Pharma MT1 Flashcards
(237 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following can occur at therapeutic dosage levels in healthy patients? Allergic reactions Teratogenic effects Idiosyncratic reactions All of the above can occur
A
All of the above can occur
2
Q
MRL is an acronym for: Minimum relevant level Maximum residue limit Medicine residue level Medicine registry list
A
Maximum residue limit
3
Q
Usually for mixing these types of real drugs into the medicated feedstuff, commercial feed compounders need to have a prescription for Medicated Feedstuff (Veterinary Written Direction). POM-V Pharmacy Medicines (P) Prescription only medicines (POM) AVM-GSL
A
POM-V
4
Q
Quantal dose response curves are:
Obtainable from the study of intact subjects but not from isolated tissues
Used for determining the maximal efficacy of a drug
Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug
Invalid in the presence of inhibitors of the drug studied
A
Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug
5
Q
The adhesive of the granules can be:
A
Distilled water
6
Q
Which drugs have to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in possession of a veterinarian?
A
Schedule 2 and 3 drugs
7
Q
What is the first pass effect?
A
Liver decomposes the orally applied drug
8
Q
In which book can the indications, effects, and side effects of a given drug be found?
A
British Veterinary Formulary
9
Q
The capacity of a drug to cause a particular action?
A
Specificity
10
Q
A drug that mediates the reversal of histamine bronchoconstricition (mediated at the histamine receptors) by acting at adrenoceptors (e.g epinephrine)
A
Physiologic antagonist
11
Q
Sublingual administration is useful for
A
Drugs with high first pass metabolism
12
Q
Which is the most informative name of a drug about the major ingredient?
A
Approved name
13
Q
Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?
A
Rapid dissolution from the formulation
14
Q
According to the Misuse of Drug Regulations (UK) this drug is schedule 3:
A
Pentobarbitone
15
Q
The maximal activity specific to a drug
A
Intrinsic activity
16
Q
Records should be made within 48 hours of the transaction and kept for a period of at least 5 years
A
Records on food producing animal treatments
17
Q
Which technology is appropriate for achieving a pulsatile release of an active substance in a bolus?
A
Chip controlled diaphragms
18
Q
Solid, single dose or multidose preparation for oral administration containing dry aggregates of powder particles
A
Granules
19
Q
What is the proportion of ionized vs non-ionized molecules of a weak basic drig (pKa=7.4) in the stomach (pH=3.4)?
A
10,000:1
20
Q
What “veterinary medicines regulation 2013” category can be supplied by pharmacists without prescription?
A
NFA-VPS
AVM-GSL
21
Q
This is the name given to a drug by the manufacturers that produce the drug:
A
Proprietary name
22
Q
Most appropriate method for the extraction of water soluble, heat sensitive substances from medicinal herbs
A
Extraction with ether
23
Q
Which process can move drugs against a concentration gradient?
A
Active transport
24
Q
Two drugs have been examined in animal studies, both have a therapeutic index of 2. It can be assumed that:
The dose response curves will be parallel
None of these
When given in ED50 doses, the 2 drugs are equally safe
When given at ED50 doses, no animals will be killed by the drugs
A
None of these
25
Which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule?
Glycerine
26
Frequently used vehicle in oral powders
Lactose
27
According to the Regulation fix MRL is established for some of these drugs..
Drugs in table 1
28
Which statement in NOT true for a first order, one compartment open pharmacokinetic model?
In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and/or excretion is saturated
29
At steady state the plasma concentration of a drug (Cpss) is 0.2mg/L. The total maintenance dose if the drug is applied every 8 hours?
4.8 mg
30
In this kind of prescription the proprietary name of the veterinary licensed medicine is given:
Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
31
Which one is correct? When the pKa of a drug equals the pH of the surroundings
50% ionization occurs
32
Rectal administration
Minimizes first pass metabolism
33
A drug that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all or only incidentally with the receptor
Chemical antagonist
34
According to the theory that agonists and antagonists occupy the same receptor site, an effective antagonist should exhibit:
No intrinsic activity and high affinity
35
A drug that interacts directly with the against and not at all, or incidentally with the receptor
Chemical antagonist
36
......... the largest effect a drug can produce, regardless of dose
Maximum efficacy
37
What is the approximate percentage of a weak base (pKa=8.4) in the non-ionised form in the plasma having a pH of 7.4?
10%
38
When supplying this drug. one copy of which of the following has to be kept by the registered feed compounder?
Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)
39
```
Which of the following can occur at therapeutic dosage levels in healthy patients?
Allergic reactions
Teratogenic effects (Thalidomide)
Idiosyncratic reactions
All of the above can occur
```
All of the above can occur
40
A drug licensed for humans and included in table 1, and MRL has to be established administered to dairy cattle should have a withdrawal period for milk:
At least 7 days withdrawal period
41
According to this type of medicinal substance use both sick and healthy animals are treated with a mass (population) administration:
Metaphylaxis
42
What is the proportion of ionised and non-ionised molecules of a weak acidic drug (pKa=4.4) in blood (pH=7.4)
1000:1
43
How long do the withdrawal period usually last at minimum for meat, following application of human licensed medicine?
28 days
44
How long do the withdrawal period usually last for fish at minimum, following application of a human licensed medicine?
500 degree days
45
The phenomenon in which 2 drugs produce opposite effects on a physiologic system but do not act the same at the receptor site is:
Physiologic antagonism
46
Two drugs A and B, have the same mechanism of action. Drug A in a dose of 5mg produces the same magnitude of effect as drug B in a dose of 500mg:
Drug A is 100 times more potent than drug B
47
Which substance is schedule 2 substance?
Fentanyl
48
Qualitative and quantitative determination of the medicinal substances is not introduced in:
British Veterinary Formulary
49
The LD50 of a drug is
The dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of the treated animals
50
Among the environmental factors that may harm the medicines, this stimulates the oxidation or reduction processes
Light (UV)
51
This category may play an imprtant role in the prevention of animal disease, but they are not real drugs
Biocides
52
How long do the withdrawal period usually last for eggs, following application of an official or prepared medicine?
7 days
53
Which temperature interval is valid if the drug has to be stored at a cool place?
8-15 degrees celsius
54
What is written in the inscription in the case of prepared preparations?
The name and amount of the ingredients
55
What "Medicines order 2001 UK" category can be supplied by pharmacists without any prescription?
GSL, P, PML
56
This name of medicinal substances is given by the pharmacopoeia commission to each compound:
Approved name
57
Which part of the prescription gives the farmer information on the withdrawal time?
Signature
58
Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?
Rapid dissolution from the formulation
59
Which is an example for substitution therapy?
Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hypothyroidism
60
What is characteristic for a drug molecule, which has been metabolised in the phase II of biotransformation procedure?
Losing of activity
61
Drug allergies
Can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the drug previously
62
When comparing drugs with respect to the intensity of response, the drug that produces the greatest maximum effect is the one with the highest
Efficacy
63
The pharmacist can supply these drugs only if presented with a valid prescription from the practitioner:
POM Prescription only medicine
64
The effect and side effecst of drugs, as well as the contraindications of their uses are NOT introduced well detailed in:
European Pharmacopoeia
65
The category drug like substances (non real drugs) includes:
Biocides
66
Which part of the prescription tells the pharmacist the name and formulation of the drug
Inscription
67
The oral AUC is the half that of the IV AUC value and for oral administration two fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) value of the drug?
0.25
68
Which of the follwing is an action of a non-competitive antagonist?
Decreases the maximum response to an agonist
69
Drugs may harmfully interact with useful intestinal microbes. In which species is the effect the least significant?
Dogs
70
If drug A has a greater efficacy than drug B, then Drug A...
Is capable of producing a greater maximum effect than drug B
71
A drug that blocks the action of epinephrine at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them
Pharmacological antagonist
72
In this type of prescription the prorietary name of a vet-licensed medicine is given
Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
73
Which one is incorrect? Factors maintaining drug allergy are:
Preparation with rapid absorption after IM or SC administration
74
The major part of the text must be in the veterinarian's own handwriting
Special preparation
75
This name of medicinal substances is given by the manufacturers
Proprietary name
76
The oral AUC is the 25% of that of the IV AUC value and for the IV administration two fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) value of the drug?
0.5
77
Which part of the prescription gives the owner the information about the dosages of an animal?
Signature
78
Mark the reaction, which is NOT characteristic for type I, immediate or anaphylaptic drug allergy reaction:
Immune complex formation
79
A drug licensed for humans and included in annex I and III administered to dairy cattle should have a WP for milk
At least 7 days withdrawal period
80
Vehicle in licking stones
Sodium chloride
81
How long do the withdrawal period usually last for fish at minimum, following application of an official or prepared medicine?
500 degree days
82
For which category is not true, usually it develops after repeated administration?
Idiosyncrasy
83
Which substance is a schedule 3 substance?
Phenolbarbitol/phenobarbitone
84
A dosage from appropriate for the preparation of medicated feedstuff?
Premix
85
Specific receptor antagonists can best be described as having
affinity but little or no efficacy for the receptor
86
Antagonists are drugs that
Block tissue receptor sites
87
Defined as treatment of clinically diseased animals and prevention of spreading diseases in herd
Metaphyllaxis
88
Drugs can be used as non-divided powders:
Only drugs with broad therapeutic margin
89
These drugs are always POM medicines
Controlled drugs
90
Examine the graph: what is the efficacy relationship between drug A and C?
A is more efficious
91
Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?
Rapid dissolution from the formulation
92
Which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule?
Glycerine
93
These drugs are natural compounds of practically harmless substances, which do not require a withdrawal period
Drugs in Annex II
94
At steady state the plasma concentration of a drug (Cpss) is 1mg/L. The total body clearance is (CL) 100ml/min. What is the maintenance dose if the drug is applied in every 12 hour?
72mg
95
A drug licensed for humans containing metronidazole...
Must not be use in food producing animals
96
A drug included in 2377/790EEC annex II has a WP of:
0 days
97
Which drugs are normally NOT used in veterinary practice?
Schedule 1 drugs
98
What information about any drug is included in the European Pharmacopoeia's?
Identification methods
99
In this type of prescription the name and amount of ingredients (individual components) has to be given in the inscription part
Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine
100
How long after the first use can drugs from multi dose injection bottles be used?
At most 28 days
101
Which of the following is the licensed name of the drug?
Betamox inj AUV
102
The most frequent active ingredient of intraruminal boluses
Anthelminthic
103
A drug licensed for humans and included in Annex I, administered to dairy cattle should have a WP of at least...
At least 7 days WP
104
According to the theory that agonists and antagonists occupy the same receptor site, an effective antagonist should exhibit:
No intrinsic activity and high affinity
105
A drug that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all, or only incidently with the receptor is?
Chemical antagonist
106
..... the largest effect a drug can produce, regardless of dose:
Maximum efficacy
107
What is appropriate percentage of a weak base (pKa=8.4) in the non-ionised form in the plasma having a pH of 7.4?
100%
108
When supplying this drug, one copy of which of the following has to be kept by the registered feed compounder?
Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)
109
Which of the following can occur at therapeutic dosage levels in healthy patients?
Idiosyncratic reactions
110
What is the proportion of ionised and non-ionised molecules of a weak acidic drug (pKa=4.4) in blood (pH=7.4)?
1000:1
111
How long does the withdrawal period usually last at minimum for meat, following application of a human licensed medicine?
28 days
112
The phenomenon in which two drugs produce opposite effects on a physiologic system but do not act at the same receptor site is:
Physiologic antagonism
113
Two drugs A and B, have the same mechanism of action. Drug A in a dose of 5mg produces the same magnitude of effect as drug B in a dose of 500mg:
Drug A is 100 times more potent than that of drug B
114
Which substance is schedule 2 substance ?
Fentanyl
115
Qualitative and quantitative determination of the medicinal substances is not introduced in:
British veterinary formulary
116
The LD50 of a drug is
The dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of the treated animals
117
Among the environmental factors that may harm the medicines, this stimulates the oxidation or reduction processes:
Light (UV)
118
This category may play an important role in prevention of animal disease, but they are not real drugs:
Biocides
119
How long does the withdrawal period usually last for eggs, following application of an official or prepared medicine?
7 days
120
What is written in the inscription in case of prepared preparations?
The name and the amount of the ingredients
121
What "Medicines order 2001 UK" category can be supplied by pharmacists without prescription?
P and PML
122
Quantal dose response curves are
used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug
123
This name of medicinal substances is given by the pharmacopoeia commission to each compound:
approved name
124
Which part of the prescription gives the farmer information on the withdrawal time?
Signature
125
Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?
Rapid dissolution from the formulation
126
Which is an example for substitution therapy?
Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hypothyroidism
127
Which statement is NOT true for a first order, one compartment open pharmacokinetic model?
In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated
128
A drug that mediates the reversal of histamine bronchoconstriction (mediated at histamine receptors) by acting at adrenoceptors (e.g epinephrine)
Physiologic antagonist
129
What is characteristic for a drug molecule which has been metabolised in the phase II of biotransformation procedure?
Losing activity
130
Drug allergies..
Can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the drug previously
131
When comparing drugs with respect to intensity of response, the drug that produces the greatest maximum effect is the one with the highest:
efficacy
132
The pharmacist can supply these drugs only if presented with a valid prescription from the practitioner:
Pharmacy medicines (P)
133
The effect and side effects of drugs, as well as the contraindication of their uses are NOT introduces well detailed in
European Pharmacopoeia
134
What is characteristic for a drug molecule which has been metabolised in the Phase II of biotransformation procedure?
Losing of activity
135
The category drug like substances (non real drugs) includes
Biocides
136
Which part of the prescription tells the pharmacist the name and formulation of the drug
Inscription
137
The oral AUC is the half of the IV AUC value and for oral administration two fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) value of the drug?
0.25
138
Which of the following is an action of noncompetitive antagonist?
Decreases the maximum response to an agonist
139
Qualitative and quantitative determination of the medicinal substances is not introduced in:
British veterinary formulary
140
If drug A has a greater efficacy than drug B, then drug A
is capable of producing a greater maximum effect than drug B
141
A drug that blocks the action of epinephrine at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them
Pharmacological antagonist
142
In this type of prescription the proprietary name of a vet-licensed medicine is given
Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
143
Which one is incorrect? Factors maintaining drug allergy are:
Preparation with rapid absorption after IM or SC administation
144
The effect and side effects of drugs, as well as the contraindications of their uses are NOT introduces well detailed in:
European pharmacopoeia
145
The major part of the text must be written in the veterinarians own handwriting:
Special preparation
146
This name of the medicinal substances is given by the manufacturers:
Proprietary name
147
The oral AUC is the 25% of that os the IV AUC value and for IV administration two fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) value of the drug?
0.5
148
Which part of the prescription gives the owner of an animal information on dosages?
Signature
149
Mark the reaction which is not characteristic for Type I, immediate or anaphylaptic drug allergy reaction:
Immune complex formation
150
Two drugs, A and B, have the same mechanism of action. Drug A in a dose of 5mg produces the same magnitude of effect as drug B in a dose of 500mg:
Drug A is 100 times more potent that Drug B
151
Vehicle in licking stones:
Sodium chloride
152
How long does the withdrawal period usually last for fish at minimum, following application of an official or prepared medicine?
500 degree days
153
According to the theory that agonists and antagonists occupy the same receptor site, an effective antagonist should exhibit:
No intrinsic activity and high affinity
154
For which category is not true, usually it develops after repeated administation?
Idiosyncrasy
155
Which substance is a schedule 3 substance?
Phenolbarbital
156
A dosage form appropriate for the preparation of medicated feed stuff:
Premix
157
Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?
Rapid dissolution from the formulation
158
Specific receptor antagonists can best be described as having
Affinity but little or no efficacy for the receptor
159
When are written special prescriptions and written requisitions mandatory?
For schedule 2 and 3 drugs
160
Defined as "treatment of clinically diseased animals and prevention of disease within a herd"?
Metaphylaxis
161
What information is given in the European Pharmacopoeia?
Dosage of the drug in humans
162
Decotion should be brewed for a short time
False
163
Hygroscopic drug plants can be dispensed in special jars
True
164
Undivided powders can be divided by the owner
True
165
Dispensation: the vet orders the pharmacist to prepare the number of doses required
True
166
Granules cannot be undivided
True
167
Strongly hygroscopic agents are proper ingredients of powders
False
168
Tablet is a preferable dosage form for animals
False
169
Bolus is applied when the amount of the drug given is considerable
True
170
Drugs with strong effects are not possible to use in boluses
False
171
The vehicle of a bolus can be water, alcohol or glycerine
False
172
Whether the bolus remains in the rumen for a long period or not depends on the boluses sensitivity
False
173
The disadvantage of paste formulation is that one cannot dose accurately
False
174
Glycerine and Glycol form hard mass at the top if the dispenser
False
175
Colloidal silica is an aqueous base for pastes
False
176
Halothane increases the sensitivity of the heart against catecholamines
True
177
Charbachol increases the motility of the gut and myometrium, constricts the bronchi, decreases the glandular secretion but may cause hypotension
False
178
Match the active ingredients with the active forms!
Antibiotic- powder, tablet
Adsorbent- Ointment
Antipyretic- suppository
Anthelimintic- powder and tablet
179
Match the vehicles to the dosage forms!
Light kaolin- Dusting powder (wounds) and powder
Cocoa butter- Suppository
Lactose- Bolus, tablet
Wax- ointment
180
Divide whether the ointment components are water soluble or water insoluble
```
Water soluble:
Polysorbate 60
Starch
Cetomacrogols
White gelatine
Water insoluble:
Cocoa butter
White wax
Vaseline
Cod-liver oil
Wool-fat alcohol
```
181
Match the mode of applications to the dosage forms
```
External application:
solutions
Liniments
gels
tinctures
creams
```
Oral:
Solutions
Coated tablets
Gels
Perenteral: solutions
182
Match the quality requirements of the dosage forms
Intact surface is desired: Tablet, capsule
Efficient homogenizatoin: ointment
The liquid mixture has to be clear and deposit free: solution
It can be intestinal soluble: capsule
Its shape can be biconical/elongated: tablet, capsule
183
Match the mode of applications to the dosage forms
Oral: Suspension, powder, bolus, solution, capsules
IM: solution, suspension
184
The maximal effect achieved by a drug is a measure of:
The drugs efficacy! (intrinsic activity)
185
A drug is eliminated by first-order processes. Assume 50mg of the drug is administered IV and after 6 hours, 25mg remains in the body. Approximately how much of the drug will remain in the body at 24 hours?
3mg
186
Match the drugs to the appropriate statements:
It is a sedative/ tranquilizer, it increases the effects of opioids: Acepromazine
Dilates the bronchi, but does not increase the O2 requirement and contractility of the heart: Clenbuterol
It is a significant analgesic and sedative, it decreases the contractility of muscles, according to the therapeutic dose causes transient hypertension followed by bradycardia: Xylazine
187
Select the correct statements, which are true for caffeine:
Stimulates the cortex and the primary vasomotor center
Dilates the coronaries
Increases the contractility of the myocardium
Diuretic
Constricts the vessels of the splanchnic area
188
Select the correct and incorrect statements
Correct: Optical activity may influence the binding of a drug to the receptor and/or the inherent activity
In the case of reversible competitive antagonism, the antagonist shifts the dose response curve of the agonist to the right
Incorrect: Weak basic drugs are absorbed from the stomach faster and more extensively than acidic drugs
Non-ionized drug molecules always cross the BBB very rapidly
189
The pharmacist can supply these drugs only according to the valid prescriptions of the practitioner
POM
190
Usually, during their mixing into the medicated feedstuffs commercial feed compounders should have a veterinary written direction
PML
191
Vet surgeon is authorised to supply or sell them only for owner of those animals, that are under the care of particular practitioner
P
PML
POM
192
They can be supplied by anyone
GSL
193
Some of them respect safe custody
POM
194
Controlled Drugs
How many schedules does this consist of? 5
Which is the most wide-ranging of the schedules? 3
Which is most significant in vet practice? 3
In which schedule does Butobarbitone belong to? 3
In which schedules does morphine belong to? 5, 2
Vet has authority to produce and supply these? 2-5
195
Which statement is wrong
Diethylpropion belongs to schedule 2
196
Select the correct statement:
| Effective stock control means:
Damaged packs have to be removed from the stock
197
Which answer is wrong:
| .... high molecules in the air can react upon drugs
N2
198
Select the wrong answer:
| Proper storage means:
Make a separate place for storage in the kennel
199
2 inhalational anaesthetic (A and B) have blood/ gas partition coefficients of 12.4 and 2.3 respectively. Which drugs produces faster induction of anaesthetics?
Fast: B
Slow: A
200
Which of the following is characteristics for creams?
Higher water content
201
How many groups can medicinal substances be classified based on the MRL- value (earlier annex)
Four
202
Excellent substance for the treatment of E. coli meningitis
Ceftriaxon
203
Which of the following is the approved name of the drug
Amoxicillin
204
Even together with this drug when do you expect pharmacodynamics interaction with gentamicin
Diazepam
205
An osmotic laxative drug, but also used for the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy
Lactulose
206
When applying this anaesthetic alone, muscle relaxation and total unconsciousness CANNOT be achieved in the animal
Ketamine
207
Vehicle of licking stones which may have growth-promoting abilities in ruminants
Bentonite
208
This is obligatory for obtaining schedule 2 and 3 drugs for use by a veterinarian in vets own practice
Legislation on requisition (Written requisition)
209
The adhesive of granules can be:
Distilled water
210
Which is characteristic to thiopental?
It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time
211
Which one CANNOT be an attribute of suppositories?
Does not dissolve at body temperature
212
What is the CD written requisition?
An order form from a veterinarian to the pharmacist when Schedule 2 and 3 drugs are obtained.
213
In which case do you expect miosis in the eye when applying this drug in an eye?
Pilocarpine
214
Using an emulsion may lead to life-threatening effect in this route of application:
Intravenously (IV)
215
Its cardiovascular side effects are negligible:
Diazepam
216
Intravenous anaesthetic with the important side effect of adrenocortical suppression
Etomidate
217
Which effect is characteristic to phenothiazine tranquilizers
They have a sedative effect.
218
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the theoretical plasma concentration maximum using the intravasal pharmacokinetic model?
C0
219
This anthelmintic drug is not safe enough, when it is used concomitantly with cholinesterase inhibitor compounds:
Levamisole
220
How many days can an open bottle of a drug be used?
28 days
221
Not allowed for food producing animals
Chloramphenicol
222
The side effect of this drug on the cardiovascular system may be …….. cause transient hypertension, then bradycardia and hypotension
Medetomidine
223
Its micro emulsion formulation is highly susceptible for bacterial contamination
Propofol
224
Which of the followings is Phase II metabolism enzyme?
Glutathione-S-Transferase
225
Which kind of effects can be expected when using ointments?
Both local and systemic effects
226
Correct dosage for Butorphanol in dogs
0.1-0.4 mg/b.w.kg IV, IM
227
When using classic neuroleptanalgesia the following substances are applied
Tranqulizer + Opiate
228
Dosages of Ketamine in cats
20 mg/b.w.kg IM
229
Butorphenone tranquilizer used mainly in laboratory rodents
Fluanisone
230
The lowest man-power requirement is during the internal mass-treatment by an application of:
Medicated water
231
Which of the following substances can be used as a vehicle in premixes
Lucerne meal
232
Non water soluble vehicles
Polysorbate
Methylcellulose
NONE OF THEM
233
The vehicle for eye ointment.
Aqueous or oily vehicle. (White Vaseline, simple eye ointment base)
234
Which Phenothiazine causes pronounced antihistamine activity?
Promethazine
235
Which causes neuroleptanalgesia?
Fluanison (a type of Butyrophenones)
236
What is the correct method for intramammary infusions?
```
Udderwash,
Udder-disinfection,
Milking-out,
Introduction
via teat canal
```
237
Which is used for sedation of pigs?
Azaperone (a type of Butyrophenones)
