Pharmacologic Principles for Lauren Flashcards
(252 cards)
1
Q
What is the first-pass effect?
A
The first-pass effect is the metabolism of a drug before it reaches systemic circulation.
2
Q
True or False: Oral medications undergo first-pass metabolism.
A
True
3
Q
What is the primary route of administration that avoids the first-pass effect?
A
Parenteral administration.
4
Q
Fill in the blank: The primary organ involved in first-pass metabolism is the _____
A
liver
5
Q
What is the primary purpose of drug distribution in the body?
A
To deliver the drug to its site of action.
6
Q
Multiple Choice: Which of the following routes of administration provides the fastest onset of action? A) Oral B) Subcutaneous C) Intravenous D) Rectal
A
C) Intravenous
7
Q
True or False: Drugs distributed to tissues are always available for therapeutic action.
A
False
8
Q
What does the term ‘bioavailability’ refer to?
A
The proportion of a drug that enters systemic circulation when introduced into the body.
9
Q
Fill in the blank: The process of eliminating drugs from the body is known as _____
A
excretion
10
Q
What are the primary organs responsible for drug excretion?
A
Kidneys
11
Q
Multiple Choice: Which factor does NOT affect drug distribution? A) Blood flow B) Tissue permeability C) Drug solubility D) Age
A
D) Age
12
Q
True or False: Parenteral routes include intravenous, intramuscular, and subcutaneous methods.
A
True
13
Q
What is the significance of protein binding in drug distribution?
A
It affects the amount of free drug available for action.
14
Q
Fill in the blank: The term ‘pharmacokinetics’ refers to the _____ of drugs in the body.
A
movement
15
Q
What is the primary function of the blood-brain barrier?
A
To protect the brain from potentially harmful substances.
16
Q
Multiple Choice: Which of the following factors can influence drug absorption? A) Route of administration B) Time of day C) Patient’s diet D) All of the above
A
D) All of the above
17
Q
True or False: Excretion can occur through urine, bile, sweat, and saliva.
A
True
18
Q
What does the term ‘half-life’ of a drug indicate?
A
The time it takes for the concentration of the drug in the blood to reduce by half.
19
Q
Fill in the blank: Drugs that are lipophilic tend to accumulate in _____ tissues.
A
fat
20
Q
What is the role of the renal system in drug excretion?
A
To filter and eliminate drugs and their metabolites from the body.
21
Q
Multiple Choice: Which route of administration typically has the highest bioavailability? A) Oral B) Intravenous C) Intramuscular D) Subcutaneous
A
B) Intravenous
22
Q
True or False: The pharmacokinetic phase includes absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.
A
True
23
Q
What is the effect of aging on drug metabolism?
A
Aging can decrease metabolic rate and affect drug clearance.
24
Q
Fill in the blank: The _____ is the primary site for drug metabolism in the body.
A
liver
25
What is the difference between active and passive transport in drug absorption?
Active transport requires energy, while passive transport does not.
26
What is a medication error?
A medication error is a preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate medication use or patient harm.
27
True or False: All medication errors result in harm to the patient.
False
28
Name one common contributing factor to medication errors.
Poor communication among healthcare providers.
29
Fill in the blank: The __________ rights of medication administration include the right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time.
Five
30
What is the first step in identifying a medication error?
Recognizing that an error has occurred.
31
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT one of the 'Five Rights' of medication administration? A) Right patient B) Right time C) Right label D) Right drug
C) Right label
32
What should a healthcare provider do immediately after discovering a medication error?
Report the error to the appropriate authority or supervisor.
33
True or False: Only nurses are responsible for medication errors.
False
34
What is a common method for preventing medication errors?
Implementing standardized protocols for medication administration.
35
Fill in the blank: A medication reconciliation process is important for __________ errors.
preventing
36
What role does technology play in reducing medication errors?
Technology, such as electronic health records and barcoding systems, helps improve accuracy in medication administration.
37
Multiple Choice: Which of the following can lead to medication errors? A) Distractions during medication administration B) Double-checking medications C) Clear communication D) Using standardized procedures
A) Distractions during medication administration
38
What is the purpose of a medication error reporting system?
To identify, analyze, and prevent future medication errors.
39
True or False: Education and training can help reduce the incidence of medication errors.
True
40
What is the importance of patient involvement in medication safety?
Patients can help ensure their safety by being informed about their medications and reporting any discrepancies.
41
Fill in the blank: The __________ of medication errors is vital for continuous improvement in healthcare.
analysis
42
What should be included in a medication error investigation?
Details about the error, contributing factors, and recommendations for prevention.
43
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a potential outcome of medication errors? A) Improved patient outcomes B) Increased healthcare costs C) Enhanced communication D) Better teamwork
B) Increased healthcare costs
44
What does the term 'adverse drug event' mean?
An adverse drug event refers to any harm experienced by a patient due to medication use, which may or may not be preventable.
45
True or False: Medication errors can only occur in hospitals.
False
46
What is one strategy for improving communication to prevent medication errors?
Using standardized handoff procedures among healthcare providers.
47
Fill in the blank: __________ checks are crucial before administering medication to ensure patient safety.
Double
48
What is the role of pharmacists in preventing medication errors?
Pharmacists review prescriptions for accuracy, appropriateness, and potential drug interactions.
49
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common type of medication error? A) Omission B) Administration of the correct drug C) Proper documentation D) Patient counseling
A) Omission
50
What is the significance of following the 'Five Rights' in medication administration?
Following the 'Five Rights' helps ensure that patients receive the correct medication safely and effectively.
51
What is the primary function of the anterior pituitary gland?
To produce and secrete hormones that regulate various bodily functions.
52
True or False: The posterior pituitary stores hormones produced by the hypothalamus.
True
53
Name one hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary.
Growth hormone (GH)
54
What type of drug is used to stimulate the anterior pituitary?
Pituitary stimulants
55
Fill in the blank: The two main hormones released by the posterior pituitary are _____ and _____ .
oxytocin, vasopressin (ADH)
56
What are common adverse reactions associated with pituitary drugs?
Headache, nausea, and injection site reactions.
57
Which hormone is responsible for water retention in the body?
Vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH)
58
True or False: Somatotropin is a synthetic form of growth hormone.
True
59
What is the role of oxytocin in childbirth?
It stimulates uterine contractions.
60
Name a nursing implication when administering pituitary drugs.
Monitor for signs of fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances.
61
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a function of the anterior pituitary? A) Stimulating adrenal glands B) Regulating blood pressure C) Stimulating thyroid gland D) Stimulating growth
B) Regulating blood pressure
62
What condition is treated with vasopressin?
Diabetes insipidus
63
Fill in the blank: _____ is a hormone that promotes milk ejection during breastfeeding.
Oxytocin
64
What is the effect of growth hormone on metabolism?
It increases protein synthesis and fat utilization.
65
True or False: Pituitary drugs can only be administered orally.
False
66
What should be assessed before administering pituitary drugs?
Baseline vital signs and hydration status.
67
Name one contraindication for using growth hormone therapy.
Active malignancy
68
Multiple Choice: Which hormone increases during stress? A) Cortisol B) Insulin C) Glucagon D) Estrogen
A) Cortisol
69
What is the primary action of prolactin?
To promote lactation.
70
True or False: Nursing implications for pituitary drugs include monitoring for allergic reactions.
True
71
What is the role of luteinizing hormone (LH)?
To trigger ovulation and stimulate testosterone production.
72
Fill in the blank: The hormone _____ stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
73
What is a potential long-term effect of excessive growth hormone?
Acromegaly
74
What is the purpose of using antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in treatment?
To manage conditions like diabetes insipidus and certain bleeding disorders.
75
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a side effect of oxytocin? A) Increased blood pressure B) Decreased heart rate C) Nausea D) Weight gain
A) Increased blood pressure
76
Name a key nursing consideration when caring for a patient receiving vasopressin.
Monitor urine output and specific gravity.
77
What is the primary indication for Levothyroxine?
Hypothyroidism
78
True or False: PTU is used to treat hyperthyroidism.
True
79
Fill in the blank: The mechanism of action of Levothyroxine is to ________ thyroid hormone levels.
increase
80
What is the mechanism of action of PTU?
Inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormones by blocking the conversion of thyroxine (T4) to triiodothyronine (T3).
81
List one common adverse effect of Levothyroxine.
Hyperthyroidism symptoms (e.g., increased heart rate, weight loss)
82
What is the route of administration for Levothyroxine?
Oral
83
True or False: PTU can cause liver damage as an adverse effect.
True
84
Which thyroid drug is preferred during pregnancy?
PTU in the first trimester, then switch to Methimazole.
85
What is the half-life of Levothyroxine?
Approximately 7 days.
86
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT an indication for PTU? A) Hyperthyroidism B) Thyroid storm C) Hypothyroidism
C) Hypothyroidism
87
What is the recommended starting dose of Levothyroxine for adults?
1.6 mcg/kg/day
88
Fill in the blank: PTU is primarily used for ________ management.
hyperthyroidism
89
True or False: Levothyroxine can be used to suppress thyroid cancer.
True
90
What are the symptoms of Levothyroxine overdose?
Symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
91
What is the mechanism of action of thyroid hormones?
Regulate metabolism and influence growth and development.
92
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a side effect of PTU? A) Rash B) Insomnia C) Nausea
A) Rash
93
What is the goal of therapy with Levothyroxine?
To normalize TSH levels.
94
Fill in the blank: The active form of thyroid hormone is ________.
T3 (triiodothyronine)
95
What is the primary indication for PTU?
Graves' disease and hyperthyroidism.
96
True or False: Levothyroxine can interact with calcium supplements.
True
97
What lab tests are used to monitor Levothyroxine therapy?
TSH and Free T4 levels.
98
Multiple Choice: Which drug is recommended for patients who cannot tolerate Levothyroxine? A) Methimazole B) Iodine C) PTU
C) PTU
99
What is the recommended administration time for Levothyroxine?
On an empty stomach, usually in the morning.
100
Fill in the blank: The conversion of T4 to T3 is inhibited by ________.
PTU
101
What is a serious adverse effect of PTU?
Agranulocytosis
102
True or False: Levothyroxine can be used for weight loss.
False
103
What is the primary contraindication for using levothyroxine?
Untreated adrenal insufficiency.
104
True or False: Thyroid hormones can increase the effects of anticoagulants.
True.
105
Fill in the blank: Patients with __________ should avoid thyroid drugs due to the risk of exacerbating the condition.
Recent myocardial infarction.
106
Which drug class can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine?
Calcium supplements.
107
What is a common side effect of excessive thyroid hormone replacement?
Hyperthyroidism symptoms.
108
True or False: Antidepressants can interact with thyroid medications.
True.
109
What is the effect of estrogen on thyroid hormone levels?
Estrogen can increase the binding proteins for thyroid hormones, potentially requiring dosage adjustments.
110
Which medication is known to decrease the effectiveness of levothyroxine?
Rifampin.
111
Short answer: Name one contraindication for the use of antithyroid drugs.
Pregnancy.
112
True or False: Beta-blockers can be used to manage symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
True.
113
What is the interaction between thyroid hormones and digitalis?
Thyroid hormones can enhance the effects of digitalis.
114
Fill in the blank: Patients with __________ should be cautious when using thyroid medications due to increased risk of cardiac events.
Cardiovascular disease.
115
Which laboratory test is important to monitor in patients on thyroid hormone therapy?
TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone) levels.
116
True or False: Antacids do not affect the absorption of levothyroxine.
False.
117
What effect do glucocorticoids have on thyroid hormone levels?
They can decrease the conversion of T4 to T3.
118
Multiple choice: Which of the following medications can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine? A) Iron supplements B) Statins C) Antihistamines D) Antidepressants
A) Iron supplements.
119
What is the effect of lithium on thyroid function?
Lithium can cause hypothyroidism.
120
True or False: Thyroid hormone therapy is contraindicated in patients with uncontrolled hyperthyroidism.
True.
121
Short answer: What should be done if a patient on levothyroxine becomes pregnant?
Monitor and adjust the dosage as needed.
122
Fill in the blank: The use of __________ can lead to decreased effectiveness of antithyroid medications.
Iodine supplements.
123
Which herbal supplement is known to affect thyroid function?
Soy products.
124
True or False: Patients on thyroid medications do not need regular follow-up appointments.
False.
125
What is the consequence of abruptly stopping thyroid hormone therapy?
It can lead to myxedema coma in severe cases.
126
Multiple choice: Which of the following can increase the metabolism of thyroid hormones? A) Phenytoin B) Warfarin C) Antidepressants D) All of the above
A) Phenytoin.
127
What is the impact of pregnancy on the dosage of thyroid medications?
Pregnancy may require an increase in dosage due to increased thyroid hormone needs.
128
True or False: Thyroid medications can affect blood sugar levels.
True.
129
What are adrenal drugs primarily used to treat?
Adrenal drugs are primarily used to treat conditions related to adrenal insufficiency, inflammation, and allergic responses.
130
True or False: Corticosteroids are a class of adrenal drugs.
True
131
Fill in the blank: One common indication for the use of adrenal drugs is _____ disease.
Addison's
132
What is the function of glucocorticoids?
Glucocorticoids help regulate metabolism, reduce inflammation, and suppress the immune response.
133
Name one potential side effect of long-term corticosteroid use.
Osteoporosis
134
What should be monitored in patients taking adrenal drugs?
Patients' blood glucose levels, electrolyte balance, and signs of infection should be monitored.
135
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common side effect of adrenal drugs? A) Hypertension B) Hypoglycemia C) Bradycardia D) Hyperkalemia
A) Hypertension
136
True or False: Adrenal drugs can interact with NSAIDs and increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.
True
137
What are mineralocorticoids primarily used for?
Mineralocorticoids are primarily used to manage conditions such as adrenal insufficiency and to regulate sodium and potassium levels.
138
Fill in the blank: Adrenal crisis can occur when there is a sudden withdrawal of _____ drugs.
corticosteroid
139
What is an important implementation in nursing for patients on adrenal drugs?
Educate patients about the importance of not abruptly stopping their medication.
140
Multiple Choice: Which of the following should be avoided when taking adrenal drugs? A) Grapefruit B) Milk C) Water D) Apples
A) Grapefruit
141
What is the role of adrenal drugs in managing allergic reactions?
Adrenal drugs, particularly corticosteroids, are used to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune response during allergic reactions.
142
True or False: Adrenal drugs can cause weight gain as a side effect.
True
143
What is the primary action of adrenal drugs in the body?
To modulate the body's stress response and maintain homeostasis.
144
Fill in the blank: Patients taking adrenal drugs should be advised to report _____ signs.
infection
145
What is one nursing consideration when administering adrenal drugs?
Monitor for signs of adrenal insufficiency and adjust dosages accordingly.
146
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a type of adrenal drug? A) Corticosteroids B) Mineralocorticoids C) Antihistamines D) Glucocorticoids
C) Antihistamines
147
True or False: Adrenal drugs can lead to mood changes in patients.
True
148
What is a common laboratory test to monitor when a patient is on adrenal drugs?
Serum electrolytes
149
Fill in the blank: The most common glucocorticoid used in therapy is _____.
prednisone
150
What is a critical warning for patients taking adrenal drugs regarding infections?
Patients should be aware that adrenal drugs can mask the symptoms of infections.
151
Multiple Choice: What should patients taking adrenal drugs be cautious of? A) Sun exposure B) Exercise C) Diet D) All of the above
D) All of the above
152
What is the importance of tapering doses of adrenal drugs?
Tapering doses helps prevent adrenal crisis and allows the adrenal glands to resume normal function.
153
True or False: Adrenal drugs can cause gastrointestinal issues such as ulcers.
True
154
What is the primary goal of using long-acting insulin in pregnant women with diabetes?
To maintain stable blood glucose levels throughout pregnancy.
155
True or False: Long-acting insulin can be used as the sole treatment for gestational diabetes.
False
156
Fill in the blank: Long-acting insulin typically has a duration of action of ______ hours.
24 to 36
157
What are common examples of long-acting insulin used in pregnancy?
Insulin glargine and insulin detemir.
158
What should be monitored closely in pregnant patients using long-acting insulin?
Blood glucose levels.
159
How does long-acting insulin differ from short-acting insulin?
Long-acting insulin provides a steady release over a longer period, while short-acting insulin acts quickly.
160
What is the recommended starting dose of long-acting insulin for pregnant women with diabetes?
It varies based on individual needs, typically starting with a lower dose and adjusting as necessary.
161
True or False: It is safe to abruptly discontinue long-acting insulin during pregnancy.
False
162
What are potential side effects of long-acting insulin in pregnant women?
Hypoglycemia, weight gain, and injection site reactions.
163
Why is patient education important for pregnant women on long-acting insulin?
To ensure they understand dosing, administration, and signs of hypo- and hyperglycemia.
164
What is the impact of uncontrolled diabetes on pregnancy outcomes?
Increased risk of complications such as preterm birth, congenital anomalies, and macrosomia.
165
Fill in the blank: Long-acting insulin should be administered ______ of the day.
At the same time every day.
166
What is the role of continuous glucose monitoring (CGM) in managing diabetes during pregnancy?
To provide real-time blood glucose readings and help prevent hypoglycemia.
167
True or False: Insulin requirements may increase as pregnancy progresses.
True
168
What lifestyle modifications should accompany insulin therapy in pregnant women?
Healthy diet, regular physical activity, and weight management.
169
What is the significance of A1C levels during pregnancy for diabetic patients?
A1C levels should be kept below 6.5% to reduce risks of complications.
170
How often should blood glucose levels be checked in pregnant women on long-acting insulin?
Typically 4 to 6 times a day, or as directed by the healthcare provider.
171
What is the preferred method of insulin delivery for pregnant women?
Insulin pens or syringes, depending on patient preference and comfort.
172
Fill in the blank: Insulin should be stored in ______ to maintain its effectiveness.
A refrigerator.
173
What is the potential risk of using long-acting insulin in the third trimester?
Increased risk of hypoglycemia due to changes in metabolism.
174
What should be included in a nursing assessment for a pregnant patient on insulin?
Medical history, current medications, blood glucose levels, and dietary habits.
175
True or False: Long-acting insulin can cross the placenta.
False
176
What is the recommended action if a pregnant woman experiences hypoglycemia?
Administer fast-acting carbohydrates and monitor blood glucose levels closely.
177
What is a common psychological concern for pregnant women with diabetes?
Fear of complications for themselves and their baby.
178
Fill in the blank: The healthcare team should work with the patient to develop a ______ plan for managing diabetes during pregnancy.
Comprehensive care
179
What is the primary purpose of basal-bolus insulin therapy?
To mimic normal pancreatic function by providing a constant level of insulin and managing blood glucose levels with additional bolus doses.
180
True or False: Sliding scale insulin therapy is used primarily for adjusting insulin based on current blood glucose levels.
True
181
Fill in the blank: Basal insulin is administered to provide _______ control.
background
182
What are the two components of basal-bolus insulin therapy?
Basal insulin and bolus insulin.
183
Which type of insulin is typically used for basal coverage?
Long-acting insulin.
184
What is a common complication of sliding scale insulin therapy?
Hypoglycemia.
185
Short answer: What is a key nursing implication when administering insulin?
Monitor blood glucose levels regularly.
186
Multiple choice: Which of the following is NOT a type of bolus insulin? A) Rapid-acting B) Long-acting C) Short-acting D) Regular
B) Long-acting
187
True or False: Sliding scale insulin therapy is recommended for all diabetic patients.
False
188
What is the recommended timing for administering bolus insulin?
Before meals.
189
Fill in the blank: The primary goal of insulin therapy is to maintain _______ glucose levels.
normal
190
Short answer: What should a nurse do if a patient experiences hypoglycemia after insulin administration?
Administer a fast-acting carbohydrate.
191
Multiple choice: Which factor is NOT considered when determining insulin dosage? A) Patient's weight B) Meal composition C) Time of day D) Patient's favorite food
D) Patient's favorite food
192
What is the typical onset time for rapid-acting insulin?
10 to 30 minutes.
193
True or False: Basal insulin can be given once daily.
True
194
Fill in the blank: The sliding scale approach is often criticized for being _______.
reactive
195
What is a potential benefit of basal-bolus insulin therapy over sliding scale insulin?
Greater flexibility in meal timing and carbohydrate intake.
196
Short answer: Name one common long-acting insulin.
Insulin glargine.
197
Multiple choice: Which of the following is a sign of hyperglycemia? A) Sweating B) Shakiness C) Frequent urination D) Dizziness
C) Frequent urination
198
True or False: Insulin doses should be adjusted based on daily blood glucose monitoring.
True
199
Fill in the blank: The basal-bolus regimen allows for _______ adjustments based on lifestyle.
individual
200
What is the primary action of bolus insulin?
To facilitate glucose uptake during meals.
201
Short answer: What is one important patient education point regarding insulin administration?
Rotate injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy.
202
Multiple choice: Which insulin type has the longest duration of action? A) Rapid-acting B) Short-acting C) Intermediate-acting D) Long-acting
D) Long-acting
203
True or False: Insulin therapy can completely replace the need for dietary management in diabetes.
False
204
What is the primary action of Biguanides in diabetes management?
To reduce hepatic glucose production and improve insulin sensitivity.
205
True or False: Metformin is a type of Biguanide.
True.
206
Fill in the blank: Biguanides are primarily used to treat __________.
Type 2 diabetes.
207
What is a common adverse effect of Biguanides?
Gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea and nausea.
208
What serious condition can occur with Biguanide overdose?
Lactic acidosis.
209
Which laboratory test should be monitored in patients taking Biguanides?
Renal function tests (e.g., serum creatinine).
210
Name one contraindication for using Biguanides.
Severe renal impairment.
211
True or False: Biguanides can cause weight gain.
False.
212
What is the mechanism of action of Metformin?
It decreases hepatic glucose output and increases insulin sensitivity.
213
Multiple choice: Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Biguanides? A) Lactic acidosis B) Weight loss C) Hypoglycemia D) Nausea
C) Hypoglycemia.
214
What should be assessed before starting a patient on Biguanides?
Renal function.
215
Fill in the blank: Biguanides are contraindicated in patients with __________ disease.
Severe hepatic or renal.
216
True or False: Biguanides can interact with contrast media.
True.
217
Which of the following is a common drug interaction with Biguanides? A) NSAIDs B) ACE inhibitors C) Diuretics D) Contrast agents
D) Contrast agents.
218
What nursing implication is important for patients taking Biguanides?
Educate patients on the signs and symptoms of lactic acidosis.
219
True or False: Biguanides can be used in combination with insulin.
True.
220
What is the recommended action if a patient experiences severe gastrointestinal side effects from Biguanides?
Consider dose adjustment or discontinuation.
221
Multiple choice: Which patient demographic should use caution when prescribed Biguanides? A) Elderly B) Adolescents C) Pregnant women D) All of the above
A) Elderly.
222
Fill in the blank: Patients should be advised to avoid __________ while taking Biguanides due to the risk of lactic acidosis.
Excessive alcohol consumption.
223
What is one benefit of using Biguanides over other antidiabetic medications?
They do not cause weight gain and may promote weight loss.
224
True or False: Biguanides can cause hypoglycemia when used alone.
False.
225
What is the initial dosage recommendation for Metformin in adults?
500 mg orally twice a day or 850 mg once a day.
226
What should patients be advised to report while taking Biguanides?
Any symptoms of unusual fatigue, muscle pain, or difficulty breathing.
227
Multiple choice: Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention for patients on Biguanides? A) Administer without food B) Monitor blood glucose levels C) Encourage high carbohydrate diet D) Limit hydration
B) Monitor blood glucose levels.
228
What is the maximum daily dose of Metformin for most patients?
2000-2500 mg per day, depending on the formulation.
229
What is the primary action of glucose cotransporter inhibitors?
They inhibit the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys.
230
True or False: Glucose cotransporter inhibitors increase blood glucose levels.
False
231
Fill in the blank: Glucose cotransporter inhibitors primarily target the __________ in the kidneys.
Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2)
232
Name one common glucose cotransporter inhibitor medication.
Canagliflozin
233
What is one major implication of using glucose cotransporter inhibitors in diabetes management?
They can lead to weight loss in patients.
234
Multiple Choice: What is a common adverse effect of glucose cotransporter inhibitors? A) Hypoglycemia B) Urinary tract infections C) Hypertension D) Weight gain
B) Urinary tract infections
235
True or False: Glucose cotransporter inhibitors can be used in patients with type 1 diabetes.
False
236
What type of drug interaction should be monitored when using glucose cotransporter inhibitors?
Interactions with diuretics and other antihypertensive medications.
237
Fill in the blank: Glucose cotransporter inhibitors can cause __________ as an adverse effect.
Dehydration
238
What is the mechanism by which glucose cotransporter inhibitors lower blood glucose levels?
By promoting renal excretion of glucose.
239
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of glucose cotransporter inhibitors? A) Lowering blood glucose B) Reducing cardiovascular risk C) Increasing insulin secretion D) Weight loss
C) Increasing insulin secretion
240
True or False: Glucose cotransporter inhibitors are contraindicated in patients with severe renal impairment.
True
241
What is one potential long-term complication associated with glucose cotransporter inhibitors?
Increased risk of genital mycotic infections.
242
Fill in the blank: The use of glucose cotransporter inhibitors may lead to __________ in blood pressure.
Reduction
243
Multiple Choice: Glucose cotransporter inhibitors primarily affect which organ? A) Liver B) Heart C) Kidneys D) Pancreas
C) Kidneys
244
What is a unique feature of glucose cotransporter inhibitors compared to other diabetes medications?
They promote glucose excretion rather than increasing insulin production.
245
True or False: Patients using glucose cotransporter inhibitors do not need to monitor their blood sugar levels as frequently.
False
246
What is the effect of glucose cotransporter inhibitors on weight management?
They typically contribute to weight loss.
247
Fill in the blank: Glucose cotransporter inhibitors can lead to an increase in __________ due to osmotic diuresis.
Urine output
248
Multiple Choice: Which condition is a contraindication for glucose cotransporter inhibitors? A) Hypertension B) Type 1 diabetes C) Obesity D) Hyperlipidemia
B) Type 1 diabetes
249
What is one of the cardiovascular benefits of glucose cotransporter inhibitors?
They may reduce the risk of heart failure.
250
True or False: Glucose cotransporter inhibitors can cause ketoacidosis in some patients.
True
251
What should be monitored in patients taking glucose cotransporter inhibitors?
Renal function and signs of urinary tract infections.
252
Fill in the blank: The primary target of glucose cotransporter inhibitors is SGLT2, which is located in the __________.
Proximal tubule of the nephron
