pharm Qs bank Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

which method avoids first pass metabolism?

A

sublingual

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2
Q

how is salbutamol given?

A

inhalation

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3
Q

which drug is totally metabolised in first pass metabolism?

A

GTN (glyceryl trinitate)

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4
Q

a quaternary ammonium compound can only be deliverd by the following route:

A

intravenous

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5
Q

which of the following statements concerning atropine is false?

A

paralyses skeletal muscle

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6
Q

the alpha adrenergic receptor antagonist phentolamine causes which one of the following effects:

A

fall in blood pressure in pheochromocytoma

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7
Q

which is a selective alpha-1 antagonist?

A

prazosin

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8
Q

which is an acetylcholine antagonist?

A

benztropine

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9
Q

what is the action of salbutamol?

A

bronchodilation

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10
Q

what is an adrenoceptor neurone blocker?

A

used as hypertensive drugs

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11
Q

which of the following is incorrect:

A

all ionised drugs are lipid soluble

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12
Q

what is the ration of distribution of aspirin across biological membrane?

A

9900:01:00

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13
Q

which drug can be absorbed from the stomach?

A

aspirin

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14
Q

what do acidic drugs bind to?

A

albumin

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15
Q

what do basic drugs bind to?

A

albumin and alpha-acid glycoprotein

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16
Q

in which process is there the introduction of groups so that is can undergo phase 2 reactions?

A

functionalisation

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17
Q

what does conjugation reactions involve?

A

generally increase in rate of excretion

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18
Q

name a drug that can proceed without phase 1 reaction?

A

temazepam

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19
Q

an usual site of excretion

A

sweat

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20
Q

which is not the fator that affects drug concentration in blood plasma?

A

conjugation

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21
Q

what is the loading dose?

A

given at the beginning of treatment as one big dose

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22
Q

which is not a factor of multiple dosing (long 0.5t)?

A

hard to maintain in therapeutic window

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23
Q

which is not a factor of multiple dosing (short 0.5t)?

A

small fluctuations between doses

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24
Q

ionisation affects

A

distribution

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25
which is not a structure of quarternary ammonium ions?
R group is not an aryl group
26
the ANS can be:
excitatory or inhibitory
27
the ANS is controlled by:
None of the above
28
the SNS can be:
excitatory only
29
the SNS is controlled by
cerebrum
30
what do SNS terminals produce?
acetylcholine
31
what do ANS terminals produce?
noradrenaline and acetylcholine
32
which divisions of the hypothalamus has direct parasympathetic innervations?
anterior and medial regions
33
which divisions of the hypothalamus has direct sympathetic innervations?
lateral and posterior regions
34
which is not a muscarinic agonist?
BDZ
35
Which is an adverse effect of alpha-2 adrenergic agonists?
hypotension
36
which is not an anti- muscarinic effect?
tremors
37
which is not a property of pyridostigmine?
tertiary ammonium
38
which cranial nerve is not involved in parasympathetic innervations?
trigeminal
39
what is the function of occulomotor nerve?
innervates four extrinsic muscles of the eye
40
what is the function of facial nerve?
innervates facial expression muscles
41
suxamethonium
is a depolarising blocker at neuromuscular junction end-plate
42
which of the following statements is correct?
physiological antagonism is exhibited by salbutamol in asthma
43
the mechanism of action of ipratropium in the treatment of asthma is:
inhibition of the effect of the vagus
44
which of the following statements is correct?
histamine release from mast cells stimulates H2 receptors on the parietal cell
45
what is the mode of action of ipratropium?
anticholinergic drug
46
which is not a property of pyridostigmine?
tertiary ammonium
47
what is the function of glossopharyngeal nerve
innervates tongue and pharynx
48
what produce acetylcholine neurotransmitter?
choline acetyl transferase (CAT)
49
excess production of acetylcholine neurotransmitter doesn't result in:
stimulation of respiratory and cardiovascular centres
50
NM junctions function by
sodium-potassium channel
51
the M1/M3/M5 receptors function by
phospholipase C
52
the M2/M4 receptors function by
cAMP
53
which cranial nerve innervates parotid salivary gland?
glossopharyngeal
54
which cranial nerve innervates parotid, iris radial muscle, and ciliary muscle?
occulomotor
55
which is the cofactor for dopa beta- hydroxylase?
Ascorbate
56
selective agonists of alpha-1 > alpha 2?
phenylephrine
57
selective agonists of alpha-2> alpha 1?
clonidine
58
selective agonists of beta-1= beta-2?
dobutamine
59
what is the resting membrane potential?
-60 to -90mV
60
where does acetylcholine neurotransmitter get broken down?
synaptic basal lamina
61
selective agonists of alpha-1, alpha-2, and beta-1?
noradrenaline
62
how does hemicholinium function?
competes with choline transporter for uptake
63
how does botulinum toxin function?
inhibits fusion of vesicles at pre-synaptic membrane
64
how does streptomycin/ tetracycline function?
calcium channel blocker
65
how does Black widow spider function?
promotes exocytosis
66
which is an example of competitive non depolarising antagonist?
tubocurare
67
which is not a side effect of depolarising blocker?
inhibits potassium release
68
which is not a clinical function of NMJ blockers?
hypothermia
69
which is eMax?
max effect
70
pAx values can only be determined for
competitive antagonists