Pharm-Exam 4- NMBD Reversals Flashcards

1
Q

Which factor may significantly prolong the duration of neuromuscular blockade and hence affect the reversal?

A) Hypothermia
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypoglycemia

A

Answer: A) Hypothermia

Rationale: Hypothermia can impair the metabolism and excretion of neuromuscular blocking drugs (NMBDs) and reduce the efficacy of acetylcholinesterase, thereby prolonging the neuromuscular blockade. It decreases enzyme activity and can therefore slow the reversal process.

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1
Q

How does metabolic acidosis influence the reversal of NMBD?

A) It enhances the effect of NMBDs by increasing receptor sensitivity.
B) It has no significant effect on NMBD reversal.
C) It speeds up the reversal of NMBD by enhancing metabolism.
D) It can interfere with the reversal of NMBD by affecting drug ionization and distribution.

A

Answer: D) It can interfere with the reversal of NMBD by affecting drug ionization and distribution.

Rationale: Metabolic acidosis can affect the ionization and distribution of drugs in the body, which in turn may impair the action of NMBD reversal agents. Acidosis can decrease the binding of non-depolarizing NMBDs to the nicotinic receptors, potentially requiring higher doses of reversal agents.

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2
Q

Which of the following patient conditions does NOT directly impact the effectiveness of NMBD reversal agents?

A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Respiratory acidosis
C) Hyperthermia
D) Hypothermia

A

Answer: C) Hyperthermia

Rationale: The list from the slide specifies hypothermia as a condition that can influence NMBD reversal. There is no mention of hyperthermia. While hyperthermia may have its own effects on drug metabolism and patient condition, it is not listed as a factor in the context of this slide.

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3
Q

The choice of which NMBD was used is a critical factor in selecting an appropriate reversal agent. Which of the following scenarios would be a consideration in this decision-making process?

A) The duration of action of the NMBD.
B) The color of the NMBD solution.
C) The cost of the NMBD.
D) The preference of the surgical team.

A

Answer: A) The duration of action of the NMBD.

Rationale: The pharmacokinetics of the NMBD, including its duration of action, is crucial in choosing an appropriate reversal agent. Short-acting, intermediate-acting, and long-acting NMBDs are reversed differently, often with different dosages and types of reversal agents.

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4
Q

What is the primary chemical composition of Sugammadex?

A) α-cyclodextrin
B) β-cyclodextrin
C) γ-cyclodextrin
D) δ-cyclodextrin

A

Answer: C) γ-cyclodextrin

Rationale: Sugammadex is made of γ-cyclodextrin, which is a cyclic oligosaccharide composed of dextrose units. It has a lipophilic core and a hydrophilic exterior which allows it to encapsulate aminosteroid neuromuscular blockers like rocuronium.

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5
Q

What characteristic of Sugammadex allows it to be highly effective in the aqueous environment of the bloodstream?

A) High lipid solubility
B) High water solubility
C) High protein binding
D) High calcium chelation

A

Answer: B) High water solubility

Rationale: Sugammadex is highly water-soluble, which facilitates its rapid action in the bloodstream. Its solubility allows it to quickly come into contact with and encapsulate the neuromuscular blocking agents, reversing their effects.

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6
Q

Sugammadex reverses neuromuscular blockade through what mechanism?

A) Degradation of the neuromuscular blocking agent
B) Displacement of the neuromuscular blocking agent from the receptor
C) Encapsulation of the neuromuscular blocking agent
D) Renal excretion of the neuromuscular blocking agent

A

Answer: C) Encapsulation of the neuromuscular blocking agent

Rationale: Sugammadex works by encapsulating the aminosteroid neuromuscular blocking agents within its molecular structure, effectively removing them from the neuromuscular junction and reversing their paralytic effects.

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7
Q

From which source is the fundamental structure of Sugammadex derived?

A) Lactose
B) Maltose
C) Starch
D) Glycogen

A

Answer: C) Starch

Rationale: Sugammadex is derived from γ-cyclodextrin, which is a substance made from dextrose units from starch. This gives it the structure necessary to bind and inactivate aminosteroid neuromuscular blockers.

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8
Q

What types of interactions contribute to the mechanism of action of Sugammadex?

A) Electrostatic and covalent bonds
B) Ionic bonds and Van der Waals forces
C) Van der Waals forces, thermodynamic (hydrogen) bonds, and hydrophobic interactions
D) Covalent bonds and hydrophilic interactions

A

Answer: C) Van der Waals forces, thermodynamic (hydrogen) bonds, and hydrophobic interactions

Rationale: Sugammadex’s mechanism of action involves several non-covalent interactions such as Van der Waals forces, hydrogen bonding, and hydrophobic interactions, which facilitate the tight encapsulation of the aminosteroid neuromuscular blockers, particularly rocuronium and vecuronium.

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9
Q

Which neuromuscular blocking agent has the highest affinity for Sugammadex?

A) Vecuronium
B) Rocuronium
C) Pancuronium
D) Atracurium

A

Answer: B) Rocuronium

Rationale: Sugammadex has a greater affinity for rocuronium over vecuronium and much more so over pancuronium. This is due to the specific molecular interactions that allow Sugammadex to encapsulate rocuronium very tightly.

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10
Q

Sugammadex is known to bind to which of the following in the plasma?

A) Protein-bound drug
B) Ionized drug
C) Free drug
D) Metabolized drug

A

Answer: C) Free drug

Rationale: Sugammadex works by binding to the ‘free drug’ in plasma – that is, it binds to the unbound, active form of the neuromuscular blocking agents, thereby inactivating them.

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11
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action (MOA) of Sugammadex?

A) Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
B) Activation of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
C) Encapsulation of neuromuscular blocking agents
D) Blockade of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

A

Answer: C) Encapsulation of neuromuscular blocking agents

Rationale: Sugammadex’s primary mechanism of action is the encapsulation of specific neuromuscular blocking agents, particularly steroidal ones such as rocuronium and vecuronium, through a host of non-covalent interactions. This process effectively reverses neuromuscular blockade by removing the agent from the neuromuscular junction.

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12
Q

What percentage of Sugammadex is typically excreted in the urine within 6 hours of administration?

A) 50%
B) 70%
C) 90%
D) 100%

A

Answer: B) 70%

Rationale: According to the slide, 70% of Sugammadex is eliminated in the urine within the first 6 hours, highlighting the drug’s rapid clearance via renal excretion.

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13
Q

For patients with renal impairment, Sugammadex clearance is:

A) Enhanced and does not require dialysis.
B) Unaffected, as the drug is not eliminated by the kidneys.
C) Decreased and may require dialysis.
D) Increased due to compensatory hepatic excretion.

A

Answer: C) Decreased and may require dialysis.

Rationale: The slide indicates that in patients with renal impairment, Sugammadex clearance is decreased (notated as ‘C/I with dialysis’), suggesting that these patients may require dialysis for the removal of the drug due to reduced renal function.

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14
Q

What is the elimination half-life of Sugammadex?

A) 1 hour
B) 2 hours
C) 4 hours
D) 8 hours

A

Answer: B) 2 hours

Rationale: The slide presents the elimination half-life of Sugammadex as 2 hours, which is the time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the plasma.

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15
Q

After 24 hours, what percentage of Sugammadex is typically eliminated from the body?

A) 50%
B) 70%
C) 90%
D) 100%

A

Answer: C) 90%

Rationale: The slide shows that within 24 hours, approximately 90% of Sugammadex is excreted in the urine, demonstrating the drug’s efficient renal elimination over a day.

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16
Q

When using a selective relaxant-binding agent for a moderate neuromuscular block, what is the recommended dose if the second twitch (T2) has reappeared in response to train-of-four (TOF) stimulation?

A) 1 mg/kg
B) 2 mg/kg
C) 3 mg/kg
D) 4 mg/kg

A

Answer: B) 2 mg/kg

Rationale: For a moderate block, where spontaneous recovery has reached the reappearance of the second twitch in TOF stimulation, the recommended dose is 2 mg/kg.

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17
Q

For a deep neuromuscular block, where spontaneous recovery has shown 1-2 post-tetanic counts with no twitch responses to TOF, what dose of the selective relaxant-binding agent is advised?

A) 1 mg/kg
B) 2 mg/kg
C) 3 mg/kg
D) 4 mg/kg

A

Answer: D) 4 mg/kg

Rationale: In cases of deep block, indicated by 1-2 post-tetanic counts and no twitches upon TOF stimulation, the dose of the selective relaxant-binding agent should be increased to 4 mg/kg.

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18
Q

The dosing of a selective relaxant-binding agent is contingent upon what aspect of neuromuscular blockade?

A) The specific agent used
B) The time since the last dose of relaxant
C) The depth of neuromuscular blockade
D) The preference of the anesthesiologist

A

Answer: C) The depth of neuromuscular blockade

Rationale: The dose of a selective relaxant-binding agent, as outlined in the slide, depends on the depth of the neuromuscular blockade, assessed by the presence and number of twitches in response to TOF stimulation.

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19
Q

The presence of the second twitch (T2) in a TOF stimulation suggests what depth of blockade and subsequent dosing of the reversal agent?

A) Light block, 1 mg/kg
B) Moderate block, 2 mg/kg
C) Deep block, 2 mg/kg
D) Deep block, 4 mg/kg

A

Answer: B) Moderate block, 2 mg/kg

Rationale: The slide indicates that if the second twitch (T2) is observed upon TOF stimulation, it is indicative of a moderate block, and the dosing should be 2 mg/kg for the selective relaxant-binding agent.

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20
Q

What is the recommended dose range of Sugammadex for reversing an extreme block?

A) 2 to 4 mg/kg
B) 4 to 8 mg/kg
C) 8 to 16 mg/kg
D) 16 to 32 mg/kg

A

Answer: C) 8 to 16 mg/kg

Rationale: The slide specifies that for an extreme block, a higher dose range of 8 to 16 mg/kg of Sugammadex is recommended.

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21
Q

Recurarization refers to the return of neuromuscular blockade after initial reversal. According to the information provided, when is recurarization observed with Sugammadex?

A) At any dose
B) At lower than recommended doses
C) At appropriate doses
D) Recurarization is not observed at appropriate doses

A

Answer: D) Recurarization is not observed at appropriate doses

Rationale: The slide indicates that recurarization is not observed when Sugammadex is used at appropriate doses, suggesting that dosing within the recommended range is critical for a sustained reversal of neuromuscular blockade.

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22
Q

According to the graph, what is the median recovery time to a TOFR of 0.9 after administration of 2 mg/kg Sugammadex?

A) 1.4 minutes
B) 2.15 minutes
C) 12 minutes
D) 17 minutes

A

Answer: A) 1.4 minutes

Rationale: The graph shows that the median (Q1, Q3) recovery time to a TOFR of 0.9 for Sugammadex is 1.4 minutes, with the first and third quartiles being 1.2 and 1.7 minutes respectively.

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23
Q

What does the cumulative recovery rate indicate in this graph?

A) The proportion of patients who have reached a TOFR of 0.9 at each time point
B) The total number of patients who received Sugammadex or neostigmine
C) The average dose of Sugammadex or neostigmine administered
D) The likelihood of experiencing adverse reactions to Sugammadex or neostigmine

A

Answer: A) The proportion of patients who have reached a TOFR of 0.9 at each time point

Rationale: The cumulative recovery rate in the graph illustrates the proportion of patients who have reached a TOFR of 0.9 over time after receiving either Sugammadex or neostigmine.

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24
Q

When comparing the recovery times of Sugammadex and neostigmine, which statement is true based on the graph?

A) Recovery times are faster with neostigmine than with Sugammadex.
B) Recovery times for Sugammadex and neostigmine are approximately the same.
C) Recovery times are faster with Sugammadex than with neostigmine.
D) Neostigmine has a more consistent recovery time compared to Sugammadex.

A

Answer: C) Recovery times are faster with Sugammadex than with neostigmine.

Rationale: The graph demonstrates a steeper curve for Sugammadex, indicating faster recovery times to reach a TOFR of 0.9 compared to the more gradual curve for neostigmine.

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25
Q

Which of the following is a dose-related side effect of Sugammadex?

A) Hyperglycemia
B) Pruritus
C) Hypertension
D) Dizziness

A

Answer: B) Pruritus

Rationale: According to the first slide, pruritus is listed as a dose-related side effect of Sugammadex.

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26
Q

After reversing rocuronium with Sugammadex, how long should one wait before re-administering rocuronium if additional neuromuscular blockade is needed?

A) Immediately
B) 5 minutes
C) 1 hour
D) 4 hours

A

Answer: B) 5 minutes

Rationale: The second slide recommends a minimum waiting time of 5 minutes before re-administering rocuronium at a dose of 1.2 mg/kg after reversal with Sugammadex.

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27
Q

What is the advised dose of rocuronium if re-administration is necessary 4 hours after reversal with Sugammadex?

A) 1.2 mg/kg
B) 0.6 mg/kg
C) 0.1 mg/kg vecuronium
D) 2.0 mg/kg

A

Answer: B) 0.6 mg/kg

Rationale: The second slide indicates that if re-administration of rocuronium is required 4 hours after reversal with Sugammadex, the dose should be 0.6 mg/kg.

28
Q

If neuromuscular blockade is needed before the recommended waiting time has elapsed after Sugammadex administration, what type of NMBA should be used?

A) An aminosteroidal NMBA
B) A nonsteroidal NMBA
C) An anticholinergic NMBA
D) Any type of NMBA is acceptable

A

Answer: B) A nonsteroidal NMBA

Rationale: The second slide suggests that if neuromuscular blockade is needed before the recommended waiting time has elapsed, a nonsteroidal neuromuscular blocking agent should be used.

29
Q

How long should a patient potentially wait before relying on oral contraceptives for efficacy after administration of Sugammadex?

A) 24 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 7 days
D) 14 days

A

Answer: C) 7 days

Rationale: The slide indicates that Sugammadex binds with progesterone, a hormone commonly found in oral contraceptives, and this binding can last for 7 days, potentially reducing the efficacy of oral contraceptives.

30
Q

What effect does the drug toremifene have when administered in conjunction with Sugammadex?

A) It enhances the effect of Sugammadex.
B) It has no interaction with Sugammadex.
C) It displaces neuromuscular blocking drugs (NMBDs) from Sugammadex.
D) It prolongs the action of NMBDs.

A

Answer: C) It displaces neuromuscular blocking drugs (NMBDs) from Sugammadex.

Rationale: Toremifene, a non-steroidal anti-estrogen, can displace NMBDs from Sugammadex complexes, which could potentially reverse the action of Sugammadex and lead to inadequate reversal of neuromuscular blockade.

31
Q

Sugammadex administration should be used with caution in patients with coagulopathy because it may interact with:

A) Antibiotics
B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
C) Heparin/Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH)
D) Corticosteroids

A

Answer: C) Heparin/Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH)

Rationale: According to the slide, patients on Heparin or LMWH, which can affect coagulation, may have altered responses to Sugammadex as evidenced by elevated PTT, PT, and INR.

32
Q

What is a potential risk when Sugammadex is administered in doses lower than recommended?

A) Hypertension
B) Recurarization
C) Tachycardia
D) Hyperthermia

A

Answer: B) Recurarization

Rationale: The slide cautions that administering Sugammadex at lower than recommended doses may lead to recurarization, which is the return of muscle paralysis after initial recovery from neuromuscular blockade.

33
Q

A 66-year-old patient with a significant smoking history and advanced pulmonary disease is undergoing surgery for the removal of a vocal cord polyp. Post-operatively, after the reversal of neuromuscular blockade, the patient exhibits difficulties with breathing and does not improve despite oxygen administration. What is the most appropriate immediate action for the healthcare team?

A) Wait and observe the patient as the effects of anesthesia wear off.
B) Administer a bronchodilator to relieve possible bronchospasm.
C) Assess airway patency, breathing adequacy, and circulation (ABCs) and prepare for possible reintubation.
D) Prescribe antibiotics to prevent post-operative pneumonia.

A

Answer: C) Assess airway patency, breathing adequacy, and circulation (ABCs) and prepare for possible reintubation.

Rationale: Given the patient’s immediate post-operative breathing difficulty, it is crucial to assess airway patency, breathing, and circulation, which are the primary concerns following extubation, and prepare for reintubation if necessary, especially considering the patient’s history of advanced pulmonary disease.

34
Q

n a post-surgical scenario, a patient becomes apneic and re-intubation is performed, yet the end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) waveform is weak. The patient then develops bradycardia with no bilateral breath sounds (BBS). What does this most likely indicate about the patient’s condition?

A) The patient is experiencing a normal reaction to succinylcholine.
B) The patient has developed a pneumothorax due to re-intubation.
C) The endotracheal tube may be incorrectly placed, leading to inadequate ventilation.
D) The patient has a reversible tracheal obstruction that can be managed with medication.

A

Answer: C) The endotracheal tube may be incorrectly placed, leading to inadequate ventilation.

Rationale: Weak ETCO2 waveform after re-intubation, combined with the development of bradycardia and absence of BBS, strongly suggests that the endotracheal tube may not be correctly placed in the trachea, which would lead to inadequate ventilation and oxygenation.

35
Q

What was a significant finding in the 1995 study by Baillard et al. regarding the management of neuromuscular blockade?
A. The introduction of a new neuromuscular blocking agent (NMBA)
B. A high incidence of postoperative residual neuromuscular blockade
C. The use of advanced neuromuscular monitoring techniques
D. The implementation of new protocols for the reversal of neuromuscular blockade

A

Answer: B
Rationale: The 1995 prospective study by Baillard et al. found a high incidence (33%) of postoperative residual neuromuscular blockade when no intraoperative neuromuscular (NM) monitoring or reversal was used.

36
Q

Which of the following is an important conclusion that can be drawn from the studies mentioned in the slide about the use of neuromuscular blockade monitoring?
A. Routine neuromuscular monitoring is not necessary with newer non-depolarizing NMBAs.
B. Neuromuscular monitoring and appropriate reversal reduce the risk of postoperative residual neuromuscular blockade.
C. The incidence of postoperative residual neuromuscular blockade remained constant from 1995 to 2004.
D. Vecuronium does not require monitoring due to its short duration of action.

A

Answer: B
Rationale: The studies from 2000, 2002, and 2004, which used NM monitoring and reversal, showed a significant decrease in postoperative residual NM blockade from 33% to 4%, demonstrating the importance of monitoring and reversal in reducing the risk of residual blockade.

37
Q

What implications might the findings of Baillard et al. have for clinical practice?
A. Monitoring with a twitch monitor may be less important than previously thought.
B. Negative inspiratory pressure testing should be the gold standard for monitoring.
C. Train-of-four (TOF) and tetanic stimulations are preferred methods of monitoring over double burst stimulation.
D. Residual neuromuscular blockade has minimal impact on postoperative outcomes.

A

Answer: C
Rationale: Given the importance of accurately assessing neuromuscular function to prevent residual blockade, TOF and tetanic stimulations are suggested as the clinically preferred methods of monitoring, as indicated by the additional information provided.

38
Q

Which of the following intermediate-acting NMBDs has the lowest ED95, suggesting a higher potency at the neuromuscular junction?
A. Rocuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Cisatracurium

A

Answer: D
Rationale: Cisatracurium has an ED95 of 0.04 mg/kg, which is lower than that of the other intermediate-acting NMBDs listed, indicating higher potency at the neuromuscular junction.

39
Q

Which drug from the list would likely require the least amount in milligrams for intubation?
A. Rocuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Mivacurium

A

Answer: B
Rationale: Vecuronium has an intubating dose of 0.1 mg/kg, which is the lowest among the drugs listed, making it likely to require the least amount in milligrams for intubation compared to the others

Roc: 0.6mg/kg
Atracurium: 0.5mg/kg
Mivacron: 0.15mg/kg

40
Q

Considering the intermediate-acting NMBDs, which drug has the shortest time to maximum block after an intubating dose?
A. Rocuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Cisatracurium

A

Answer: A
Rationale: Rocuronium has a time to maximum block of 1.7 minutes, which is the shortest time among the intermediate-acting NMBDs listed.

41
Q

If a clinician desires a short-acting NMBA for a procedure expected to last less than 20 minutes, which drug would be the most appropriate choice based on the clinical duration of response?
A. Rocuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Mivacurium

A

Answer: D
Rationale: Mivacurium has a clinical duration of response of 16.8 minutes, which makes it the most appropriate choice for a short procedure as per the drugs listed.

12-20 from our last slides

42
Q

When comparing the dose-response relationships for NMBDs, what does a lower ED50 value indicate about a drug’s potency?
A. It suggests that the drug has a faster onset of action.
B. It indicates a longer duration of action.
C. It implies that the drug is more potent, requiring a lower dose to achieve 50% of the maximal effect.
D. It means that the drug has a higher likelihood of causing side effects.

A

Answer: C
Rationale: ED50 is the dose of drug that produces 50% of the maximal effect. A lower ED50 value indicates that less of the drug is needed to achieve half of the maximal effect, implying higher potency.

43
Q

Which of the following NMBA reversal agents works by a mechanism different from the others listed?
A. Edrophonium
B. Neostigmine
C. Pyridostigmine
D. Sugammadex

A

Answer: D
Rationale: Sugammadex works by encapsulating the steroidal neuromuscular blocking agents, such as rocuronium, effectively reversing their effect, while the others are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors which increase the amount of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.

44
Q

When using neostigmine as a reversal agent for non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade, which of the following anti-cholinergic agents will typically be co-administered to counteract muscarinic side effects?
A. Sugammadex
B. Atropine Sulfate
C. Pyridostigmine
D. Edrophonium
E. Glycopyrrolate

A

Answer: E
Rationale: Glycopyrrolate is an anti-cholinergic agent often co-administered with neostigmine to counteract its muscarinic side effects such as bradycardia.

45
Q

A clinician chooses to use physostigmine for the reversal of neuromuscular blockade. Considering the pharmacodynamics of the listed agents, what is a potential reason for this choice?
A. Physostigmine crosses the blood-brain barrier and may be used to reverse central anticholinergic syndrome.
B. Physostigmine is the longest-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor available.
C. Physostigmine has no muscarinic side effects.
D. Physostigmine is a steroidal compound that reverses blockade by encapsulation.

A

Answer: A
Rationale: Physostigmine is unique among the acetylcholinesterase inhibitors in that it can cross the blood-brain barrier and is used to treat central anticholinergic syndrome, which may occur with the use of certain anesthetic agents.

46
Q

Which of the following anti-cholinergic agents is preferred to counteract the bradycardic effects of NMBA reversal agents due to its limited ability to cross the blood-brain barrier?
A. Sugammadex
B. Atropine Sulfate
C. Glycopyrrolate
D. Pyridostigmine

A

Answer: C
Rationale: Glycopyrrolate is preferred over atropine when counteracting the muscarinic effects of NMBA reversal agents because it has a limited ability to cross the blood-brain barrier, thus causing fewer central nervous system effects.

47
Q

Which of the following is an important consideration when choosing an NMBA reversal agent in clinical practice?
A. The choice of NMBA reversal agent is solely based on the duration of the surgical procedure.
B. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as neostigmine should be avoided in procedures involving the central nervous system.
C. The specific NMBA used for muscle relaxation will influence the choice of the reversal agent.
D. Sugammadex is equally effective in reversing blockade from all types of NMBA.

A

Answer: C
Rationale: The specific NMBA used for muscle relaxation will dictate the choice of reversal agent, as different reversal agents are effective against specific types of NMBAs. For example, sugammadex is specifically used to reverse the effects of steroidal NMBAs such as rocuronium and vecuronium.

48
Q

Which of the following NMBD reversal agents has a mechanism of action that directly increases the availability of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction?
A. Sugammadex
B. Atropine Sulfate
C. Neostigmine
D. Glycopyrrolate

A

Answer: C
Rationale: Neostigmine, an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine, thereby increasing its availability at the neuromuscular junction and cholinergic synapses.

49
Q

Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released by preganglionic neurons in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. The action of neostigmine will:
A. Decrease neurotransmission at these sites due to competitive inhibition.
B. Have no effect on preganglionic sites due to selective action at the NMJ.
C. Potentially increase neurotransmission at these sites due to increased ACh levels.
D. Act selectively on the parasympathetic nervous system only.

A

Answer: C
Rationale: Neostigmine inhibits acetylcholinesterase, resulting in increased levels of acetylcholine, which can enhance neurotransmission at both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic sites.

50
Q

The “ceiling effect” mentioned in the slide refers to:
A. The maximum effect an NMBA can achieve regardless of dose increases.
B. A limitation in the maximum dose that can be safely administered for reversal.
C. The peak level of muscle weakness that can be achieved with an NMBA.
D. The point at which additional doses of reversal agents will not result in further neuromuscular recovery.

A

Answer: D
Rationale: The “ceiling effect” in the context of NMBD reversal agents like neostigmine implies that beyond a certain dose, additional doses will not lead to more neuromuscular recovery, and may instead produce side effects related to excessive acetylcholine.

Neostigmine max: 40 to 70 µg/kg range
Edrophonium max: 1 mg/kg range

51
Q

In the context of reversing neuromuscular blockade, why is it important to assess the number of twitches or tetanic responses before administering reversal agents like neostigmine?
A. To ensure that the patient is fully paralyzed and requires complete reversal.
B. To confirm that the patient is not already reversing from the neuromuscular blockade naturally.
C. To determine if there is enough residual neuromuscular activity to ensure that the reversal agent will be effective.
D. To decide if an anticholinergic agent should be administered concurrently.

A

Answer: C
Rationale: The presence of twitches or a tetanic response to stimulation indicates that there is still transmission occurring at the neuromuscular junction, which means that reversal agents like neostigmine will be effective. If there are no twitches or tetanic potentiation, the blockade may be too deep, and the reversal agent may not work effectively.

52
Q

Which factor is NOT directly related to the efficacy of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors in reversing neuromuscular blockade?
A. The lipophilicity of the NMBA used
B. The dose of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor administered
C. The depth of neuromuscular blockade at the time of reversal
D. The rate of plasma clearance of the NMBA

A

Answer: A
Rationale: While the lipophilicity of an NMBA can affect its distribution and metabolism, it is not directly related to the efficacy of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. The dose of the inhibitor, the depth of blockade, and the rate of plasma clearance are the main factors that influence the reversal of neuromuscular blockade by acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.

53
Q

In the context of neuromuscular blockade and its reversal, why is it important to consider the choice and depth of anesthesia?
A. Some anesthetic agents may potentiate the effects of NMBAs and impact reversal.
B. All anesthesia agents have anticholinesterase properties that can reverse NMBAs.
C. Anesthetic agents determine the rate of plasma clearance of NMBAs.
D. The depth of anesthesia is inversely proportional to the need for NMBA reversal.

A

Answer: A
Rationale: Certain anesthetic agents can potentiate the neuromuscular blocking effects of NMBAs, which can influence the depth of blockade and may impact the effectiveness of reversal agents. Understanding the interaction between anesthetic agents and NMBAs is essential for effectively reversing neuromuscular blockade.

54
Q

Which of the following muscle relaxants has the longest duration of action, potentially impacting the strategy for postoperative reversal?
A. Succinylcholine
B. Cisatracurium
C. Rocuronium
D. Pancuronium

A

Answer: D
Rationale: Pancuronium has a duration of 60-120 minutes, which is the longest among the options provided. This longer duration of action may require a different strategy for postoperative reversal, taking into account the time frame within which the effects of the NMBA need to be reversed.

55
Q

A 41-year-old female weighing 100 kg is to be administered neostigmine for reversal of neuromuscular blockade. Given that she has 2/4 twitches from TOF, which of the following doses of neostigmine would be appropriate to administer?
A. 2 mL
B. 4 mL
C. 5 mL
D. 7 mL

A

Correct Answer:
C. 5 mL

Rationale:
Use 50 mcg/kg as dose.
5000mcg
5mg
5mL

55 µg/kg×100 kg=5000 µg or 5 mg. Since neostigmine is available at 1 mg/mL, you would administer 5 mL.. Make sure not to exceed the recommended maximum of 70 µg/kg (7 mg for a 100 kg patient) is 4 mL.

56
Q

Considering the onset of action (OOA) of edrophonium and neostigmine, which agent would be preferable if immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade is required?
A. Edrophonium, due to its OOA of 1 to 2 minutes
B. Neostigmine, because its OOA is 5 to 10 minutes
C. Both are equally effective as their OOA overlaps at 2 minutes
D. The choice should be based solely on the dose administered, not OOA

A

Correct Answer:
A. Edrophonium, due to its OOA of 1 to 2 minutes

Rationale:
Edrophonium has a faster onset of action (1 to 2 minutes) compared to neostigmine (5 to 10 minutes). In a situation where immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade is required, edrophonium would be the preferable agent due to its quicker OOA.

57
Q

If a patient with no renal function requires reversal of neuromuscular blockade, what percentage of the NMBA reversal agent’s clearance is expected to be hepatic for neostigmine?
A. 25%
B. 30 to 50%
C. 50%
D. 75%

A

Correct Answer:
B. 30 to 50%

Rationale:
As the slide states, if there is no renal function, 30 to 50% of neostigmine is expected to be cleared hepatically. This indicates that neostigmine, and potentially other NMBA reversal agents, will be cleared by the liver if the kidneys are not functioning

57
Q

In a patient with chronic renal failure (CRF), which NMBA reversal agent is likely to have the most prolonged duration of action due to decreased plasma clearance?
A. Neostigmine
B. Pyridostigmine
C. Edrophonium
D. Sugammadex

A

C. edrophonium, 80% renal excreted while neo is 50%..

58
Q

A 70 kg patient with a history of cardiac disease is undergoing surgery requiring neuromuscular blockade. At the conclusion of the surgery, the anesthesiologist plans to reverse the blockade using neostigmine and wants to co-administer an anticholinergic agent to prevent bradycardia. Considering the patient’s cardiac history, which anticholinergic agent is preferred, and what would be the appropriate dose to administer alongside neostigmine?

A. Atropine at a dose of 0.49 to 0.7 mg
B. Glycopyrrolate at a dose of 0.49 to 1 mg
C. Atropine at a dose of 4.9 to 7 mg
D. Glycopyrrolate at a dose of 0.49 to 1.05 mg

A

Correct Answer:
B. Glycopyrrolate at a dose of 0.49 to 1 mg

Rationale:
For a patient with cardiac disease, glycopyrrolate is often preferred due to its reduced cardiac side effects compared to atropine. The dose of glycopyrrolate is 7 to 15 µg/kg, and for a 70 kg patient, this would be:

Low end:
7
µg/kg
×
70
kg
=
490
µg or
0.49
mg
Low end: 7 µg/kg×70 kg=490 µg or 0.49 mg
High end:
15
µg/kg
×
70
kg
=
1050
µg or
1.05
mg
High end: 15 µg/kg×70 kg=1050 µg or 1.05 mg

However, the maximum dose of glycopyrrolate is 1 mg. Therefore, given the options and considering the cardiac safety profile and maximum recommended dosage, the appropriate dose range to administer is from 0.35 mg (7 µg/kg) to 0.525 mg (which is half of the maximum dose and within the safe dosing range).

Option B falls within the correct dosing range without exceeding the maximum limit, making it the best choice among the provided options.

59
Q

What is the primary intervention for a patient with persistent neuromuscular blockade due to maximal inhibition of acetylcholinesterase?
A. Immediate administration of additional anticholinesterase agents
B. Rapid reversal with Sugammadex, regardless of the NMBA used
C. Supportive care with sedation and postoperative mechanical ventilation
D. Aggressive warming measures to reverse hypothermia

A

Correct Answer:
C. Supportive care with sedation and postoperative mechanical ventilation

Rationale:
When acetylcholinesterase is maximally inhibited, no further administration of anticholinesterase agents will be effective. The mainstay of intervention is supportive care, which includes sedation for comfort and mechanical ventilation to support breathing until the effects of the NM blockade wear off naturally.

60
Q

Which patient condition can significantly influence the reversal of NM blockade and should be optimized before attempting reversal?
A. Hyperthermia
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

A

Correct Answer:
C. Metabolic acidosis

Rationale:
Patient conditions like metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, and hypothermia can affect the pharmacodynamics of NM blockade reversal. Metabolic acidosis, in particular, can impair the effectiveness of reversal agents, and thus, optimizing the acid-base balance is crucial before attempting NM blockade reversal.

61
Q

Which factor is NOT typically considered when determining the effectiveness of NM blockade reversal?
A. The potency of the NMBA used
B. The patient’s body temperature
C. The duration of the surgical procedure
D. The type of anticholinesterase agent used for reversal

A

Correct Answer:
C. The duration of the surgical procedure

Rationale:
While the duration of the surgical procedure can affect many perioperative management decisions, it is not directly a factor in the pharmacodynamics of NM blockade reversal. Instead, factors such as the intensity of the block, the NMBA used, continued effects of volatile anesthetic agents, the choice of reversal drug, and patient-specific conditions like metabolic and respiratory acidosis and hypothermia are more directly relevant to reversal efficacy.

62
Q

What is the most appropriate course of action for a patient with profound bradycardia and suspected cholinergic crisis following administration of an anticholinesterase agent?
A. Administer more anticholinesterase agents to enhance NM reversal.
B. Provide glycopyrrolate to counteract muscarinic effects of the cholinergic crisis.
C. Immediately reverse with Sugammadex as it is unaffected by cholinergic crisis.
D. Administer calcium to increase the heart rate.

A

Correct Answer:
B. Provide glycopyrrolate to counteract muscarinic effects of the cholinergic crisis.

Rationale:
In the event of bradycardia following anticholinesterase administration, an anticholinergic agent like glycopyrrolate is used to counteract the muscarinic effects, such as bradycardia, that result from excessive acetylcholine. Sugammadex is not indicated as it does not reverse the effects of anticholinesterase agents.

63
Q

Which symptom is a clear sign of recurarization in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU)?
A. Hypertension
B. Tachycardia
C. Declining SaO2 and respiratory effort
D. Diaphoresis

A

Correct Answer:
C. Declining SaO2 and respiratory effort

Rationale:
Recurarization is characterized by a return of neuromuscular blockade, which would present as declining oxygen saturation (SaO2) due to inadequate ventilation and observable reduced respiratory effort as the muscles required for breathing become weak.

64
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a patient experiencing recurarization?
A. Immediate discharge from the PACU
B. Administration of additional anticholinesterase agents in divided doses
C. Fluid resuscitation and electrolyte correction
D. Active warming measures

A

Correct Answer:
B. Administration of additional anticholinesterase agents in divided doses

Rationale:
For a patient with recurarization, additional doses of anticholinesterase agents such as neostigmine may be required to reverse the residual neuromuscular blockade. It’s important to dose these agents cautiously and in divided doses to avoid overdosing and exacerbating cholinergic side effects.

65
Q

A patient experiences pharyngeal collapse and respiratory obstruction in the PACU. What immediate action should be taken?
A. Re-sedate the patient and provide supportive ventilation
B. Wait for the effects of the NM blockade to wear off naturally
C. Encourage the patient to try breathing deeply to overcome the obstruction
D. Administer a diuretic to reduce fluid around the airway

A

Correct Answer:
A. Re-sedate the patient and provide supportive ventilation

Rationale:
Pharyngeal collapse and respiratory obstruction are serious complications of recurarization and should be treated as a medical emergency. The patient may require re-sedation to alleviate distress and support with ventilation, such as bag-mask ventilation or re-intubation, to secure the airway and ensure adequate oxygenation.

66
Q

In the context of team/group factors, what can lead to inadequate management of NM blockade and potentially result in recurarization?
A. Excessive confidence in the patient’s ability to recover independently
B. Lack of awareness or communication about the patient’s neuromuscular status
C. Over-reliance on automated monitoring systems
D. Patient’s refusal to participate in postoperative care activities

A

Correct Answer:
B. Lack of awareness or communication about the patient’s neuromuscular status

Rationale:
Effective team communication is critical to patient safety. A lack of awareness or failure to communicate about the patient’s neuromuscular status can lead to inadequate management of NM blockade and increase the risk of recurarization. This emphasizes the importance of teamwork and communication in the perioperative setting as outlined by the AANA Research/Foundation Team.