Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

Define liberation

A

Liberation is the first step of absorption.

Liberation is the separation of a drug from its vehicle.

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2
Q

Why does atropine cross the BBB while glycopyrolate does not?

A

Atropine is neutral

Glycopyrolate is + charged and thus can’t cross the BBB

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3
Q

Compare and contrast intrathecal morphine vs. fentanyl

A

Morphine = hydrophilic –> persists in circulation

Fentanyl = hydrophobic –> binds quickly to surrounding fat and protein affecting nearby nerve roots

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4
Q

Compare and contrast the alpha and beta phases of elimination

A

Alpha - distribution phase of a drug from central circulation to the periphery right after a bolus

Beta - elimination, metabolism + excretion

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5
Q

Define volume of distribution of a drug

A

Volume = dose (mg) /concentration (ml)

Volume of distribution exceeds total body volume in fat soluble or highly protein bound drugs

Children have larger volumes d/t larger intravascular and extracellular volumes

Dec protein in elderly, anemia and hypoalbuminemia = lower volume

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6
Q

What is the Law of Mass Action?

And why rocuronium has a quicker onset than equipotent vecuronium?

A

Larger dose = faster onset

= use a greater quantity of a less potent drug

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7
Q

How many half lives of an oral drug to reach steady-state?

A

4-5

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8
Q

Explain 1st order elimination

A

Rate of elimination is proportional to the concentration of the drug. A constant proportion of the drug is eliminated

Exponential decay process:
8-4-2-1

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9
Q

How does an antagonist effect the dose response curve?

A

Shift curve to the right

• Antagonist – block other drugs but cause no activity
 Competitive – physically displace agonist w/o blocking
 Non-competitive – irreversibly bind to receptor

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10
Q

How does a noncompetitive antagonist effect the dose response curve?

A

Shift to right and reduce max efficacy

Non-competitive – irreversibly bind to receptor

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11
Q

How does a partial agonist effect the dose response curve?

A

Sub maximal response

• Partial agonist – partially activate even at [high]

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12
Q

What is therapeutic index?

A

TD50 / ED50

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13
Q

GABA receptor belong to what receptor type?

A

Ligand-gated ion channel

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14
Q

Drug potency is determined by what factors?

A

Affinity to the receptor
And receptor response to drug binding

Higher potency = lower ED50

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15
Q

What type of agonist/antagonist decreases receptor response to a level below baseline response observed?

A

Inverse agonist

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16
Q

What type of ligand effect does buprenorphine exhibit?

A

Partial mu agonist

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17
Q

What type of drug will decrease efficacy of an agonist w/o affecting its potency?

A

Noncompetitive antagonist

18
Q

Explain 0 order elimination

A

Cleared at a constant rate, irrespective of the plasma concentration.

Ex: alcohol

19
Q

Explain context-sensitive half-life

A

Fat soluble drugs accumulate over time –> Half-life increases over time.

A continuous infusion has to be dialed back in long cases to prevent overdoses.

However other drugs like remifentanil don’t.

20
Q

What are the two major plasma proteins that affect drug protein binding?

A
  1. Albumin

2. alpha-1 acid glycoprotein (acute phase reactant)

21
Q

Which plasma protein binds acidic drugs and basic drugs most readily?

A

Acidic = Albumin

Basic = (alpha-1)(narcotics, amines)

22
Q

Would a weak acid or a weak base more readily cross the cell membrane?

A

Weak acid

  • it donates H+ becoming non-ionized and can easily cross
23
Q

What is the pKa of a drug?

A

The pH at which half the drug is in its ionized form and half in its non-ionized form.

  • The lower the pH relative to the pKa, the greater the fraction of drug in the ionized form.
  • Local anesthetics are weak bases, infected tissue is acidic –> LA becoming ionized and unable to penetrate the membrane to exert their action
24
Q

Compare the solubility of high blood: gas coefficient gases to low blood: gas coefficient gases

A

High blood: gas = more soluble = passes easily from air to blood

25
What factors make a molecule transfer across cell membrane more quickly?
low degree of ionization low molecular weight high lipid solubility high concentration gradient
26
What causes the initial decline in drug concentration of a lipophilic drug and what is it dependent on?
Redistribution Dependent on cardiac output - high CO tissues = faster equilibrium CO is based on LEAN body mass
27
What drugs are metabolized by CYP3A4?
Tylenol, dexamethasone, lidocaine, midazolam, methadone, fentanyl, alfentanil, sufentanil, little bit of propofol
28
Name inhibitors of CYP3A4
``` grapefruit juice anti-fungals protease inhibitors “mycins” SSRIs ```
29
Name inducers of CYP3A4
``` Rifampin rifabutin tamoxifen glucocorticoids carbamazepine barbiturates St. John’s Wort ```
30
What drugs are metabolized by CYP2B6?
Propofol, codeine, oxycodone, hydrocodone
31
What class of drugs inhibits CYP2B6?
SSRIs
32
What drugs are metabolized by plasma esterases?
Remifentanil, succinylcholine, esmolol Succinylcholine – pseudocholinsterase or butylcholinesterase can be cleared slowly with genetic defect
33
What drugs are extensively really cleared?
Steroidal muscle relaxants 85% pancuroniu 20-30% vecuronium 10-20% rocuronium
34
What is the formula for calculating CrCl?
Cockroft-Gault (140-age) x weight (kg) / 72 x serum Cr (mg%) Women are this x 85% Old people with normal Cr STILL have lower clearance
35
What drugs utilize the Ligand-gated type receptor?
``` Propofol midazolam thiopental ketamine muscle relaxants ```
36
Define tolerance
reduction in the pharmacologic response to a drug following exposure to the drug or a similar drug Inc amounts to produce same effect
37
What are the types of drug tolerance?
1. Innate - genetic predisposition that renders one less sensitive to a drug = Opioid receptor gene polymorphisms 2. Acquired - increased metabolism as a result of liver enzyme induction (barbiturate and ketamine), receptor down-regulation (opioids) or desensitization (a reduction in the efficacy of a receptor-bound drug to produce its effect).
38
What are the mechanisms for tolerance?
1. receptor down-regulation 2. desensitization 3. enzyme induction
39
What is tissue tolerance?
increasing quantities of opioids are required to produce analgesia, euphoria, and respiratory depression, but tolerance to miosis and constipation does not develop
40
What is tachyphylaxis?
Acute tolerance
41
What is one mechanism for the development of tachyphylaxis?
depletion of neurotransmitter stores
42
Name 5 drugs associated with tolerance and tachyphylaxis besides opioids.
ephedrine (depletion of norepinephrine stores) nitrates (depletion of sulfhydryl groups) succinylcholine (prolonged ion channel opening) desmopressin (depletion of both Factor VIII and vWF) Epidural lidocaine