Pharmacology Flashcards
(129 cards)
1
Q
When a drug’s adverse drug reaction is pharmacologically predictable, this is considered as what Type of reaction?
A
Type A
2
Q
What is a lipid soluble drug?
A
Able to dissolves in fats, oils or fatty tissues
3
Q
A client has been prescribed a lipid soluble drug. What effect would a low serum albumin have?
A
No difference in the drug response.
4
Q
What type of drug TRIGGERS A RESPONSE in a receptor?
A
An AGONIST drug
5
Q
Cocaine inhibits the re-uptake of:
A
Dopamine
6
Q
Corcordance is an informed partnership agreement negotiated between
A
The Patient and Prescriber
7
Q
“Half-life” is the time taken for…
A
the plasma concentration of a DRUG TO FALL BY 50%
8
Q
Where are most drugs metabolised?
A
Liver
9
Q
The study in the way in which the drug affects the body is called
A
PharmacoDYNAMICS
10
Q
The side effects of a drug are listed in the BNF by order of
A
FREQUENCY ie the most common first
11
Q
Which of the following antibiotics is nephrotoxic?
A. Cephalexin
B. Flucloxacillin
C. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
D. Streptomycin
A
Streptomycin.
Use BNF under Renal
12
Q
Which group population is at greatest risk of a Type A drug reaction?
A
South East Asians
13
Q
When after repeated administration, a given dose of a drug produces a decreased effect, or conversely, when increasingly larger doses must be administered to obtain the effects observed with the original use- what does this term relates to?
A
Tolerance
14
Q
Which receptors do barbiturates work on?
A
Gamma-aminobutyric acid A (GABAa) receptors.
15
Q
Which route of administration is the fastes to achieve therapeutic plasma levels?
A
Intravenous route
16
Q
Which type of receptor is responsible for the analgesic properties of Morphine?
A
Mu receptors
17
Q
Which type of receptor is responsible for the bronchodilator effects of Salbutamol?
A
Beta2 receptors (B2)
18
Q
What type of drug blocks a receptor site called?
A
ANTAgonist
19
Q
For how long is a prescription for a Schedule 2 drug valid?
A
28 days
20
Q
Generic prescribing is prescribing using the
A
Approved Name
21
Q
In the BNF Drug interactions are listed…
A
Twice - Alphabetically by drug name and by drug group interactions
22
Q
Most drugs and their metabolites are excreted via?
A
The kidneys
23
Q
SSRI is an abbreviation for
A
Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor
24
Q
The first line treatment for anaphylaxis is
A
Intramuscular adrenaline
25
The removal of some or all of the drug by the liver before it has had a therapeutic effect is called
The 1st PASS EFFECT
26
What is the effect on absorption of a drug delivered via a transdermal patch if the client is pyrexial?
Drug absorption is increased
27
What monitoring should be instigated for a client commencing on an ACEi
Renal function tests
28
When assessing the efficacy of a drug, what information is required?
Numbers needed to treat and numbers needed to harm
29
When should a dry cough in response to a drug be reported using the yellow card scheme?
When the drug is marked by a black triangle in the BNF
30
What is a common side effect of beta blockers?
Bronchospasm
31
What is the study of pharmacokinetics?
What the body does to the drug.
32
Cytochrome P450 is main family of enzymes that are involved in what process?
Metabolism
33
A lipid soluble drug will be attracted to
FAT
34
A patient may have to have regular blood tests if they are taking a drug with what property?
A narrow therapeutic window
35
During metabolism an addition of a hydrogen molecule is called
Reduction
36
A "type B" adverse drug reaction should be reported via...
Yellow Card Scheme
37
All non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) work by inhibiting what?
NSAIDs inhibit the action of Cyclo-oxygenases
38
As a general principle, oral paediatric dosages are calculated based on what?
The child's weight
39
When the body identifies a drug as an antigen, this is called
A drug allergy
40
How many steps are there in the prescribing pyramid?
Seven
41
Section 5 in the BNF considers drugs related to
Infections
42
The effects of topical preparations in infants and children are affected by:
a. Skin perfusion
b. Skin hydration
c. pH of the Drug
d. All of the above
All of the above
43
Under which circumstances is it acceptable to prescribe for a family member?
a. In a life threatening emergency
b. When they have run out of regular medication
c. It is never acceptable to prescribe for a family member
d. When they have non-serious illness/injury
In a life threatening emergency
44
What advice would you give a client on the safe storage of medicines?
Store out of reach of children
45
What is the effects on absorption of a drug delivered via a Transdermal patch if the client is HYPOthermic?
Drug absorption is decreased.
46
Which of the following antibiotics INHIBITS DNA synthesis?
A. Macrolides
B. Penecillines
C. Polymyxins
D. Ciprofloxacin
Ciprofloxacilin
47
Which of the following drug groups is most associated with avoidable drug-related admissions to hospitals?
NSAIDs
48
Which herbal preparations increase the risk of GI bleeding when taken with NSAIDs?
Garlic
Ginkgo Biloba
Ginseng
49
```
Which of the following instructions is appropriate to write on an FP10?
A. Maximum 8 tablets in 24 hours
B. All of these
C. Label 20
D. As directed
```
Maximum 8 tablets in 24 hours.
50
What anti-bacterial agent is an Antifolate?
Trimethroprim
51
What advice would you give a patient for whom you have prescribed amoxicillin?
Take are regular intervals. Complete the course unless otherwise directed.
52
Appendix 4 in the BNF deals with...
Wound Management
53
The terms child or children are used generically to describe age ranges from...
aged 1 month - 17 years
54
Breastfeeding is generally accepted to be safe in women taking:
a. Warfarin
b. Rituximab
c. Amantadine
d. Methotextrate
Warfarin
55
Generic prescribing is prescribing using the...
Approved name
56
How should the prescriber endorse a prescription for a drug that is contraceptive purposes to ensure it is dispensed free of charge?
♀
57
If a patient has received an overdose of a benzodiazepine two hours ago which drug would be given?
Flumazenil
| See BNF page 1440
58
___ data summarises drug and appliances prescribing patterns for an individual prescriber.
PACT data
59
The active ingredients in Marvelon are
Desogestrel +
| Ethinylestradiol
60
What circumstances must the quantity of the drug to be dispensed be included on an FP10?
When the medicine is to be taken as required (PRN) but the frequency and numbers of days treatment is not specified.
61
What does the acronym WWHAM stand for?
```
W -Who is it for?
W -What are the symptoms?
H - How long have the symptoms been present?
A - any Action taken so far?
M - any other Medication?
```
62
____ chain is the audit storage mechanisms to ensure the viability of a vaccine
Cold chain
63
Which of the following antibiotics INHIBITS CELL WALL SYNTHESIS?
A. Penecillins
B. Polymyxins
C. Macrolides
D. Ciprofloxacin
PENICILLINS
64
Cranberry juice, garlic and St John's Wort interacts with which type of drug group?
Coumarins such as Warfarin
65
Which of the following is good advice for a prescriber relating to pharmaceutical representatives?
A. Decide if the information is evidence or marketing
B. Refuse to see even with an appointment
C. Accept drug information at face value
D. Accept all offers of free gifts
Decide if the information is evidence or marketing.
66
Which of the following is not a feature of an aspirin overdose?
Sweating
Hypoventilation
Vasodilatation
Tinnitus
Hypoventilation
67
Which of the following statements is true of Gram positive organisms?
a. Lower likelihood of developing antibiotic resistance
b. Greater likelihood of developing antibiotic resistance
c. Thinner cell walls than gram negative organisms
d. Small amounts of peptidoglycans in the cell wall
Lower likelihood of developing antibiotic resistance
68
Which section in the BNF identifies drugs affecting the musculo-skeletal system?
Section 10
69
Ispaghula Husk is an example of what type of laxative?
Bulk forming laxative
70
If a drug has a relatively short half life the route for administration is likely to be:
a. Oral 3 - 4 times a day
b. By subcutaneous injection
c. Orally once a day
d. By depot injection
Oral 3-4 times daily
71
Which diuretic is known to be Ototoxic?
Loop diuretics
72
Salbutamol is an example of a drug that is a ______ agonist.
b2 Adrenoreceptor agonist
73
Which of the following drugs should be used with caution if the client has diabetes mellitus?
a. Thiazide diuretics
b. Beta Blockers
c. Tricyclic Antidepressants
d. All of these
Thiazide diurectics - this can exacerbate diabetes and gout.
74
SSRIs are from which group of drugs?
Anti-depressants
75
What is the receptor in Ranitidine?
(Histamine) H2 receptor antagonist
It heals gastric and duodenal ulcers by reducing gastric acid output as a result of the Histamine H2-receptor blockade.
76
What should patients avoid when taking Metronidazole?
Drinking alcohol.
77
Who is responsible for ensuring that the client understands the dosing regimen?
Prescriber.
78
Which of the following is not a common side effect of a β² adrenoceptor agonist?
a. Bradycardia
b. Tremor
c. Insomnia
d. Palpitations
Bradycardia
79
Why would you anticipate a client may complain of a dry mouth, constipation and blurred vision following a prescription for an antimuscarinic drug?
Antimuscurinic drugs decrease smooth muscle activity.
80
In relation to renal excretion in neonates and infants, adult levels of renal function are achieved by the age of 1 year.
True or False
True.
81
Which class of drug inhibits the action of cyclo-oxygenases?
NSAIDs
82
Which drugs are considered the first line treatment for Hyperlipidaemia?
Statins
83
Diazepam is contra-indicated in which type of condition?
Severe hepatic impairment
84
There is enough of the population are immunised to to limit the spread of the disease is a term called...
Herd Immunity
85
Which organisation identifies the drugs that may be prescribed on the NHS budget?
NICE -
| National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence
86
Security of unused prescription pads (FP10) is the responsibility of...
Employer and prescriber
87
When writing a prescription, what information is absolutely compulsory or required by law?
The prescriber's qualification and PIN
88
What is the effect on absorption of an oral drug if gut motility is increased?
Drug absorption is decreased.
89
Which drugs are considered the first line treatment for uncomplicated hypertension in a young Caucasian diabetic?
Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibtor (ACEi)
90
What is a common side effect of a beta blocker?
Bronchospasms
91
Clozapine can cause ____
Agranulocytosis
92
Which antibiotics inhibit PROTEIN SYNTHESIS?
Macrolides.
93
Which antibiotic inhibits bacterial cell wall systhesis?
Penicillins
94
As an independant and supplementary prescriber when would a Clinical Management Plan (CMP) be legally required to prescribe a medication?
When prescribing for a client outside your normal scope of practice.
95
In a patient with a mild asthma attack, why is it considered best practice to use a salbutamol inhaler rather than a nebuliser?
Sufficient drug will reach the target receptors without much systemic absorption.
96
Olivia has been given a prescription for clarithromycin. What is the advice regarding clarithromycin administration in a patient with hepatic impairment? Select the correct answer.
Avoid in severe hepatic impairment if renal impairment is also present.
97
You get called to Sara who is 22. 4 days ago she was supplied a course of amoxicillin for a productive cough with green sputum with fever. Sara now has signs of severe systemic illness. She says she took a few of the tablets but kept forgetting. What is the most likely reason for the progression of the illness?
The lack of adherence has led to an insufficient time above the minimum inhibitory concentration to have had an effect on the bacteria.
98
When are benzodiazepines most effective in a tonic clonic seizure and why?
In the first 30 minutes as there is a significant decrease in the number of inhibitory GABAa receptor subunits after this time.
99
Jason is 19 yrs old, who has injected opioid and is unresponsive. On clinical assessment, he was also bradypnoeic. As a result of the presenting symptoms, he was given IM injection of naloxone which improved his respiratory function and consciousness levels but after a short time he becomes bradypnoeic and unresponsive again. What is the most likely reason for this?
Naloxone has a short half life relative to the opioid and the naloxone is therefore eliminated quicker.
100
Geoff is a 65 year old gentleman who was prescribed an anticoagulant when he was diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. The medication is given to reduce the formation of clots and reduce the chance of stroke.
Rivaroxaban impacts the normal clotting cascade by which of the following?
Inhibits factor Xa action.
101
Solomon has been given codeine by his doctor but explains that the pain is not improving and the medicine doesn’t seem to be working. He also takes Ramipril. What is the most likely reason that his pain is not improving?
Solomon has a deficiency in the CYP2D6 enzyme resulting in him not achieving therapeutic levels of the active metabolite.
102
Adam is a middle-aged male patient, who regularly consults the internet for solutions to his various ailments. Recently he has decided to ‘self-prescribe’ a daily dose of aspirin.
Aspirin impacts the normal clotting cascade by which of the following?
Inhibits COX-1 action
103
What is the advice regarding chloramphenicol administration in pregnancy?
There is a risk of neonatal grey baby syndrome if used in third trimester so it should be avoided.
104
Victoria is an older lady who has been suffering from arrythmias and heart failure for several years. Many of her treatments failed to work, resulting in a hit or miss approach to her drug management. Eventually she was treated with digoxin, which appears to stabilise her symptoms quite well.
Effective digoxin therapy is associated with which of the following?
Increased Left Ventricular Ejection Fraction
105
A histamine antagonist has which of the following properties?
Anti-emetic
106
In palliative care why is the subcutaneous route often used to administer medicines?
It maintains a steady plasma concentration, avoiding the peaks and troughs of other routes
107
You intend to give your patient an injection of morphine. You check the medicine with someone else and then pass the syringe to your ambulance technician colleague to administer. Is this legally allowed? Select the correct statement regarding the legality of the action
No, it is listed under the Human Medicines Regulations 2012 schedule 17 which means that only Paramedics can administer it.
108
If lorazepam and buccal diazepam are shown to have less adverse effects after the termination of the seizure, why to ambulance trusts not routinely give these instead of diazepam?
Diazepam is more stable under the likely storage conditions
109
Which of these is not a side effect of a tricyclic antidepressant?
a. diarrhoea
b. lucopaenia
c. postural hypotension
d. tremor
Diarrhoea
110
```
Which of these antibacterial agents is a Macrolide?
Erythromycin
Ciprofloxacin
Gentamycin
Trimethoprim
```
Erythromycin
111
Dysport and Neurobloc are trade names associated with
Botulinum neurotoxin type A
112
```
Which of the following is not a feature of an aspirin overdose?
Hypoventilation
Sweating
Tinnitus
Vasodilatation
```
Hypoventilation
113
Antipsychotics can cause:
a) raised prolactin levels
b) reduced prolactin levels
c) raised cortisol levels
Raised prolactin levels
114
```
Which of the following factors limits the request for an inappropriate prescription?
Education of the patient and population
Seeking advice from microbiologists
Fear of complications or litigation
Pressure from pharmaceutical companies
```
Education of the patient and population
115
Who authorises payments to contractors for the dispensing of NHS prescriptions?
Prescription Pricing Authority
116
Which of the following organisms produces collagenase?
Streptococci and Staphylococci
E. coli and Klebsiella
Clostridium tetani and Clostridium botulinum
Salmonella and Treponema
Streptococci and Staphylococci
117
Which of the following statements is correct
NSAIDs can cause gastric irritation when given by rectal route
Metoclopramide delays gastric emptying
Gentamicin is a bacteriostatic macrolyde
As a independent prescriber you are only permitted to prescribe a POM
NSAIDs can cause gastric irritation when given by rectal route
118
```
Which of the following conditions is a contra-indication to prescribing a Tricyclic antidepressant?
Recent myocardial infarction
Recent Stroke
Recent Kidney disease
All of these
```
Recent myocardial infarction
119
Following which phase trial could a new pharmaceutical drug be given marketing authorisation (a licence)?
Phase 3
120
```
Which of the following conditions would be a contra-indication to prescribing an ACE inhibitor
Pregnancy
Kidney disease
Liver disease
Porphyria
```
Pregnancy
121
```
Which of the following is not a good reason to issue a prescription?
To meet client expectation
To relieve symptoms
As a trial of diagnosis
To prevent future illness
```
To meet client expectation
122
Vicarious liability is when
The employer accepts liability for the employees actions
The employee accepts liability for their own action
No harm has occurred to the client from the employees action
The client accepts responsibility for the employees actions
The employer accepts liability for the employees actions
123
```
You have administered haloperidol to a patient presenting with Acute Behavioural Disturbance. Considering the pharmacokinetics of haloperidol, which medicine is most likely to result in an adverse event when both medicines are in the systemic circulation at the same time?
Itraconazole - a CYP3A4 inhibitor
Phenytoin - a CYP2C9 inhibitor
Nefazodone - a CYP3A5 inhibitor
Chlormethiazole - a CYP2E1 inhibitor
```
Itraconazole - a CYP3A4 inhibitor
124
Paracetamol can be given by the IV route but must be given slowly. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this?
It is believed that the excipient, mannitol, causes hypotension.
The half life of paracetamol is longer by the IV route so the drug will last longer in the system.
Rapid rises in systemic paracetamol cause ototoxicity.
The advice to give it slowly is for best-practice to ensure that users have time to check the product in case of an error.
It is believed that the excipient, mannitol, causes hypotension.
125
Vicarious liability is when
The client accepts responsibility for the employees actions
The employee accepts liability for their own action
No harm has occurred to the client from the employees action
The employer accepts liability for the employees actions
The employer accepts liability for the employees actions
126
You are called to Mike, a 26 year old male. On arrival he is very agitated, sweaty, tachycardic, tachypnoeic, non compliant and is very manic and not engaging.
His friends explain that he has been out with them all night and consumed lots of alcohol and 6 ‘lines’ of cocaine.
What best describes one of the main actions of cocaine on the central nervous system:
It increases acetylcholine concentrations in the synapses
It decreases glycine concentrations in the synapses
It increases dopamine concentrations in the synapses
It decreases histamine concentrations in the synapses
It increases dopamine concentrations in the synapses
127
Geoff is a 65 year old gentleman who was prescribed an anticoagulant when he was diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. The medication is given to reduce the formation of clots and reduce the chance of stroke.
Warfarin impacts the normal clotting cascade by which of the following?
Inhibits factor IX action
Inhibits Vit K oxidase-reductase reaction
Inhibits COX-1 action
Inhibits factor Xa action
Inhibits Vit K oxidase-reductase reaction
128
You intend to give your patient a hydrocortisone injection for severe asthma. You check the medicine with someone and then pass the syringe to your ambulance technician colleague to administer. Is this legally allowed? Select the correct statement regarding the legality of the action.
No, the medicines are under your care as the Paramedic and must only be given by you.
Yes, it is listed under the Human Medicines Regulations 2012 schedule 19 and therefore they are allowed to administer it in an emergency.
Yes, it is listed under the Human Medicines Regulations 2012 schedule 17 which allows this use by technicians.
No, as this medicine requires a PGD to be administered.
Yes, it is listed under the Human Medicines Regulations 2012 schedule 19 and therefore they are allowed to administer it in an emergency.
129
You are called to Margaret, a 56 year old female who has been complaining of acid reflux. She has a history of post-menopausal osteoporosis and takes Alendronic Acid 10mg daily. After discussions with her GP, you both agree that Gaviscon (Sodium bicarbonate & Calcium carbonate) is the best course of treatment for Margaret. Which of the following pieces of advice must she be given prior to commencing this treatment?
There are no known interactions
Alendronic acid should be taken 30min after Calcium carbonate
You Answered
Alendronic acid should be taken 30min before Sodium bicarbonate
Alendronic acid should be taken 30min before Calcium carbonate
Alendronic acid should be taken 30min before Calcium carbonate
