
SSRI-- fluoxetine
42
ending "ipramine" is what type of CNS drug?
TCA - imipramine
43
ending "triptyline" is what type of CNS drug?
TCA- amitriptyline
44
3 endings in the ANS
1. olol - B-agonist (propranolol) 2. terol - B2 agonist (albuterol) 3. zosin - a1- antagonist (prazosin)
45
ending "olol" is what type of ANS drug?
B agonist (propranolol)
46
ending "terol" is what type of ANS drug?
B2-agonist (albuterol)
47
ending "zosin" is what type of ANS drug?
a1-antagonist (prazosin)
48
3 cardiovascular drug endings
1. oxin (cardiac glycoside - inotropic agent. ie digoxin) 2. pril (ACE inhib- Captopril) 3. afil (erectile dysfunction- sildenafil)
49
ending" oxin" in cardiac drugs?
cardiac glycoside- inotropic agent (digoxin)
50
ending "pril" in cardiac drugs?
ACE inhib- captopril
51
ending "afil" in cardiac drugs?
erectile dysfunction (sildenafil)
52
ending "tropin"
pituitary hormone (somatotropin)
53
ending "tidine"?
H2 antagonist - cimetidine
54
Sulfa Drugs (8)
Popular FACTSSS! ``` Probenecid o p u l a r ``` ``` Furosemide Acetazolamide Celecoxib Thiazides Sulfonamide Abx Sulfonylureas Sulfasalazine ```
55
Pts w/what type of allergy shouldn't take Probenecid because they might develop fever, UTI, pruritic rash, SJS, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, and urticaria (hives)?
sulfa allergy
56
pt w/what type of allergy shouldn't take Furosemide because they might develop fever, UTI, pruritic rash, SJS, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, and urticaria (hives)?
sulfa allergy
57
pt w/what type of allergy shouldn't take Acetazolamide because they might develop fever, UTI, pruritic rash, SJS, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, and urticaria (hives)?
sulfa allergy
58
pt w/what type of allergy shouldn't take celecoxib because they might develop fever, UTI, pruritic rash, SJS, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, and urticaria (hives)?
sulfa allergy
59
pt w/what type of allergy shouldn't take Thiazides because they might develop fever, UTI, pruritic rash, SJS, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, and urticaria (hives)?
sulfa allergy
60
pt w/what type of allergy shouldn't take sulfonamide abx because they might develop fever, UTI, pruritic rash, SJS, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, and urticaria (hives)?
sulfa allergy
61
pt w/what type of allergy shouldn't take sulfonylureas because they might develop fever, UTI, pruritic rash, SJS, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, and urticaria (hives)?
sulfa allergy
62
pt w/what type of allergy shouldn't take sulfasalazine because they might develop fever, UTI, pruritic rash, SJS, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, and urticaria (hives)?
sulfa allergy
63
pt with sulfa allergies may dvp what symp to sulfa drugs (8)?
1. UTI 2. fever 3.pruritic rash 4. stevens johnson syndrome 5. hemolytic anemia 6. thrombocytopenia 7. agranulocytosis 8. uticaria (hives) symptoms range from mild - life threatening
64
p-450 inducers (8)
1. Modafinil (narcolepsy) 2. Barbituates 3. St. John's Wort 4. Phenytoin 5. Rifampin 6. Griseofulvin 7. Carbamazepine 8. Chronic ETOH use "momma barb steals phen-phen and refuses greasy carbs chronically"
65
how does Modafinil affect p-450?
inducer
66
how does Barbituates affect p-450?
inducer
67
how does St. John's Wort affect p-450?
inducer
68
how does Phenytoin affect p-450?
inducer
69
how does Rifampin affect p-450?
inducer
70
how does Griseofulvin affect p-450?
inducer
71
how does Carbamazepine affect p-450?
inducer
72
how does Chronic ETOH use affect p-450?
inducer
73
what are the p-450 inhibitors? (12)
1. Macrolides 2. Amiodarone 3. Grapefruit juice 4. Isoniazide 5. Cimetidine 6. Ritonavir 7. Acute ETOH abuse 8. Ciprofloxacin 9. Ketoconazole 10. Sulfonamides 11. Gemfibrozil 12. Quinidine MAGIC RACKS in GQ
74
How do macrolides affect p-450?
inhibitor
75
How does amiodarone affect p-450?
inhibitor
76
How does grapefruit juice affect p-450?
inhibitor
77
How does isoniazide affect p-450?
inhibitor
78
How does cimetidine affect p-450?
inhibitor
79
How does ritonavir affect p-450?
inhibitor
80
How does acute ETOH abuse affect p-450?
inhibitor
81
How does ciprofloxacin affect p-450?
inhibitor
82
How does ketoconazole affect p-450?
inhibitor
83
How does sulfonamides affect p-450?
inhibitor
84
How does gemfibrozil affect p-450?
inhibitor
85
How does Quinidine affect p-450?
inhibitor
86
Zero-order elimination of a drug
the rate of elimination is constant regardless of the plasma concentration (constant amt of drug elim per unit time)
87
on a graph, zero-order elimination of a drug is...
linear (the rate of elimination is constant regardless of the plasma concentration (constant amt of drug elim per unit time))
88
3 common examples of zero-order elimination drugs?
Phenytoin Ethanol Aspirin (at high or toxic concentrations) - think a PEA is round, like a "0" in zero-order
89
capacity limited elimination is another way to say..
zero-order elimination
90
zero-order elimination is another way to say... | whereas first-order elimination is another way to say...
zero-order: capacity-limited elimination | firt-order: flow-dependent limited
91
first order elimination of a drug
the rate of elimination is directly proportional to the drug concentration (ie a constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time)
92
in zero-order elimination, the plasma concentration of the drug decreases
linearly with time
93
in first order elimination, the plasma concentration of a drug decreases
exponentially with time-- the rate of elimination is directly proportional to the drug concentration (ie a constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time)
94
if a species is ionized in the urine what happens?
they are trapped in the urine and clear quickly
95
if a species is neutral in the urine, what happens?
neutral forms can be reabsorbed
96
what are three examples of weakly acidic drugs?
phenobarbital, methotrexate, aspirin
97
what happens to weak acids (like phenobarbital, methotrexate, aspirin)?
they get trapped in basic environments | RCOOH ---> RCOO- + H+, where RCOOH is lipid soluble and RCOO- is trapped
98
how do you treat overdoses of weak acids? why?
with bicarbonate - weak acids get trapped in basic envts (RCOOH ---> RCOO- + H+, where RCOOH is lipid soluble and RCOO- is trapped) add bicarb, neutralize the acid, the non-ionized drug = excreted in the urine
99
what is an example of a pharmacological weak base?
Amphetamines
100
what happens when a weak base (like amphetamines) enter the body?
they get trapped in acidic envts (RNH2 + H+ ---> RNH3+) where RNH2 = lipid soluble and RNH3+ is trapped
101
how do you treat overdoses of weak bases? Why?
ammonium Chloride weak bases get trapped in acidic environments. (RNH2 + H+ ---> RNH3+, where RNH2 = lipid soluble and RNH3+ is trapped) Ammonium Chloride neutralizes the acid ---> drug is back to being lipid soluble,and can be eliminated by the body
102
drug metabolism has how many phases?
2
103
phase I of drug metabolism?
reduction, oxidation, hydrolysis with cytochrome p450
104
phase 1 of drug metabolism (reduction, oxidation, hydrolysis with cytochrome p450) usually yields metabolites that are...
slightly polar, water-soluble and often still active
105
geriatric pt often lose which phase of metabolism first?
Phase I (reduction, oxidation, hydrolysis with cytochrome p450 that yields slightly polar, water-soluble and often still active metabolites) ** Geriatric pt have GAS (Glucuronidation, Acetylation and Sulfonation - ie phase II metab)
106
phase II of drug metab?
conjugation (Glucuronidation, Acetylation, Sulfonation)
107
phase II metab (conjugation (Glucuronidation, Acetylation, Sulfonation)) usually yields metabolites that are...
very polar, inactive and renally excreted
108
in terms of side effects from certain drugs, patients who are slow acetylators...
have greater side effects bc there's a decreased rate of phase II metab, and usually phase I metab creates active metabolites
109
what does the mnemonic "Geriatrics have GAS" refer to?
Geriatrics have Glucuronidation, Acetylation and Sulfonation (ie phase II metab), bc they lose phase I metab. reduction, oxidation, hydrolysis with cytochrome p450 that yields slightly polar, water-soluble and often still active metabolites) first
110
efficacy
maximal effect a drug can produce
111
4 high-efficacy (in terms of maximal effect a drug can produce) drug classes
1. analgesic (pain) 2. abx 3. antihistamines 4. decongestants
112
which has a higher efficacy (maximal effect a drug can produce) a full or partial agonist?
a full agonist
113
potency
amt of drug needed for a given effect
114
increased potency implies a higher or lower Km?
lower Km (a higher affinity for the receptor) and therefore a lower amt of drug needed for given effect
115
Which 3 drug classes are highly potent (in terms of amt of drug needed for given effect)
1. Chemotherapeutic drugs 2. anti HTN drugs 3. antilipid (cholesterol) drugs
116
if you plot "agonist dose" against the percent of maximum effect on a graph, and then plot the same thing with the presence of a competitive antagonist, what happens to the curve?
the curve is the exact same shape but it is shifted to the right (more of the agonist is required for every effect)
117
if you plot "agonist dose" against the percent of maximum effect on a graph, and then plot the same thing with the presence of a noncompetitive inhibitor, what happens to the curve?
the curve shifts down (it has decreased efficacy at every dose that can't be overcome by adding more substrate)
118
What is an example of a noncompetitive antagonist of NE on alpha receptors? what does it do to the potency? the efficacy?
phenoxybenzamine (used in pheochromocytoma), decreases efficacy of NE-- can't be overcome by increasing NE
119
what is an example of a competitive inhibitor of Diazepam on the GABA receptor?
flumazenil | decreases potency of Diazepam but no change in efficacy- can overcome flumazenil by increasing GABA
120
if you plot "agonist dose" against the percent of maximum effect on a graph, and then plot the same thing with the presence of a partial agonist, what happens to the curve?
The curve shifts down, and can go to the right or left? the efficacy is decreased because it acts at the same site, but with reduced maximal effect. The potency can be increased or decreased with a partial agonist.
121
What is an example of a partial agonist at the opioid mu receptors of Morphine (a full agonist)
buprenorphine
122
therapeutic index- conceptual definition and mathematical definition
measurement of drug safety (LD50/ED50) = median lethal dose/median effective dose
123
do safer drugs havea higher or lower therapeutic index?
higher (LD50/ED50)
124
4 drugs that have a very low Therapeutic index:
1. digoxin 2. lithium 3. theophylline 4. warfarin
125
what is the therapeutic window?
the range from the minimum effective dose to the minimum toxic dose. (a measurement of clinical drug safety)
126
what are the two classes of local anesthetics?
esters and amides
127
as a class, benzodiazapines, such as alprazolam, diazepam and lorazepam, are sedative-hypnotic agents that exert what 4 effects?
anxiolytic, muscle-relaxant, anticonvulsant and amnestic effects
128
Benzos enhance the effect of what neurotransmitter?
GABA
129
if you want to reverse the effects of a benzo (alprazolam, diazepam, lorazepam, etc) what drug should you give?
Flumazenil-- it's an agonist at the benzodiazepine receptor and has no effect on other CNS depressants
130
Nicotinic AcH receptors are what kind of channels?
ligand gated Na+/K+ channels
131
muscarinic ACh receptors are what kind of receptors
GPCR- act through second messengers
132
5 subtypes of muscarinic receptors?
M1, M2, M3, M4, M5
133
QISS $ QIQ til you're SIQ of Super Qinky Sex
alpha 1- Q alpha 2- I Beta 1- S Beta 2- S M1- Q M2- I M3- Q D1 - S D2- I H1- Q H2- S V1- Q V2- S
134
which receptor/GPCR class is responsible for...increased vasc SM contraction, increase pupillary dilator contraction (mydriasis), increase intestinal/bladder sphincter muscle contraction (no peeing)
alpha 1- Gq
135
which receptor/GPCR class = responsible for decreased sns outflow, decreased insulin release, decrease lipolysis, increase platelet aggregation?
alpha 2 = Gi
136
which receptor/GPCR class = increase HR, contractility, renin release, lipolysis
B1 = Gs
137
which receptor/GPCR = responsible for vasodlation, bronchodilation, increase HR, increase contractility, increase lipolysis, increase insuin release, decrease uterine tone (tocolysis), ciliary muscle relaxation, increas acqueous humor production?
B2= Gs
138
which receptor/GPCR class = resp for CNS/entric nervous sys
M1= Gq
139
which receptor/GPCR class = resp for decrease HR and contractility of atria?
M2= Gi
140
which receptor/GPCR class = resp for increase exocrine gland secretion (lacrimal, gastric acid), increase gut peristalsis, increase bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, increase pupillary sphincter muscle contraction (MIOSIS), ciliary muscle contraction (accomodation)
M3 =Gq
141
which receptor = the major muscarinic receptor in the periphery?
M3 = Gq
142
Major muscarinic receptor/GPCR class in the heart?
M2=Gi
143
Major muscarinic receptor/GPCR class in the CNS?
M1= Gq
144
5 Gq receptors
``` HAVe 1 M&M H1 A1 V1 e ``` M1 M3
145
Gq path:
phospholipase C ---> cleaves PIP2 into DAG and IP3. DAG ---> protein Kinase C IP3 ---> increase Ca2+ release from SR ---> Smooth muscle contraction
146
Gs receptors
B1, B2, D1, H2, V2
147
Gs mech
activate adenylyl cyclase ---> atp becomes cAMP ----> activates prot. kinase A ----> increase Ca2+ in the heart and inhibits myosin-light chain kinase (smooth muscle)