Pharmacology Flashcards

(102 cards)

1
Q

Half life of mifepristone

A

25-30hours

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2
Q

Structure of heparin

A

Polysaccharide (repeating disaccarides)

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3
Q

Amount of hormone released in LNG in 24 hours (mirena)

A

20 micrograms/ 24 hours

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4
Q

MOA Fluconazole

A

Inhibits synthesis of ergosterol from lanosterol, inhibiting cell wall synthesis

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5
Q

MOA labetalol

A

Competitive alpha-1 (selective) and non-selective beta-1 blocker (antagonist)

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6
Q

MOA warfarin

A

Competitively inhibits vit K epoxide reductase complex 1. Interferes with synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors (X, IX, VII and II- 1972)

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7
Q

MOA dalteparin

A

Factor Xa and thrombin inhibitor

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8
Q

MOA raltegavir

A

Integrase inhibitor

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9
Q

Metabolism of isoniazid

A

N-acetylation of its hydrazine in the liver

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10
Q

MOA of methotrexate

A

Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor

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11
Q

MOA of clomiphene citrate

When should it be taken? Dose?

A

Selective estrogen receptor modulator:
Induces LH/FSH release by occupying oestrogen receptors in hypothalamus, promoting FSH release.
Stimulates ovarian aromatase activity and up regulate of granulosa LH receptors.

Stimulates ovulation

D2-6 of cycle. 50-100mg.

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12
Q

Dinoprostone MOA

A

Prostaglandin E2- stimulates uterine contractions

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13
Q

Contraceptive implant MOA

A

Ovulation inhibition and increase in viscosity of cervical mucus.

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14
Q

Teratogenic effect of ACEi

A

Fetal renal damage
Oligohydramnios
Skull defects

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15
Q

Most common side effect of oxybutynin

A

Dry mouth (antimuscarinic)

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16
Q

Absolute contraindications to COCP

A

<21 days post partum with other risk factors for VTE

0-6 weeks post partum and breastfeeding

Age >=35 and smokes >=15 cigarettes per day

Hypertension with BP >160 systolic or >100 diastolic

Vascular disease, heart disease, stroke/ TIA

History of VTE or current VTE

Major surgery (>30 mins) with prolonged immobilisation

Known thrombogenic mutation e.g. factor V Leiden

Antiphospholipid syndrome

Complicated valvular/ congenital heart disease (e.g. pulmonary hypertension)

Cardiomyopathy with impaired cardiac function

AF

Migraine with aura

Current breast cancer

Severe (decompensated) liver cirrhosis

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17
Q

MOA penicillins

A

Beta-lactam: inhibit peptidoglycan cross-links in bacterial cell wall synthesis (bactericidal)

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18
Q

MOA cephalosporins & examples

A

Beta lactam: inhibit peptidoglycan cross-links in bacterial cell wall synthesis (bactericidal)

Cefalexin, Ceftriaxone, Cefuroxime

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19
Q

MOA macrolides and examples

Excretion

A

Peptidyltransferase inhibitor. Reversibly bind 50S ribosome, block peptide elongation (bacteriostatic)

Erythromycin, Clarithromycin, Azithromycin

Excreted by liver

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20
Q

MOA fluoroquinolones and examples

A

DNA gyrase inhibitor- required to supercoil DNA = inhibit nucleic acid synthesis

Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin, Ofloxacin

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21
Q

MOA Tetracyclines and examples

A

Bind to 30S subunit of microbial ribosomes, blocking attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site on the ribosome

Lymecycline, Oxytetracycline, Doxycycline

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22
Q

MOA Nitrofurantoin

A

Damages bacterial DNA via multiple reactive intermediaries

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23
Q

MOA Trimethoprim

A

Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor (thus inhibiting bacterial DNA synthesis)

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24
Q

ACEi/ ARBs adverse effect on fetus/ neonate

A

Congenital Malformations
Renal dysgenesis
Oligohydramnios as a result of fetal oliguria
Pulmonary hypoplasia
IUGR
Neonatal anuric renal failure

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25
Carbimazole adverse effect on fetus/ neonate
Choanal atresia GIT defects Omphalocoele Aplasia cutis (missing section of skin)
26
Warfarin adverse effect on fetus/ neonate
Warfarin Embryopathy: - Hypoplasia of nasal bridge - Congenital heart defects - Ventriculomegaly - Agenesis of the corpus callosum - Stippled epiphyses (focal bone calcification) - Risk of intracranial haemorrhage in 3rd trimester -Diaphragmatic hernia
27
Metronidazole adverse effect on fetus/ neonate
Diarrhoea Lactose intolerance
28
Gentamicin/ Erythromycin adverse effect on fetus/ neonate
Ototoxicity
29
Tetracycline adverse effect on fetus/ neonate
Yellowing of teeth Suggested link with cleft palate
30
Lithium adverse effect on fetus/ neonate
Cardiac Defects- Ebstein's anomaly
31
Sodium Valporate adverse effect on fetus/ neonate
Cardiac Defects
32
SSRIs adverse effect on fetus/ neonate
Withdrawal syndrome in neonates Some linked to CVS defects and Pulmonary Hypertension but evidence conflicting
33
Highest risk time to take warfarin?
6-12 weeks 5% chance of Warfarin emyropathy
34
Can Warfarin be used during breastfeeding?
Yes. Women converted to LMWH during pregnancy should be changed back 5-7 days after delivery
35
Licensed use of Tamoxifen Contraindications MOA
Oestrogen receptor positive breast ca & anovulatory infertility CI: personal or FHx of VTE MOA: Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (Increases risk of endometrial ca.)
36
Max dose of lidocaine
3mg/kg (without adrenaline) 7mg/kg (with adrenaline) 1% lidocaine = 1g/100ml or 10mg/ml. Max dose for 70kg patient is 210mg = 21ml of 1% lidocaine
37
MOA of cyclizine
Histamine H1-receptor antagonist
38
MOA of Promethazine
Histamine H1-receptor antagonist
39
MOA Ondansetron
Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist
40
Prochlorperazine MOA
Dopamine D2 receptor antagonist
41
Metoclopramide MOA
Dopamine D2 receptor antagonist 5-HT3 receptor antagonist 5-HT4 receptor agonist
42
MOA Lincosamide Abx and example
Interfere with synthesis of proteins via binding 50S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting peptide bond formation Clindamycin
43
MOA Terbinafine and amorolfine (anti-fungals)
Inhibit squalene epoxidase- enzyme that catalyses conversion of squalene to lanosterol. Lanosterol is a precursor to Ergosgterol- a vital component of fungal cell walls.
44
How does clomiphene trigger ovulation?
It inhibits oestrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, inhibiting the negative feedback effect of oestrogen. This results in more GnRH release, therefore more LH/ FSH release from the anterior pituitary, driving ovarian follicular activity
45
Risk of using metoclopramide in young people
Can cause oculogyric crisis (spasmodic movements of eyeballs into a fixed position, usually upwards) and is not licensed for people under 20 years old. Should be limited to 5 days use.
46
How many times stronger than morphine is fentanyl?
80 to 100 times stronger
47
Codeine/ tramadol MOA
Agonists of the Mu receptor, but also agonists at the Delta and Kappa receptors
47
Morphine's primary MOA
Mu receptor agonist As is fentanyl and methadone
48
Benefits of antenatal steroids vs risks Who is offered them
Benefits: Associated with significant reduction in rates of neonatal death, RDS and intraventicular haemorrhage & safe for mother Risks: may cause low blood sugars in baby after birth. Less information on long term implications for babies, may affect brain development leading to delay in reaching developmental milestones, but evidence is limited. Offered to women due to have planned CS between 37 and 39 weeks, probably reducing the chance the baby will need admission to neonatal unit for breathing problems Also offered to those at risk of spontaneous vaginal birth 24+0 to 34+6 weeks gestation
49
Regimens of antenatal corticosteroids Who should receive them? When are they most effective?
Dexamethasone IM 6mg x4 doses Betamethasone 12mg IM x 2 doses 12h apart Single course is recommended in women between 24+0 and 34+6 at risk of preterm delivery Recommended for women having ELCS before 38+6 Most effective 24h- 7 days after administration
50
MOA lidocaine Lidocaine half life
Blocks fast voltage gated sodium channels Half life 2h
51
MOA metronidazole
Nitroimidazole class- inhibits nucleic acid synthesis by forming nitroso radicals, which disrupt the DNA of microbial cells
52
Cabergoline and Bromocriptine are agonists of which receptor?
D2 --> reduce dopamine levels and milk production
53
Half life of oxytocin How long to respond following IV/ IM dose and when it subsides
5 minutes Following intravenous administration, uterine response occurs almost immediately and subsides within 1 hour Following intramuscular injection, uterine response occurs within 3 to 5 minutes and persists for 2 to 3 hours Following iv infusion, steady state and maximal uterine activity is reached after 20-40 minutes hence oxytocin infusion is increased every 30 minutes
54
Half life of Misoprostal
20-40 minutes
55
Half life of ergometrine
30-120 minutes
56
MOA of TXA
Plasminogen-activator inhibitor (Inhibits plasmin formation) It inhibits the dissolution of thrombosis (and fibrin) that leads to menstrual flow. It can reduce flow by up to 50%.
57
MOA mefanamic acid
Works by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. It reduces menstrual loss by around 25% in three quarters of women
58
MOA heparin
Activation of Antithrombin III and inactivation of factor Xa
59
MOA Mifepristone
Anti-progestogen: competes for progesterone receptors, acting as an antagonist
60
Ulipristal (EllaOne) MOA
Selective anti-progesterone modulator 30mg single dose Effective up to 5 days post SI Inhibits ovulation If vomiting within 3h repeat dose can be given
61
Levenogestrel (Levonelle) MOA
Synthetic progesterone 1.5mg single dose ASAP after SI, licensed up to 72h post SI If vomiting within 2h, repeat dose can be given
62
Drug causes of hyperprolactinaemia
Atypical antipsychotics eg risperidone Phenothiazines eg chlorpromazine Butyrophenones eg haloperidol Thioxanthenes Metoclopramide Dopamine synthesis inhibitors eg -Methyldopa Catecholamine depletors eg Reserpine Opiates eg Codeine H2 antagonists eg Cimetidine, Ranitidine Amitriptyline SSRI's eg Fluoxetine Calcium channel blockers eg Verapamil Oestrogens Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
63
MOA Atosiban
Oxytocin receptor antagonist
64
MOA traditional POP vs desogestrel only & brand names
Traditional POP: thickening of cervical mucus - Norgeston - Micronor & Noriday - Femulen Desogestrel POP: inhibits ovulation - Cerezette - Aizea - Cerelle - Nacrez
65
Which local anaesthetic is an amide and which are esters?
Lidocaine = amide Benzocaine/ Cocaine/ Procaine/ Tetracaine = esters
66
Which neurotransmitter is used by the sympathetic/PS preganglionic neuron?
ACh
67
MOA Methyldopa
Centrally acts as alpha 2 receptor agonist
68
MOA Cyclizine
H1 antagonist
69
Why is Vit D recommended in pregnancy?
Prevent rickets in neonate
70
Which COCP is beneficial in PCOS?
Yasmin (ethinylestradiol/ drosperinone)- beneficial for acne and hirsutism Dianette (cyproterone acetate, ethinylestradiol)- not if high BMI- high risk of VTE Both are anti-androgenic
71
Medication for stress UI
Duloxetine 5HT and NA reuptake inhibitor- increases urinary sphincter tone
72
Medication for urge UI/OAB, MOA & contraindications
Tolterodine (M1-4) (1st line) Oxybutynin (M1-4) (1st line) Darifenacin (1st line) Solifenacin (Vesicare) (M2/3 receptors) (2nd line) MOA: Both muscarinic receptor antagonists- inhibit detrusor contractions CI: Closed angle glaucoma (pilocarpine eye drops are muscarinic receptor agonists), Myasthenia graves, paralytic ileus Mirabegron can be used if anti-muscarinic is CI (selective beta3 adrenorecptor agonist)
73
MOA anti-thyroids
Propylthiourcil and carbimazole Prevent the peroxidase oxidation of iodide to iodine in the thyroid gland Propylthiouracil also has a peripheral action (prevents deionisation of thyroxine)
74
LMWH MOA
Inhibits factor Xa by binding to anti-thrombin, thereby inhibiting the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
75
Progestogens in contraception and their risk of VTE
COCs containing levonorgestrel, norethisterone and norgestimate carry the lowest risk of VTE. Etonogestrel and norelgestromin are slightly higher Highest risk: estrogen and drospirenone, gestodene, desogestrel, and co-cyprindiol (cyproterone/ethinylestradiol).
76
Why can't clomifene be used >6 months
Increased risk of ovarian cancer
77
MOA glycopeptides and examples G neg or positive bacteria?
Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to d-alanyl-d-alanine, preventing incorporation of new subunits Vancomycin & teicoplanin (associated with red man syndrome) Only active agains gram positive bacteria Not absorbed in GIT
78
Aminoglycosides MOA and examples G neg or positive bacteria? Excretion
MOA: inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Irreversibly bind to 30S ribosomal proteins (bactericidal) Gentamicin, Tobramycin, Netilmicin, Streptomycin Active against G negative bacteria Excreted via kidneys
79
Sulfonamides MOA and examples Metabolism
MOA: inhibit bacterial synthesis of tetrahydrofolic acid= antimetabolite Sulfasalazine, Sulfamethazine, sulfamethoxazole (in co-trimoxazole with trimethoprim) Active orally, metabolised by liver, excreted by kidneys Recognised cause of SJS
80
Anti-retroviral medications Classes, examples and MOA
1. Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) e.g. Zidovudine, Tenofovir, Lamivudine MOA: Target HIV reverse transcriptase, disrupting creation of proviral DNA, halting HIV replication. 2. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) e.g. Doravirine, Efavirenz, Etravirine, Nevirapine, Rilpivirine MOA: bind directly to reverse transcriptase, blocking its action 3. Integrase inhibitors e.g. Raltegravir, Elvitegravir MOA: target HIV integrase, which is needed for viral replication. Integrase inserts viral genomic DNA into host chromosome. 4. Entry inhibitors e.g. Maraviroc, enfuviritide MOA: stop HIV from entering human cells. HIV must bind CD4 receptor and a co-receptor (CCR5 or CXCR4), entry inhibitors block one of these co-receptors. 5. Protease inhibitors e.g. Atazanavir, Darunavir, Lopinavir MOA: block activity of protease enzyme, which HIV uses to break up large poly proteins into smaller pieces to make new viral particles from. 6. Post attachment inhibitors e.g. Ibalizumab MOA: bind CD4 receptor, preventing HIV GP120 protein from changing shape to engage with co-receptors. 7. Booster drugs e.g. Ritonavir, Cobicistat MOA: boost effects of protease inhibitors- make the liver breakdown the PI more slowly, reducing clearance and increasing plasma levels.
81
Chloramphenicol effect on fetus
Neonatal gray syndrome
82
Carbamazepine effect on fetus
Diminished growth and hypospadias
83
Sodium valproate effect on fétus
Neural tube defects
84
Vitamin A/ retinoids effect on fetus How long should be discontinued before conception
Skeletal deformity Accumulates in skin/ fat therefore avoid conception for 2 years after treatment
85
Diuretic effect on fetus
Neonatal thrombocytopenia
86
Atenolol effect on fetus
IUGR Neonatal hypohlycaemia Bradycardia
87
Prostin Gemeprost Carboprost Misoprostol What type of PG?
Prostin = PGE2 Gemeprost = PGE1 analogue (PV) Carboprost = 15methyl PGF2alpha (IM) Misoprostol = PGE1
88
How many amino acids in Oxytocin? Where is it synthesised? What receptors does it work on? How can it cause hyponatraemia?
9 Paraventricular nuclei Acts through G protein couples receptor and allium-calmodulin complex Has ADH like effects and can cause hyponatraemia, reflex hypotension and tachycardia
89
Tocolytics & MOA When should they be used?
Nifedipine or Atosiban to allow time for steroids to work +/- in utero transfer if needed 24w-33w gestation Atosiban = oxytocin receptor antagonist (IV infusion) Nifedipine (CCB)- PO & cheaper than above 20mg PO, then 10-20mg TDS/ DQS according to uterine activity for 48h Terbutaline 250mcg SC (emergency) = beta 2 adrenergic receptor agonist
90
Dose of MgSO4 for PET
4g loading dose 1g/h maintenance dose
91
Prevention/ management of PPH Drugs & doses
Active management of third stage: - IM oxytocin (5u, 10u) OR 1ml syntometrine (500mcg ergo and 5u oxytocin- IM) - IV oxytocin (5u at CS or f/u dose) - Ergometrine 250-500mcg IM or slow IV - IV infusion 40units oxytocin in 40ml saline at 10ml/h - Carboprost 250mcg IM, repeated every 15min as needed. Total dose shouldn't exceed 2mg (8 doses) - Misoprostol 1000mcg PR
92
Pethidine - Dose - Side effects - When is it at its highest concentration in the foetus - How does it cross the placenta
- Dose: 50-100mg every 4h IM - Delays gastric emptying, resp depression and hypoventilation - Highest fetal concentration 2-3h post IM injection. Fetal concentrations are higher than maternal because its a weak base and more ionised in the acidic environment of the fetal circulation - Binds to alpha1 acid glycoprotein and readily crosses placenta by passive diffusion
93
Drugs that suppress lactation
Bromocriptine (D2 agonist) Cabergoline (D2 agonist) Aspirin Tetracyclines Ciprofloxacin Litium DIazepam Carbimazole Caffeine Nicotine
94
Safe in breastfeeding
NSAIDs, codeine (check baby not drowsy), morphine, methadone Penicilins, cephalosporins, macrolides Labetalol, nifedipine, captopril, enalapril, metoprolol, atenolol, amlodipine Phenytoin, carbemazepine, sodium valproate SSRIs, TCAs Warfarin Heparin Insulin
95
Drugs that increase prolactin
Metoclopramide, Domperidone Amisulpride & most other antipsychotics Verapamil, Methyldopa Estrogen and COC
96
When is a Cu-IUCD appropriate for emergency contraception?
May be inserted within 5 days UPSI or not more than 5 days after known ovulation Use instead of levonelle or Ellaone if patient also on Liver enzyme inducing medication, as this may affect their efficacy
97
Examples of alkylating agents and how they work
Cylophosphamide Chlorambucil Form covalent bonds with DNA side chains, causing deprivation, strong breaks and cross linking
97
How does diazepam cross placenta?
Can cross readily due to lipid solubility
98
Anti-metabolite that is the pro-drug for 6-mercaptourine & MOA
Azathioprine MOA: Antagonizes purine metabolism and inhibits synthesis of DNA, RNA, and proteins.
99
Drug associated with haemorrhage cystitis
Cyclophosphamide
100
Which SSRI should be avoided in first trimester and why?
Paroxetine- causes fetal heart defects