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Pharma everything Flashcards

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1
Q

Cholinomimetic that only stimulates M1 - M3 receptors

A

Betanechol

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2
Q

Cholinomimetic that stimulates M and N receptors

A

Carbachol (carbon copy of Acetylcholine)

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3
Q

Cholinomimetic that stimulates M3 (2)

A

Pilocarpine, Cevimeline

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4
Q

Cholinomimetic that freely crosses BBB and is used to treat atropine overdose

A

Physostigmine

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5
Q

Pyridostigmine is used to treat:

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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6
Q

NMDA receptor blocker used for Alzheimer’s Dementia

A

Memantine

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7
Q

Antidote for the CNS manifestations of organophosphate poisoning

A

Atropine

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8
Q

MOA of this drug is that it regenerates active acetylcholinesterase

A

Pralidoxime

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9
Q

Muscarinic anticholinergics used to reduce tremors in Parkinson’s

A

Biperiden, Benztropine, Trihexyphenidyl

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10
Q

Muscarinic receptor antagonist used for COPD that does not cross the BBB

A

Glycopyrronium

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11
Q

Competitively blocks M3 receptors; Used for IBS

A

Dicyclomine, Hyoscyamine

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12
Q

Competitively blocks M3 receptors; reduces detrusor tone and is used for urge incontinence

A

Oxybutynin, Tolteradine

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13
Q

MOA of Ritodrine

A

Selectively activates B2 receptors

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14
Q

MOA of Midodrine

A

Selectively activates A2 receptors

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15
Q

Drugs that prevent NE and Dopamine reuptake (3)

A

TCAs, Cocaine, Atomoxetine

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16
Q

MOA of metyrosine

A

Inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase

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17
Q

Drugs that promote adrenergic hormone release (2)

A

Amphetamine

Tyramine

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18
Q

Alpha 2 agonists used for glaucoma (2)

MOA: Increases aqueous humor production

A

Apraclonidine, brimonidine

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19
Q

Sympathomimetic that is used for nasal vasoconstriction and appetite suppression but may precipitate hemorrhagic stroke (already withdrawn from the USA)

A

Phenylpropanolamine

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20
Q

Beta blockers with ISA (partial agonist activity)

A

Pindolol

Acebutolol

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21
Q

Beta blockers with no local anesthetic activity

A

Timolol

Betaxolol

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22
Q

Thiazide with vasodilator abilities but no diuretic action

A

Diazoxide

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23
Q

Antidote to rebound hypertension after clonidine intake

A

Phentolamine

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24
Q

Diuretic that can aggravate hyperammonemia among chronic liver disease patients

A

Acetazolamide

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25
Avoid reserpine and guanethidine in patients with a history of:
Depression (suicidal ideations as a side effect)
26
MOA of diazoxide
increases membrane permeability to K+, which relaxes vascular muscle cells (Also acts like this on pancreatic beta cells, which decreases insulin release)
27
Dihydropyridine that prevents vasospasm after subarachnoid hemorrhage
Nimodipine
28
D1 receptor agonist
Fenoldopam
29
Most hepatotoxic general inhalational anesthetic agent
Halothane
30
Most common adverse effects of methotrexate (2)
Nausea and mucosal ulcers
31
MOA of nesiritide
Synthetic form of BNP
32
MOA of milrinone
PDE inhibitor -> increases cAMP
33
MOA of sacubitril
Inhibits the enzyme neprilysin, which degrades ANP and BNP
34
Effect of Class I antiarrhythmics on the AP duration IA IB IC?
IA: Prolongs AP IB: Shortens AP IC: No effect
35
Quinine reduces the clearance of:
Digoxin
36
DOC for ventricular arrhythmias post-MI
Lidocaine (Class IB)
37
Class 2 antiarrhythmics act on which phase of the action potential?
Phase 4
38
Class 3 anti arrhythmics act on which phase of the action potential?
Phase 3
39
This electrolyte derangement exacerbates toxicity of Class 1A antiarrhythmics
Hyperkalemia
40
Antihistamine used for serotonin syndrome
Cyproheptadine
41
Receptor for serotonin seen in the area postrema; mediates vomiting
5HT3
42
Antidote for ergotamine overdose
Nitroprusside
43
MOA of theophylline
Adenosine receptor antagonist and PDE3 inhibitor
44
Antidote for tPA activator
Aminocaproic acid
45
Tranexamic acid is contraindicated in this fatal disease:
DIC
46
MOA of Anakinra
IL-1 pathway inhibitor
47
Clearance of isoxazolyl penicillins
Biliary
48
3rd generation cephalosporins all have renal excretion except:
Ceftriaxone | Cefoperazone
49
All 3rd gen cephalosporins penetrate the BBB except
Cefoperazone | Cefixime
50
Organisms that are not covered by Gen 1-4 of Cephalosporins
``` LAME Listeria Atypicals MRSA Enterococci ```
51
Clavulanic acid is more active against this type of beta lactamase
Plasmid-encoded (Gonoccoci, Streptococci, E. coli, H. influenzae)
52
Bacitracin is limited to topical use due to:
Nephrotoxicity
53
This drug blocks the incorporation of D-ala into the pentapeptide side chain of the peptidoglycan
Cycloserine
54
Resistance to Clindamycin is due to:
Methylation of binding sites
55
Neuromuscular blockade from aminoglycoside use is reversible using:
Calcium gluconate, neostigmine
56
Fluoroquinolones enhance the toxicity of:
Methylxanthines
57
Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the sigma subunit of RNA polymerase; Granted an orphan drug status for C. difficile
Fidaxomicin
58
Has the least effect of all azoles on hepatic enzymes
Fluconazole
59
Renal toxicity of Acyclovir
Crystalluria, interstitial nephritis
60
Antidote for acute and chronic arsenic poisoning
Dimercaprol
61
Antidote for arsine gas poisoning
Chelation has no value
62
Antidote for chronic inorganic mercury poisoning
Succimer and unithiol (Dimercaprol must NOT be used)
63
Abnormal sleep pattern that results from BZD use
Decreased REM sleep
64
Lorazepam is a ____-acting BZD
Intermediate
65
MOA of Etomidate
Modulates GABA-A receptors containing B3 subunits
66
An ultra-short acting barbiturate
Thiopental
67
Antibiotic which prevents the formation of n-acetyl muramic acid
Fosfomycin
68
Fatal reaction occurs when selegiline is used with:
Meperidine
69
Partial agonist at D3 receptors used for Parkinson's that causes severe nausea. Trimethobenzamide is advised as pre-medication to prevent severe nausea
Apomorphine
70
Local anesthetic that can cause methemoglobinemia
Prilocaine
71
Effect of thiopental on ICP
Decreases ICP
72
Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker which can cause seizures due to conversion to laudanosine
Atracurium
73
Only antipsychotic with fatal overdose
Thioridazine
74
Only antipsychotic approved for use in schizophrenia in the youth and elderly
Risperidone
75
Least sedating atypical antipsychotic
Aripiprazole
76
Treatment for lithium overdose
Dialysis
77
Codeine is metabolized by _____ to morphine
CYP2D6
78
Meperidine, when given with ______ can lead to hyperpyrexic coma
MAO inhibitors
79
Fluvoxamine is approved only for:
OCD
80
MOA of amoxepine and maprotiline
Strong NE reuptake inhibitors and weak serotonin reuptake inhibitors
81
MOA of bupoprion
Inhibits neuronal reuptake of dopamine and NE
82
Tolerance does not develop for these SEs of morphine:
Miosis, constipation
83
Weak opioid agonist withdrawn due to fatal cardiotoxicity and is commonly used in suicides
Propoxyphene
84
Examples of mixed agonist-antagonists of opioid receptors
Nalbuphine, buprenorphine, butorphanol, pentazocine, levallorphan
85
Opioid antagonist used for alcohol, nicotine, and opioid dependence
Naltrexone
86
A dual-acting opioid agonist (weak u agonist, inhibits 5HT and NE reuptak)
Tramadol
87
Only opioid that does not cause miosis and biliary contraction
Meperidine
88
MOA of glipizide
Increases insulin secretion by closing ATP-sensitive K+ channels -> depolarization of beta cells of pancreas
89
MOA of pioglitazone
Binds to PPAR-a and PPAR-y -> increase tissue sensitivity | Rosiglitazone - PPAR-y only
90
MOA of rimonabant
selectively blocks cannabinoid-1 receptors -> reduces appetite (for obesity)
91
Cancer drugs selective for the M phase
Vinblastine, vincristine, paclitaxel
92
MOA of cetuximab
Binds to EGFR and prevents signalling

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