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Pharma MT 1 > Pharma MT1 > Flashcards

Pharma MT1 Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following can occur at therapeutic dosage levels in healthy patients?
Allergic reactions
Teratogenic effects
Idiosyncratic reactions
All of the above can occur
A

All of the above can occur

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2
Q 
MRL is an acronym for:
Minimum relevant level
Maximum residue limit
Medicine residue level
Medicine registry list
A

Maximum residue limit

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3
Q 
Usually for mixing these types of real drugs into the medicated feedstuff, commercial feed compounders need to have a prescription for Medicated Feedstuff (Veterinary Written Direction).
POM-V 
Pharmacy Medicines (P)
Prescription only medicines (POM)
AVM-GSL
A

POM-V

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4
Q

Quantal dose response curves are:
Obtainable from the study of intact subjects but not from isolated tissues
Used for determining the maximal efficacy of a drug
Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug
Invalid in the presence of inhibitors of the drug studied

A

Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug

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5
Q

The adhesive of the granules can be:

A

Distilled water

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6
Q

Which drugs have to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in possession of a veterinarian?

A

Schedule 2 and 3 drugs

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7
Q

What is the first pass effect?

A

Liver decomposes the orally applied drug

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8
Q

In which book can the indications, effects, and side effects of a given drug be found?

A

British Veterinary Formulary

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9
Q

The capacity of a drug to cause a particular action?

A

Specificity

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10
Q

A drug that mediates the reversal of histamine bronchoconstricition (mediated at the histamine receptors) by acting at adrenoceptors (e.g epinephrine)

A

Physiologic antagonist

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11
Q

Sublingual administration is useful for

A

Drugs with high first pass metabolism

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12
Q

Which is the most informative name of a drug about the major ingredient?

A

Approved name

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13
Q

Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?

A

Rapid dissolution from the formulation

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14
Q

According to the Misuse of Drug Regulations (UK) this drug is schedule 3:

A

Pentobarbitone

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15
Q

The maximal activity specific to a drug

A

Intrinsic activity

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16
Q

Records should be made within 48 hours of the transaction and kept for a period of at least 5 years

A

Records on food producing animal treatments

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17
Q

Which technology is appropriate for achieving a pulsatile release of an active substance in a bolus?

A

Chip controlled diaphragms

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18
Q

Solid, single dose or multidose preparation for oral administration containing dry aggregates of powder particles

A

Granules

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19
Q

What is the proportion of ionized vs non-ionized molecules of a weak basic drig (pKa=7.4) in the stomach (pH=3.4)?

A

10,000:1

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20
Q

What “veterinary medicines regulation 2013” category can be supplied by pharmacists without prescription?

A

NFA-VPS

AVM-GSL

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21
Q

This is the name given to a drug by the manufacturers that produce the drug:

A

Proprietary name

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22
Q

Most appropriate method for the extraction of water soluble, heat sensitive substances from medicinal herbs

A

Extraction with ether

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23
Q

Which process can move drugs against a concentration gradient?

A

Active transport

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24
Q

Two drugs have been examined in animal studies, both have a therapeutic index of 2. It can be assumed that:
The dose response curves will be parallel
None of these
When given in ED50 doses, the 2 drugs are equally safe
When given at ED50 doses, no animals will be killed by the drugs

A

None of these

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25
Q

Which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule?

A

Glycerine

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26
Q

Frequently used vehicle in oral powders

A

Lactose

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27
Q

According to the Regulation fix MRL is established for some of these drugs..

A

Drugs in table 1

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28
Q

Which statement in NOT true for a first order, one compartment open pharmacokinetic model?

A

In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and/or excretion is saturated

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29
Q

At steady state the plasma concentration of a drug (Cpss) is 0.2mg/L. The total maintenance dose if the drug is applied every 8 hours?

A

4.8 mg

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30
Q

In this kind of prescription the proprietary name of the veterinary licensed medicine is given:

A

Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine

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31
Q

Which one is correct? When the pKa of a drug equals the pH of the surroundings

A

50% ionization occurs

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32
Q

Rectal administration

A

Minimizes first pass metabolism

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33
Q

A drug that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all or only incidentally with the receptor

A

Chemical antagonist

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34
Q

According to the theory that agonists and antagonists occupy the same receptor site, an effective antagonist should exhibit:

A

No intrinsic activity and high affinity

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35
Q

A drug that interacts directly with the against and not at all, or incidentally with the receptor

A

Chemical antagonist

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36
Q

……… the largest effect a drug can produce, regardless of dose

A

Maximum efficacy

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37
Q

What is the approximate percentage of a weak base (pKa=8.4) in the non-ionised form in the plasma having a pH of 7.4?

A

10%

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38
Q

When supplying this drug. one copy of which of the following has to be kept by the registered feed compounder?

A

Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)

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39
Q 
Which of the following can occur at therapeutic dosage levels in healthy patients?
Allergic reactions 
Teratogenic effects (Thalidomide)
Idiosyncratic reactions
All of the above can occur
A

All of the above can occur

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40
Q

A drug licensed for humans and included in table 1, and MRL has to be established administered to dairy cattle should have a withdrawal period for milk:

A

At least 7 days withdrawal period

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41
Q

According to this type of medicinal substance use both sick and healthy animals are treated with a mass (population) administration:

A

Metaphylaxis

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42
Q

What is the proportion of ionised and non-ionised molecules of a weak acidic drug (pKa=4.4) in blood (pH=7.4)

A

1000:1

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43
Q

How long do the withdrawal period usually last at minimum for meat, following application of human licensed medicine?

A

28 days

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44
Q

How long do the withdrawal period usually last for fish at minimum, following application of a human licensed medicine?

A

500 degree days

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45
Q

The phenomenon in which 2 drugs produce opposite effects on a physiologic system but do not act the same at the receptor site is:

A

Physiologic antagonism

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46
Q

Two drugs A and B, have the same mechanism of action. Drug A in a dose of 5mg produces the same magnitude of effect as drug B in a dose of 500mg:

A

Drug A is 100 times more potent than drug B

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47
Q

Which substance is schedule 2 substance?

A

Fentanyl

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48
Q

Qualitative and quantitative determination of the medicinal substances is not introduced in:

A

British Veterinary Formulary

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49
Q

The LD50 of a drug is

A

The dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of the treated animals

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50
Q

Among the environmental factors that may harm the medicines, this stimulates the oxidation or reduction processes

A

Light (UV)

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51
Q

This category may play an imprtant role in the prevention of animal disease, but they are not real drugs

A

Biocides

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52
Q

How long do the withdrawal period usually last for eggs, following application of an official or prepared medicine?

A

7 days

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53
Q

Which temperature interval is valid if the drug has to be stored at a cool place?

A

8-15 degrees celsius

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54
Q

What is written in the inscription in the case of prepared preparations?

A

The name and amount of the ingredients

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55
Q

What “Medicines order 2001 UK” category can be supplied by pharmacists without any prescription?

A

GSL, P, PML

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56
Q

This name of medicinal substances is given by the pharmacopoeia commission to each compound:

A

Approved name

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57
Q

Which part of the prescription gives the farmer information on the withdrawal time?

A

Signature

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58
Q

Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?

A

Rapid dissolution from the formulation

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59
Q

Which is an example for substitution therapy?

A

Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hypothyroidism

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60
Q

What is characteristic for a drug molecule, which has been metabolised in the phase II of biotransformation procedure?

A

Losing of activity

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61
Q

Drug allergies

A

Can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the drug previously

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62
Q

When comparing drugs with respect to the intensity of response, the drug that produces the greatest maximum effect is the one with the highest

A

Efficacy

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63
Q

The pharmacist can supply these drugs only if presented with a valid prescription from the practitioner:

A

POM Prescription only medicine

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64
Q

The effect and side effecst of drugs, as well as the contraindications of their uses are NOT introduced well detailed in:

A

European Pharmacopoeia

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65
Q

The category drug like substances (non real drugs) includes:

A

Biocides

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66
Q

Which part of the prescription tells the pharmacist the name and formulation of the drug

A

Inscription

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67
Q

The oral AUC is the half that of the IV AUC value and for oral administration two fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) value of the drug?

A

0.25

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68
Q

Which of the follwing is an action of a non-competitive antagonist?

A

Decreases the maximum response to an agonist

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69
Q

Drugs may harmfully interact with useful intestinal microbes. In which species is the effect the least significant?

A

Dogs

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70
Q

If drug A has a greater efficacy than drug B, then Drug A…

A

Is capable of producing a greater maximum effect than drug B

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71
Q

A drug that blocks the action of epinephrine at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them

A

Pharmacological antagonist

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72
Q

In this type of prescription the prorietary name of a vet-licensed medicine is given

A

Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine

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73
Q

Which one is incorrect? Factors maintaining drug allergy are:

A

Preparation with rapid absorption after IM or SC administration

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74
Q

The major part of the text must be in the veterinarian’s own handwriting

A

Special preparation

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75
Q

This name of medicinal substances is given by the manufacturers

A

Proprietary name

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76
Q

The oral AUC is the 25% of that of the IV AUC value and for the IV administration two fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) value of the drug?

A

0.5

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77
Q

Which part of the prescription gives the owner the information about the dosages of an animal?

A

Signature

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78
Q

Mark the reaction, which is NOT characteristic for type I, immediate or anaphylaptic drug allergy reaction:

A

Immune complex formation

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79
Q

A drug licensed for humans and included in annex I and III administered to dairy cattle should have a WP for milk

A

At least 7 days withdrawal period

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80
Q

Vehicle in licking stones

A

Sodium chloride

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81
Q

How long do the withdrawal period usually last for fish at minimum, following application of an official or prepared medicine?

A

500 degree days

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82
Q

For which category is not true, usually it develops after repeated administration?

A

Idiosyncrasy

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83
Q

Which substance is a schedule 3 substance?

A

Phenolbarbitol/phenobarbitone

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84
Q

A dosage from appropriate for the preparation of medicated feedstuff?

A

Premix

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85
Q

Specific receptor antagonists can best be described as having

A

affinity but little or no efficacy for the receptor

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86
Q

Antagonists are drugs that

A

Block tissue receptor sites

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87
Q

Defined as treatment of clinically diseased animals and prevention of spreading diseases in herd

A

Metaphyllaxis

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88
Q

Drugs can be used as non-divided powders:

A

Only drugs with broad therapeutic margin

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89
Q

These drugs are always POM medicines

A

Controlled drugs

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90
Q

Examine the graph: what is the efficacy relationship between drug A and C?

A

A is more efficious

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91
Q

Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?

A

Rapid dissolution from the formulation

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92
Q

Which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule?

A

Glycerine

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93
Q

These drugs are natural compounds of practically harmless substances, which do not require a withdrawal period

A

Drugs in Annex II

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94
Q

At steady state the plasma concentration of a drug (Cpss) is 1mg/L. The total body clearance is (CL) 100ml/min. What is the maintenance dose if the drug is applied in every 12 hour?

A

72mg

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95
Q

A drug licensed for humans containing metronidazole…

A

Must not be use in food producing animals

96
Q

A drug included in 2377/790EEC annex II has a WP of:

A

0 days

97
Q

Which drugs are normally NOT used in veterinary practice?

A

Schedule 1 drugs

98
Q

What information about any drug is included in the European Pharmacopoeia’s?

A

Identification methods

99
Q

In this type of prescription the name and amount of ingredients (individual components) has to be given in the inscription part

A

Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine

100
Q

How long after the first use can drugs from multi dose injection bottles be used?

A

At most 28 days

101
Q

Which of the following is the licensed name of the drug?

A

Betamox inj AUV

102
Q

The most frequent active ingredient of intraruminal boluses

A

Anthelminthic

103
Q

A drug licensed for humans and included in Annex I, administered to dairy cattle should have a WP of at least…

A

At least 7 days WP

104
Q

According to the theory that agonists and antagonists occupy the same receptor site, an effective antagonist should exhibit:

A

No intrinsic activity and high affinity

105
Q

A drug that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all, or only incidently with the receptor is?

A

Chemical antagonist

106
Q

….. the largest effect a drug can produce, regardless of dose:

A

Maximum efficacy

107
Q

What is appropriate percentage of a weak base (pKa=8.4) in the non-ionised form in the plasma having a pH of 7.4?

A

100%

108
Q

When supplying this drug, one copy of which of the following has to be kept by the registered feed compounder?

A

Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)

109
Q

Which of the following can occur at therapeutic dosage levels in healthy patients?

A

Idiosyncratic reactions

110
Q

What is the proportion of ionised and non-ionised molecules of a weak acidic drug (pKa=4.4) in blood (pH=7.4)?

A

1000:1

111
Q

How long does the withdrawal period usually last at minimum for meat, following application of a human licensed medicine?

A

28 days

112
Q

The phenomenon in which two drugs produce opposite effects on a physiologic system but do not act at the same receptor site is:

A

Physiologic antagonism

113
Q

Two drugs A and B, have the same mechanism of action. Drug A in a dose of 5mg produces the same magnitude of effect as drug B in a dose of 500mg:

A

Drug A is 100 times more potent than that of drug B

114
Q

Which substance is schedule 2 substance ?

A

Fentanyl

115
Q

Qualitative and quantitative determination of the medicinal substances is not introduced in:

A

British veterinary formulary

116
Q

The LD50 of a drug is

A

The dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of the treated animals

117
Q

Among the environmental factors that may harm the medicines, this stimulates the oxidation or reduction processes:

A

Light (UV)

118
Q

This category may play an important role in prevention of animal disease, but they are not real drugs:

A

Biocides

119
Q

How long does the withdrawal period usually last for eggs, following application of an official or prepared medicine?

A

7 days

120
Q

What is written in the inscription in case of prepared preparations?

A

The name and the amount of the ingredients

121
Q

What “Medicines order 2001 UK” category can be supplied by pharmacists without prescription?

A

P and PML

122
Q

Quantal dose response curves are

A

used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug

123
Q

This name of medicinal substances is given by the pharmacopoeia commission to each compound:

A

approved name

124
Q

Which part of the prescription gives the farmer information on the withdrawal time?

A

Signature

125
Q

Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?

A

Rapid dissolution from the formulation

126
Q

Which is an example for substitution therapy?

A

Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hypothyroidism

127
Q

Which statement is NOT true for a first order, one compartment open pharmacokinetic model?

A

In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated

128
Q

A drug that mediates the reversal of histamine bronchoconstriction (mediated at histamine receptors) by acting at adrenoceptors (e.g epinephrine)

A

Physiologic antagonist

129
Q

What is characteristic for a drug molecule which has been metabolised in the phase II of biotransformation procedure?

A

Losing activity

130
Q

Drug allergies..

A

Can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the drug previously

131
Q

When comparing drugs with respect to intensity of response, the drug that produces the greatest maximum effect is the one with the highest:

A

efficacy

132
Q

The pharmacist can supply these drugs only if presented with a valid prescription from the practitioner:

A

Pharmacy medicines (P)

133
Q

The effect and side effects of drugs, as well as the contraindication of their uses are NOT introduces well detailed in

A

European Pharmacopoeia

134
Q

What is characteristic for a drug molecule which has been metabolised in the Phase II of biotransformation procedure?

A

Losing of activity

135
Q

The category drug like substances (non real drugs) includes

A

Biocides

136
Q

Which part of the prescription tells the pharmacist the name and formulation of the drug

A

Inscription

137
Q

The oral AUC is the half of the IV AUC value and for oral administration two fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) value of the drug?

A

0.25

138
Q

Which of the following is an action of noncompetitive antagonist?

A

Decreases the maximum response to an agonist

139
Q

Qualitative and quantitative determination of the medicinal substances is not introduced in:

A

British veterinary formulary

140
Q

If drug A has a greater efficacy than drug B, then drug A

A

is capable of producing a greater maximum effect than drug B

141
Q

A drug that blocks the action of epinephrine at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them

A

Pharmacological antagonist

142
Q

In this type of prescription the proprietary name of a vet-licensed medicine is given

A

Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine

143
Q

Which one is incorrect? Factors maintaining drug allergy are:

A

Preparation with rapid absorption after IM or SC administation

144
Q

The effect and side effects of drugs, as well as the contraindications of their uses are NOT introduces well detailed in:

A

European pharmacopoeia

145
Q

The major part of the text must be written in the veterinarians own handwriting:

A

Special preparation

146
Q

This name of the medicinal substances is given by the manufacturers:

A

Proprietary name

147
Q

The oral AUC is the 25% of that os the IV AUC value and for IV administration two fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) value of the drug?

A

0.5

148
Q

Which part of the prescription gives the owner of an animal information on dosages?

A

Signature

149
Q

Mark the reaction which is not characteristic for Type I, immediate or anaphylaptic drug allergy reaction:

A

Immune complex formation

150
Q

Two drugs, A and B, have the same mechanism of action. Drug A in a dose of 5mg produces the same magnitude of effect as drug B in a dose of 500mg:

A

Drug A is 100 times more potent that Drug B

151
Q

Vehicle in licking stones:

A

Sodium chloride

152
Q

How long does the withdrawal period usually last for fish at minimum, following application of an official or prepared medicine?

A

500 degree days

153
Q

According to the theory that agonists and antagonists occupy the same receptor site, an effective antagonist should exhibit:

A

No intrinsic activity and high affinity

154
Q

For which category is not true, usually it develops after repeated administation?

A

Idiosyncrasy

155
Q

Which substance is a schedule 3 substance?

A

Phenolbarbital

156
Q

A dosage form appropriate for the preparation of medicated feed stuff:

A

Premix

157
Q

Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?

A

Rapid dissolution from the formulation

158
Q

Specific receptor antagonists can best be described as having

A

Affinity but little or no efficacy for the receptor

159
Q

When are written special prescriptions and written requisitions mandatory?

A

For schedule 2 and 3 drugs

160
Q

Defined as “treatment of clinically diseased animals and prevention of disease within a herd”?

A

Metaphylaxis

161
Q

What information is given in the European Pharmacopoeia?

A

Dosage of the drug in humans

162
Q

Decotion should be brewed for a short time

A

False

163
Q

Hygroscopic drug plants can be dispensed in special jars

A

True

164
Q

Undivided powders can be divided by the owner

A

True

165
Q

Dispensation: the vet orders the pharmacist to prepare the number of doses required

A

True

166
Q

Granules cannot be undivided

A

True

167
Q

Strongly hygroscopic agents are proper ingredients of powders

A

False

168
Q

Tablet is a preferable dosage form for animals

A

False

169
Q

Bolus is applied when the amount of the drug given is considerable

A

True

170
Q

Drugs with strong effects are not possible to use in boluses

A

False

171
Q

The vehicle of a bolus can be water, alcohol or glycerine

A

False

172
Q

Whether the bolus remains in the rumen for a long period or not depends on the boluses sensitivity

A

False

173
Q

The disadvantage of paste formulation is that one cannot dose accurately

A

False

174
Q

Glycerine and Glycol form hard mass at the top if the dispenser

A

False

175
Q

Colloidal silica is an aqueous base for pastes

A

False

176
Q

Halothane increases the sensitivity of the heart against catecholamines

A

True

177
Q

Charbachol increases the motility of the gut and myometrium, constricts the bronchi, decreases the glandular secretion but may cause hypotension

A

False

178
Q

Match the active ingredients with the active forms!

A

Antibiotic- powder, tablet
Adsorbent- Ointment
Antipyretic- suppository
Anthelimintic- powder and tablet

179
Q

Match the vehicles to the dosage forms!

A

Light kaolin- Dusting powder (wounds) and powder
Cocoa butter- Suppository
Lactose- Bolus, tablet
Wax- ointment

180
Q

Divide whether the ointment components are water soluble or water insoluble

A 
Water soluble:
Polysorbate 60
Starch
Cetomacrogols
White gelatine 
Water insoluble:
Cocoa butter
White wax
Vaseline
Cod-liver oil
Wool-fat alcohol
181
Q

Match the mode of applications to the dosage forms

A 
External application:       
solutions
Liniments
gels
tinctures
creams

Oral:
Solutions
Coated tablets
Gels

Perenteral: solutions

182
Q

Match the quality requirements of the dosage forms

A

Intact surface is desired: Tablet, capsule
Efficient homogenizatoin: ointment
The liquid mixture has to be clear and deposit free: solution
It can be intestinal soluble: capsule
Its shape can be biconical/elongated: tablet, capsule

183
Q

Match the mode of applications to the dosage forms

A

Oral: Suspension, powder, bolus, solution, capsules
IM: solution, suspension

184
Q

The maximal effect achieved by a drug is a measure of:

A

The drugs efficacy! (intrinsic activity)

185
Q

A drug is eliminated by first-order processes. Assume 50mg of the drug is administered IV and after 6 hours, 25mg remains in the body. Approximately how much of the drug will remain in the body at 24 hours?

A

3mg

186
Q

Match the drugs to the appropriate statements:

A

It is a sedative/ tranquilizer, it increases the effects of opioids: Acepromazine
Dilates the bronchi, but does not increase the O2 requirement and contractility of the heart: Clenbuterol
It is a significant analgesic and sedative, it decreases the contractility of muscles, according to the therapeutic dose causes transient hypertension followed by bradycardia: Xylazine

187
Q

Select the correct statements, which are true for caffeine:

A

Stimulates the cortex and the primary vasomotor center
Dilates the coronaries
Increases the contractility of the myocardium
Diuretic
Constricts the vessels of the splanchnic area

188
Q

Select the correct and incorrect statements

A

Correct: Optical activity may influence the binding of a drug to the receptor and/or the inherent activity
In the case of reversible competitive antagonism, the antagonist shifts the dose response curve of the agonist to the right
Incorrect: Weak basic drugs are absorbed from the stomach faster and more extensively than acidic drugs
Non-ionized drug molecules always cross the BBB very rapidly

189
Q

The pharmacist can supply these drugs only according to the valid prescriptions of the practitioner

A

POM

190
Q

Usually, during their mixing into the medicated feedstuffs commercial feed compounders should have a veterinary written direction

A

PML

191
Q

Vet surgeon is authorised to supply or sell them only for owner of those animals, that are under the care of particular practitioner

A

P
PML
POM

192
Q

They can be supplied by anyone

A

GSL

193
Q

Some of them respect safe custody

A

POM

194
Q

Controlled Drugs

A

How many schedules does this consist of? 5
Which is the most wide-ranging of the schedules? 3
Which is most significant in vet practice? 3
In which schedule does Butobarbitone belong to? 3
In which schedules does morphine belong to? 5, 2
Vet has authority to produce and supply these? 2-5

195
Q

Which statement is wrong

A

Diethylpropion belongs to schedule 2

196
Q

Select the correct statement:

Effective stock control means:

A

Damaged packs have to be removed from the stock

197
Q

Which answer is wrong:

…. high molecules in the air can react upon drugs

A

N2

198
Q

Select the wrong answer:

Proper storage means:

A

Make a separate place for storage in the kennel

199
Q

2 inhalational anaesthetic (A and B) have blood/ gas partition coefficients of 12.4 and 2.3 respectively. Which drugs produces faster induction of anaesthetics?

A

Fast: B
Slow: A

200
Q

Which of the following is characteristics for creams?

A

Higher water content

201
Q

How many groups can medicinal substances be classified based on the MRL- value (earlier annex)

A

Four

202
Q

Excellent substance for the treatment of E. coli meningitis

A

Ceftriaxon

203
Q

Which of the following is the approved name of the drug

A

Amoxicillin

204
Q

Even together with this drug when do you expect pharmacodynamics interaction with gentamicin

A

Diazepam

205
Q

An osmotic laxative drug, but also used for the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose

206
Q

When applying this anaesthetic alone, muscle relaxation and total unconsciousness CANNOT be achieved in the animal

A

Ketamine

207
Q

Vehicle of licking stones which may have growth-promoting abilities in ruminants

A

Bentonite

208
Q

This is obligatory for obtaining schedule 2 and 3 drugs for use by a veterinarian in vets own practice

A

Legislation on requisition (Written requisition)

209
Q

The adhesive of granules can be:

A

Distilled water

210
Q

Which is characteristic to thiopental?

A

It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time

211
Q

Which one CANNOT be an attribute of suppositories?

A

Does not dissolve at body temperature

212
Q

What is the CD written requisition?

A

An order form from a veterinarian to the pharmacist when Schedule 2 and 3 drugs are obtained.

213
Q

In which case do you expect miosis in the eye when applying this drug in an eye?

A

Pilocarpine

214
Q

Using an emulsion may lead to life-threatening effect in this route of application:

A

Intravenously (IV)

215
Q

Its cardiovascular side effects are negligible:

A

Diazepam

216
Q

Intravenous anaesthetic with the important side effect of adrenocortical suppression

A

Etomidate

217
Q

Which effect is characteristic to phenothiazine tranquilizers

A

They have a sedative effect.

218
Q

What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the theoretical plasma concentration maximum using the intravasal pharmacokinetic model?

A

C0

219
Q

This anthelmintic drug is not safe enough, when it is used concomitantly with cholinesterase inhibitor compounds:

A

Levamisole

220
Q

How many days can an open bottle of a drug be used?

A

28 days

221
Q

Not allowed for food producing animals

A

Chloramphenicol

222
Q

The side effect of this drug on the cardiovascular system may be …….. cause transient hypertension, then bradycardia and hypotension

A

Medetomidine

223
Q

Its micro emulsion formulation is highly susceptible for bacterial contamination

A

Propofol

224
Q

Which of the followings is Phase II metabolism enzyme?

A

Glutathione-S-Transferase

225
Q

Which kind of effects can be expected when using ointments?

A

Both local and systemic effects

226
Q

Correct dosage for Butorphanol in dogs

A

0.1-0.4 mg/b.w.kg IV, IM

227
Q

When using classic neuroleptanalgesia the following substances are applied

A

Tranqulizer + Opiate

228
Q

Dosages of Ketamine in cats

A

20 mg/b.w.kg IM

229
Q

Butorphenone tranquilizer used mainly in laboratory rodents

A

Fluanisone

230
Q

The lowest man-power requirement is during the internal mass-treatment by an application of:

A

Medicated water

231
Q

Which of the following substances can be used as a vehicle in premixes

A

Lucerne meal

232
Q

Non water soluble vehicles

A

Polysorbate
Methylcellulose
NONE OF THEM

233
Q

The vehicle for eye ointment.

A

Aqueous or oily vehicle. (White Vaseline, simple eye ointment base)

234
Q

Which Phenothiazine causes pronounced antihistamine activity?

A

Promethazine

235
Q

Which causes neuroleptanalgesia?

A

Fluanison (a type of Butyrophenones)

236
Q

What is the correct method for intramammary infusions?

A 
Udderwash, 
Udder-disinfection, 
Milking-out,
Introduction
via teat canal
237
Q

Which is used for sedation of pigs?

A

Azaperone (a type of Butyrophenones)

Pharma MT 1 (2 decks)

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