pharm incorrects Flashcards
(218 cards)
1
Q
treatment for durg-induced parkinsons e.g. from antispychotics?
A
benztropine (an anticholinergic)
2
Q
why is erithromycin used to treat diabetes induced gatroparesis?
A
increases activity of motilin receptors
3
Q
mechanism of increasing blood delivery to brain?
A
inhibiting p-glycoprotein, a cellular efflux transporter
4
Q
DDP-4 inhibitors effect
A
increase effect of GLP1 which increase glucose dependent insulin release.
(glp1 degreaded by dipeptidyl peptidase 4 )
5
Q
how do tetracylines eg doxycyclines cause Pili Esophagitis?
A
direct mucosal injury by the drug
6
Q
which class of drugs is used to treat subarachnoid hemorrhage?
A
Calcium cannel blockers
Nimodpine
prevents cerebral vasospasm - induces cerebral vasodilation
7
Q
treatment for nausea as a result of GI insult?
treatment for vestibular nausea?
migraine associated nausea?
A
- 5HT3 receptor antagonists - eg ondansetron
vestibular nausea - antihistamines, anticholinergics
migraine associated = dopamine antagonists
8
Q
effect of chelation of tetracylines with cations such as iron?
A
decreased absorption of drug in GI tract
9
Q
signs of digoxin toxicity? most serious side effect?
A
nausea and vomting, change in colour vision, arrythmias (most serious)
10
Q
treatment for cryptococcal meningitis?
search picture of how cyrptococcus neoformans looks on india ink stain
A
amophotericin B
11
Q
treatment for shistosomiasis?
A
praziquantel - like most helminths
12
Q
effect of methadone on the heart?
A
QT prolongation -> torsades de pointes risk -> syncopes. sudden cardiac death
13
Q
treatment for oral thrush in non-immunocompromised patients?
A
nystatin
14
Q
side effect of rapid vancomycin infusion?
A
direct mast cell activation i.e without IgE
15
Q
in the presence of C1 esterase defeciency, what drugs should be avoided?
A
Ace Inhibitors e.g. captopril
16
Q
treatment for atopic dermatitis? drug mechanism?
A
topical corticosteroids -> inhibit phospholipase A2 -> inhibit leukotrienes and prostaglandins
17
Q
dextromethorpan use?
side effect?
A
cough
- serotonin syndrome when used with other serotonergic drugs e.g SSRIs
18
Q
lipoatrophy (particularly in the face) and central fat deposition is a side effect of which types of drugs?
A
HAART for HIV
19
Q
treatment for anorexia?
A
CBT
nutrional therapy
olanzapine if this fails
20
Q
treatment for bulimia nervosa?
A
CBG
nutritional therapy
+ SSRI fluoxetine
21
Q
how does binge eating disorder differ from bulimia?
binge eating disorder tretament?
A
- no appropriate compensatory behaviour for food consumed
- CBT
- behavioral weight loss therapy
- SSRI
- lisdexamphetamine - ADHD stimulant
22
Q
ADHD drugs?
A
stimulants - amphetamine, methylphenidate
non stimulants - atomoxetine
23
Q
panic disorder first line?
A
SSRIs
24
Q
side effect of methylphenidate for ADHD?
A
insomnia and decreased appetite and weight loss
25
with second generation antiphsycotics such as olanzapine and clozapine, what must you measure when patient is being treated?
fasting glucose and lipids
- risk of hyperglycemia and dyslipidemia
26
signs of alcohol intoxication? treatment?
tremor, agitation, elevated blood pressure
benzodiazepines - e.g chlordiazepoxide
27
what to monitor when patient is on clozapine (antipsychotic)
absolute neutrophil count - agranulocytosis risk
28
what can be potentiated if patients with eating disorders have their depression treated with buproprion?
siezures
29
what short term anxiolytic also has muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant effects?
benzodiazepines
30
second generation antipsychotics antagonise dopamine receptors and ___ receptors
serotonin
31
A 2 week wash out period between monamine oxidase inhibitor and SSRI prescription allows for?
monoamine oxidase regeneration
32
which opiod can precipitate opioid withdrawal symptoms?
Bupenorphine
- it is a partial agonist
- thus can bind and displace other opioids (antagonists)
- withdrawal signs = dilated pupils, diaphoresis, yawning, lacrimation, rhinorrhea
33
First line long term therapy for alcohol use disorder?
- naltrexone (opioid antagonist)
- for acute withdrawal = benzodiazepines
34
Methadone is metabolized by cytochrome P-450. so name one drug which can coause toxicity with co-administration
fluconazole
35
hypertensive crisis with ingestion of tyramine is seen with administration of which class of drugs?
monoamine oxidase inhibitors
selegeline, rasagaline, phenelzine, isocarboxazid
36
which opiod medication also has serotinergic properties and can precipitate serotonin syndrome when used with SSRIs?
Tramadol
37
name the high potency 1st generation antipsychotics. they are more likely to cause extrapyramidal side effects
Hal Tries to Fly
- Haloperidol, Trifluperazine, fluphenazine
38
signs of lithium toxicity
drug interactions that cause this?
acute= nausea. diarrhea
chronic = ataxia, tremor, agitation
NSAIDS (e.g ibuprofen)
Thiazides
ACE inhibitors
39
good reason why buspirone is used to treat GAD?
No risk of tolerance
40
why is there a risk of toxicity when you administer metformin to someone with Heart failure?
decreased perfusion of kidneys in HF -> decreased clearance of drug
41
drugs that cause SIADH? (euovalemic hyponatremia = sign)
SSRIs
carbamezapine
cyclophosphamide
42
treatment for exposure to radioactive iodine?
potassium iodide to limit iodine uptake
43
what type of drug is phenelzine?
it is a MAO inhibitor - used to treat treatment resistant depression with atypical features e.g mood reactivity, hypersomnia
44
ANP, BNP, NO and sildenafil all have what common mechansim?
increase CGMP levels
45
treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?
mechanism?
side effect
carbamezapine (antiepileptic)
blocks sodium channels
bone marrow suppression
46
treatment for pulmonary hypertension?
Bosentan (competitive antagonist of endothelin receptors)
47
when is celecoxib prefferable to other NSAIDS
in patients with history of peptic ulcer disease
48
treatment for dermatomyositis?
systemic glucocorticoids
49
Which HIV drug is contraindicated in patients with HLA-B*57:01 allelle?
Abacavir - risk of Type 4 Hypersensitivity reaction
50
Which HIV drug can damage proximal tubule of kidney and leaves glomerulus and interstitium unaffected?
Tenofivir
damage to PCT = AKI = water retention and rising creatinine
51
for acute pancreatitis and Cystic fibrosis, what medication is used in combination with pancreatic enzyme replacement?
proton pump inhibitors
52
what diuretic is used to treat calcium kidney stones? why?
hydrochlorothiazide.
it prevents renal calcium excretion by increasing reabsorption
53
describe the role of mifeprisTONE and misoprostol in pregnancy termination
- mifepristone = progesterONE antagonist = necrosis of uterine decidua
-misoprostol = prostaglandin E1 agonist = contraction and expulsion of pregnancy
*use methotrexate for ectopic pregnancy
54
which TB drug relies on bacterial catalase peroxidase for activation?
Isoniazid (INH)
55
1st line treatment for Migraines? mechanism of action?
Triptans
5HT2 agonists at trigeminovascular serotonin receptors
56
airway inflammation and airway remodelling in asthma is best inhbited by which class of drugs?
corticosteroids - fluticasone
57
key behavioural side effect of dopamine agonists used to treat Parkinsons?
impulse control disorders - gambling, compulsive buying, compulsive sexual behaviour,
mechanism - stimulation of central dopamine receptors
58
Why are amiloride or tiamterene frequently added to hydrocholorthiaziade therapy for HTN?
they are potassium sparing diuretics. they inhibit sodium channels in collecting duct. cause k+ secretion, relieve hypokalemia and muscle cramps
59
describe two groups of people to avoid using succinylcholine as a neuromuscular blocker in
Myasthenia gravis - not effective at paralysis (lack of receptors)
Acetylcholinesterase deficiency - longer paralysis
60
which antiepleptic drug is associated with SJS?
lamotrigine
61
Treatment for generalised siezures?
Atonic, tonic-clonic, myoclonic = broad spectrum e.g. levitiracetam, valproic acid
absence = ethosuximide
62
treatment for focal siezures?
narrow spectrum - phentoyin, carbamezepine, gabapentin
63
ethosuximide mechanism of action?
decreases Calcium in thalamic neurons
(gabapentin also blocks CA2+)
64
Why is epinephrine often added to lidocaine?
to induce vasoconstriciton = prolonged duration of lidocaine effect
65
effect of phentoyin, phenoparbital and carbamezapine on C-P450
antiepleptics are typically Inducers. therefore lower levels of other drugs
66
caspsiacin mechanism as a topical analgesic
DEPLETION OF SUBSTANCE P
loss of membrane in noiciceptive fibres
67
what eye structure does timolol target to treat glaucoma?
ciliary epithelium -> decreases its secretion of aqueous humour
68
state 2 key side effects of succynylcholine, a neuromuscular blocking drug
hyperkalemia -> arrhythmia risk
malignant hyperthermia
69
key side effects of carbamazepine?
- diplopia, ataxia (car makes you tumble)
- siadh, agranulocytosis
70
treatment for CMV retinitis?
gangiclovir
71
which antiepileptic drug causes gingival hyperplasia?
phentoyin
72
opiates mechanism of action?
close presynaptic calcium channels = decreased excitatory neurotransmitter release
OPEN, post-synaptic potassium channels = membrane hyperpolarization
73
which medication can cause a bluish discolouration of vision and monocular vision loss?
PD5-inhibitors, eg sildenafil, tadalafil
74
effect inhaled anaesthetics on the brain?
increase cerebral blood flow -> can result in ICP
75
why is dypenhydramine often co-administered with metocllopramide for migraines with nausea
metoclopramide blocks dopamine receptors and can cause acute dystonic reactions
dypenhydramine helps prevent abnormal motor reaction as it is anticholinergic
76
treatments for painful diabetic neuropathy?
TCAS - amytriptiline
SNRIs - duloxetine, venlafaxine
gapapentoids
77
why is acetazolamide often added on to loop diuretic therapy?
it is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, causes metabolic acidosis and there for treats metabolic alkalosis induced by loop diuretics like furosemide
78
name a drug that can increase cardiac contractility whilst decreasing pepripheral resistance
isoproterenol -> both beta 1 and 2 agonist activity
79
mechanism of phentermine for weight loss?
sympathomimetic
other similar drugs -> diethylproprion
80
which class of antiarrythmics are efficient in inhibiting ischemia induced ventricular arrhythmia
Class 1B antiarrythmics like lidocaine
81
yellow vision is a sign of which cardiac drug?
digoxin
82
niacin can be used to treat which cardiovascular condition? side effects of use?
hyperlipidemia
- causes flushing via prostaglandins, avoid by co-administration of NSAIDS
83
increased risk of cataracts in people with SLE is primarily due to?
chronic corticosteroid exposure - e.g. prednison
84
do water soluble drugs reach higher concentrations in adults or neonates?
adults
neonates have a higher body water content
85
key side effects of amiodarone?
pulmonary fibrosis
grey corneal deposits
grey-blue skin discolouration
hypo/hyperthyroidism
CYP450 inhibitor
86
drug of choice for quick termination of SVTs?
adenosine
87
drug of choice for torsades de pointes termination?
magnesium
88
nitroprusside toxicity manifests as what?
cyanide toxicity
nitropruside used for hypertensive emergency
89
effects of beta 2 agonists on potassium
hypokalemia
cause intracellular shift
increases activity of Na+ K+ Atpase pump
90
key side effect of manitol
pulmonary edema due to rapidly increased intravascular volume -> increased pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure
91
Which two classes of diuretics cause hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis?
how can you distinguish them using lap results?
loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics
loop diuretics cause hypocalcemia
thiazide diuretics cause hypercalcemia and hyponatremia
92
treatment for post-operative urinary retention?
Bethanechol
93
measurement of which ion is most important in determining the cause of metabolic alkalosis?
chloride
94
acetaminophen overdose drug?
mechanism of action?
N-acetylcysteine - increases intrahepatic gluthione stores and facilitates NAPQI detoxification
95
Hyperthyoidism drugs? side effects
PTU - hepatotoxic
methimazole - teratogenic (ptu preffered in first trimester)
96
class 3 antiarrhythmic drugs side effects
Torsade de pointes (ibuletide, dofetilide, soltalol)
bradycardia, hepatotoxicity thyroid dysfunction = amiodarone
97
effect of antibiotics/disruption of intestinal flora on warfarin activity?
increases warfarin activity/ prolonged INR
antibiotics distrupt vitamin-K producing intesitnal flora
98
what drug is used to prevent iron related cardiotoxicity/ heart failure in patients recieving chronic blood transfusions?
deferoxamine
99
side effect of hydroxyurea
inhibits dna synthesis so can cause rbc macrocytosis or pancytopenia
100
what substances has the fastest reversal of warfarin effects?
Fresh frozen plasma
(Vitamin K works but is slower)
101
Heparin overdose treatment?
Protamine
102
treatment for multiple myeloma?
bortezomib
levalidomide -> binds transcription factors -> degraded by proteosomes
103
in addition to INR, what lab values are used to monitor warfarin treatment?
PT - warfarin inhibits vitamin K action on clotting factors such as FACTOR 7.
104
What value is used to measure Heparin treatment?
PTT
105
how does a BCL-2 inihibitor cause cancer death?
cytochrome c is released which activates caspases, causing apoptosis
106
desmopressin mechanism of action for hemophila treatment
increases endothelial secretion of vWF (a protein)
107
distinguish TCA overdoses symptoms from Opiate withdrawal and cocaine overdose
cocaine and opiate withdrawal both cause hypertension vs hypotension seen with TCA
108
what medications can be used to treat BPH AND HTN at the same time
alpha 1 blockers - doxazosin, prazosin etc
109
side effect of erythropeoitin stimulating agents (eg erythropoeitin) used to treat anemia of chronic disease e.g CKD?
HTN, thromboembolism
110
in addition to anti-inflammatory effects, why are inhaled corticosteroids helpful in treating asthma?
increase beta 2 receptor expression
111
mechanism of anticholinergics in inducing heat stroke
impaired diaphoresis = impaired dissipation of heat
112
ezetimibe mechanism of action
reduces intestinal absorption of cholesterol
113
first line treatment for arsenic poisoning
Dimercarpol
114
which asthma drugs limit the interaction of inflammatory mediators with cell surface receptors
leukotriene receptor antagonists
e.g monteleukast
115
what beta blocker is used to treat MI in a patient with a history of asthma or COPD?
metoprolol (cardioselective)
116
Hartnups disease which causes ataxia and neutral amino aci
117
do hemoglobin molecules release h+ or Cl- as they become saturated?
H+
118
what medications can you use to lower BP without affedcting heart rate?
nondyhydropine CCBS - Nifedipine, amlodipine
119
beta blocker posioning treatment?
glucagon
120
eosophageal varices management?
somatostatin and octreotide - ihibit hormones that induce vasodilation
121
treatment for 21 alpha hydroxylase deficiency?
corticosteroids to suppress ACTH
122
cause of oropharyngeal ulcers in a patient being treated for Hyperthyrodism?
drug induced granulocyte suppression
123
name sulfonyureas (side effect hypoglycemia)
glyburide, glymepiride
124
raloxifene when used to treat osteoporosis can result in?
venous thromboembolism -> it is an estrogen agonist
125
persistent hypothyroidism when treatment of congenital hypothyroidism with Levothyroxine may be due to?
poor intestinal absorption
126
feared side effect of thyrotoxicosis due to too much levothyroxine intake or hyperthyoridism?
atrial fibrillation
127
why are burn victims treated with oxandrolone, a testosterone analogue?
to decrease protein catabolism
128
how does clonidine, an antihypertensive cause syncope?
decreases presynaptic release of norepinephrine
129
in patients with diabetes AND HTN, to reduce risk of CKD, which hypertensive drugs do you use?
Ace inhibitors or ARBS
130
feared side effect of fibrinolytic therapy for MI?
intracerebral hemorrhage -> neurologic deterioration seen -> comatose
131
rapid infusion of vancomycin can result in?
flushing, pruritus, erythema (histamine release)
132
side effect of direct arteriolar casodilators that lower blood pressure? e.g. hydralazine minoxidil
sympathetc activity triggers RAAS -> edema.
give with diuretics
133
nitrates are synthesised from? and affect which blood vessels the most?
arginine
large veins -> vasodilate -> reduced venous return -> decrease in left ventricular end diastolic volume
134
how to prevent tissue necrosis with norephinephrine iV infection?
alpha blockers like phentolamine
135
what drugs should you avoid in patients with HOCM?
drugs that decrease left ventricular volume because they worsen left ventricular outflow tract obstruction
e.g. nitrates!! - deceases preload
hydralazine (decreases afterload)
CCBS, Ace inhibitors - decrease both
136
rapid vs long term treatment for rheumatoid arthritis?
rapid = NSAIDS, Glucocorticoids (prednisone)
long term = DMARDS (methotrexate, sulfazalazine)
137
how to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis following chemotherapy administration?
mesna - binds acrolein
138
which antibiotic can cause serotonin syndrome when combined with SSRIS?
linezolid
139
treatment for HPV genital warts?
imiquimod
140
which class of diuretics are recommeneded for patients with HTN and osteoporsis?
Thiazide -> calcium sparing
141
effect of the selective b1 blocker atenonlol?
decreased CAMP in cardiac cells and juxtaglomerular cells.
vascular smooth muscle not affected
142
unllike ace inhibtiors, ARBs and ARBs, digoxin is a symptomatic treatment only and is not associated with improved usrvival in HFreF
143
Which diabetic drugs favour weight loss?
GLP-1
SGLT 2
144
effect of cinacalcet?
effect of sevalamer?
decreases pTH release
decreases absorption of phosphate
145
post-operaitve hypocalcemia can be treated with?
calcitriol (vitamin D)
146
addition of carbidopa to levodopa can avoid most side effects of parkinsons treatment except?
central/CNS side effects - e.g. anxiety and agitation
147
CEA levels in cancer are used for?
monitoring for residual disease or recurrence
148
inhaled anaesthetics may cause fulminant hepatitis
149
Cholesterol gallstones treatment?
bile acid supplement eg ursodeoxycholic acid
150
rifaximin mechanism for treating hepatic encephalopathy?
decreased intraluminal production of ammonium
151
loperamide mechanism of action
binds opiate receptor in gut wall. reduces release of prostaglandins. used to treat ibs
152
treatment for wilsons disease? mechanism?
- penicillamine
- chelating agent - increases copper urinary excretion
153
corticosteroids suppresses total HPA axis by suppressing CRH
154
most feared side effect of lamotrigine?
rash
SJS
155
constipation is a common side effect of which drugs?
non dihidrpine CCBS - dilitiazem, verapamil
Iron tablets
opiods
FHT3 antagonists
anticholinergic agents including TCAs and haloperidol
156
name an opiod drug that can be used to treat constipation without causing withdrawal symptoms
methylnatrexone
157
why are magnesium and aluminum hydroxide combined in antacids?
to curb side effects = diarrhea and constipation respectively
158
glucocorticoids used for treatment of SLE for instance can trigger what in adrenals?
bilateral cortical atrophy - suppression of HPA axis
159
recap microbiology drugs
160
which enzyme activates 6-mercatopurine and which enzyme inactivates it?
HGPRT - activates
Xathine oxidase and TPMT - deactivates
161
mechanism of timolol used to treat glaucoma?
beta adrenergic blocker
162
treatment for gallstones?
1st line = cholescytectomy
2nd line = ursodeoxycholic acid/ ursodiol (a bile acid) which inhibits biliary cholesterol secretion
163
Mutiple sclerosis treatment and mechanism of drugs
b interferon -> stop relapses and progression
Baclofen (GABA agonist) -> treat muscle spasms
164
164
seconds after an injury, bleeding can stop because of?
localised secretion of endothelin
165
ppi mechanism of action
block HCL secretion in stomach by blocking gastrin, ACh and histamine action
166
name an opiod that can be used to treat diarrhea without crossing BBB
loperamide
167
Senna and Bisacodyl mechanism of action in treating constipation?
Stimulate enteric nerve -> peristalsis
168
acicyclovir mechanism of action?
inhibits DNA replication
169
succinylcholine can cause a prolonged muscular blockade
170
cromolyn and nedrocromil mechanism of action asthma treatment
inhibit mast cell degranulation
171
which IV fluids are given in shock?
0.9% saline or Lactate Ringer Solution
172
why is ketamine useful as an anesthetic in a patient with asthma and bronchospasm?
sympathomimetic activity -> releases catecholamine -> bronchodilation
173
give an example of a benzodiazepine that can be used to treat panic disorder
Alprazolam
174
treatment for BV?
clindamycin or metronidazole
175
name an antihypertensive that can cause peripheral edema
amlodipine
176
milrinone mechanism of action in heart failure
PDE-3 enzyme inhibitor
increases ca2+ influx in myocytes = increased contractility
vasodilation -> decrease preload and afterload
177
lactose intolerance causes diarrhea similar to what group of drugs to treat constipation?
osmotic laxatives
178
treatment for pinworm infection?
abendazole
179
gynaecomastia in patients on androgen deprivation therapy for prostate cancer can be treated with?
Tamoxifene
180
side effect of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors like donepezil?
bradycardia, AV block -> syncope
181
digoxin mechanism of action?
decreased sodium efflux from myocardial cells
182
first generation antihistamines can cause blurring of vision due to?
anticholinergic side effects
183
describe a +ve side effect of SGLT-2 inhibitors
decrease sodium and water reasbsorption = decrease BP, amelioration of HF
184
patiromer mechanism in treating hyperkalemia?
exchanges calcium for potassium in intestine
185
name the drug used to treat ganciclovir resistant CMV that does not require intracellular activation
Foscarnet
186
lidocaine mechanism of action
blockade of sodium channels
187
patent ductus arteriosus treatment?
indomethacin = cox inhibitor -> decrease PGE2 production
188
digoxin is effective at controlling ventricular rate of A fib at rest but not with exercise why?
shift from dominant parasympathetic activity to sympathetic activity during exercise
189
name some drugs that cause drug induced lupus
procainamide, hydralazine, Isoniazid
190
Emicizumab can be used to treat hemophila A. given that it mimics factor 8, what is its mechanism?
links factors IXa and X to give Xa
191
ototoxicity can occur with which group of diuretics?
loop diuretics eg furosemide
192
describe what happens in acetaminophen overdose
- depletion of glutathione which normally conjugates N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imime (NAPQI) .
- buildup of toxic NAPQI
- acute ingestion of ethanol can help prevent overdose as it competitively inhibits cytochrome P450
- chronic ethanol ingestion however causes upregulation of p450 and increases risk of toxicity in acetaminophen overdose
193
Etoposide/teniposide mechanism of action as chemotherapy agent?
Inhibits sealing activity of Topoisomerase 2 = double stranded breaks in cancer cells
194
Side effect of Gancyclovir for CMV retinitis or colitis?
Neutropenia
195
Along with a benzodiazepine, which antiepileptic is given to prevent seizure recurrence in status epilepticus?
Phentoyin
196
Which class of diuretics results in improved survival in patients with HF?
When is it contraindicated?
Aldosterone receptor antagonist - spirinolactone, eplerenone
Contraindicated in hyperkalemia and renal failure
197
Treatment for wet, age-related macular degeneration?
Anti-VEGF
198
Fludrocortisone mechanism of action in treating primary adrenal insufficiency?
Improves hypovolemia and orthostatic hypotension by decreasing urinary sodium excretion and increasing vascular adrenergic sensitivity
199
Lenalidomide and bortezomib can be used to treat multiple myeloma. Mechanism of action for bortezomib?
Proteasome inhibitor
Blocks degradation of ubiquinated proteins -> accumulation of abnormally folded proteins/immunoglobulins -> APOPTOSIS
200
Enoxaparin binds to what in the blood?
It is a low molecular weight heparin
It binds and activates anti thrombin 3
201
Excess levodopa when treating a patient with Parkinson’s can result in?
Dyskinesia
202
Why is entacapone often co-administered with levodopa for Parkinson’s?
It inhibits COMT and therefore peripheral degradation of Levodopa. More to brain
203
Treatment for Peripheral artery disease? Mechanism?
Cilostazol - phosphodiesterase inhibitor- inhibits platelet aggregation, causes arterial vasodilation.
This should be given alongside exercise programe for symptomatic treatment.
To prevent MI or stroke in future, give antiplatelets - aspirin or clopidogrel
204
Chronic use of glucocorticoids is the highest RF for osteoporosis, why is this a greater risk than menopause?
In menopause, fracture is uncommon until about 10-15 years after cessation of menses
205
Which heart failure medications confer a mortality benefit?
Ace inhibitor
ARB
Beta blocker
Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist
SGLT-2 inhibitor
Those that do NOT
Digoxin
Furosemide, metolazone
206
Treatment for DVT in a pregnant woman
Low molecular weight heparin - enoxaparin
Not teratogenic like warfarin
207
Mirabegron, which is used to treat urge incontinence, activates which receptors?
Beta 3 adrenergic
208
What risk is faced when using non-selective beta blockers eg propranolol in patients with T1DM?
Hypoglycaemia.
Propranolol will exacerbate and mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia (except hunger)
This is mediated by norepinephrine/epinephrine
209
Effect of alpha 1 agonist on the heart?
They cause vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels
This stimulates baroreceptors in carotid sinus and aortic arch
This results in reflex increase in vagal tone
As a result = decreased atrioventricular node condition velocity
210
Why is it recommended to discontinue aspirin 5 days before surgery?
Irreversibly inhibits COX1 = decrease in platelet thromboxane A2 production
211
What medication is used to treat dermatophytosis eg tinea corporis?
Mechanism?
Terbinafine
Inhibits synthesis of ergosterol by inhibiting enzyme squalene epoxidase
212
name some drugs that can cause G6PD deficiency
antimalarials - primaquine
dapsone
fluoroquinolones - eg ciprofloxacin
Sulfa drugs
213
side effects of vincristine (a chemotherapy drug)
it inhibits axonal microtuble formation = impaired axonal transport =
peripheral neuropathy (numbness, tingling)
214
treatment for restless leg syndrome
gabapentin, pramipexole
215
treatment for Graves opthalmothapy?
glucocorticoids e.g. prednisone
216
zolpidem mechanism of action as sleep drug
nobendiazopine gaba receptor agonism
217
medication causes of aplastic anemia?
chemotherapy, immunosuppresants,
reactions to antisiezure meds, sulfonamides, nifedipine
