Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Hem/Onc 2 > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

(90 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is the main target of cancer that we try direct drugs agaisnt?

A

The frequent cell cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Since cancer cell therapy is still working on human cells (and cells that divide rapidly), what is the general therapeutic window for anti-cancer drugs?

A

Its narrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What tissues have rapid cell division, which can have problems in anti-cancer drugs?

A

GI tract
Bone marrow
Hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which polymerase elongates RNA polymers? DNA?

A

RNA pol elongates RNA polymers

DNA pol elongates DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the type of repair available for DNA replication errors?

A

Mismatch repair (MMR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the type of repair available for small base modifications and single-strand breaks?

A

Base excision repair (BER)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the type of repair available for the removal of bulky adducts?

A

Nucleotide excision repair (NER)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the type of repair available for double-stranded breaks?

A

Homologous recombination or nonhomologous end-joining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which cancer involves mutations in MLH1, PMS2, MSH2, or MSH6 in 70-80% of the cases?

A

Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Sporatic colorectal cancer involves instability of what?

A

Microsatellites

leading to errors in insertion/deletion of microsatellite repeat sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In the inosine monophosphate pathway, which drug inhibits Ribonucleotide reductase, which prevents GMP –> dGMP?

A

Hydroxyurea

also inhibits AMP –> dAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In the inosine monophosphate pathway, which drugs inhibits IMPDH, which prevents IMP –> XMP?

A

6-mercaptopurine

Thioguanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In the inosine monophosphate pathway, which drug inhibits IMP –> Adenylosuccinate?

A

6-mercaptopurine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In the inosine monophosphate pathway, which drugs inhibits dATP –> DNA?

A

Fludarabine

Cladribine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

So hydroxyurea inhibits ribonucleotide reductase inhibits the conversion of what 2 things?

A

UMP –> dUMP

CTP –> dCTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which drug inhibits the conversion of dCTP –> DNA in the aspartate pathway?

A

Cytarabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which drug inhibits the conversion of dUMP –> dTMP in the aspartate pathway by blocking thymidylate synthase?

A

5-FU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which drug inhibits DHFR in the aspartate pathway, which inhibits the conversion of DHF –> THF?

A

Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the enzyme that uses an RNA template to synthesize TTAGGG repeates to restore the length on the end of the chromosome?

A

Telomarase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which does 5-FU form a covalent bond with to inhibit thymidylate synthase?

A

MTHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the orally bioavailable prodrug of 5-FU?

A

Capecitabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Capecitabine a first line treatment for?

A

Colorectal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Capecitabine a second line treatment for?

A

Breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the folate analogue that acts like 5-FU, which is believed to induce thymineless cell death?

A

Pemetrexed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which agents are used to treat epithelial tumors, mesenchymal tumors, carcinomas, and sarcomas?
Alkylating agents
26
Generally, alkylating agents are electrophilic and act on which nucleophilic sites on DNA?
N-7 and O-6 of guanine
27
What are some examples of alkylating agnets? | not an obj, just to review the names in case they show up on the exam
cyclophosphamide, mechlorethamine, melphalan, chlorambucil, and thiotepa
28
What "ring" does DNA alkylating agents cleave to cause an icnreased risk of cancer?
guanine imidazole ring --> disruption of DNA molecular structure
29
What 2 things does alkylating agents create abnormal base-pairing with to cause miscoding and mutation?
Alkylated guanine and thymine
30
Which residue does alkylating agents excise (depurination) do ↑ the risk of cancer?
Guanine
31
What is the drug that is used to treat superficial bladder cancers?
Thiotepa
32
Can thiotepa be administered orally?
No
33
What is the drug that targets hypoxic tumor cells, because it required bioreductive activation, which occurs more readily in low-O2 environments?
Mitomycin
34
What cancer is Dacarbazine used for?
Hodgkins disease
35
Procarbazine is also used for Hodgkins disease, but what route of availability can it be used?
Oral | gigg. giggity
36
What is the enzyme that prevents permanent DNA damage by removing alkyl adducts to the O6 position of guanine before cross-links are formed?
MGMT
37
So if there is and ↑ expression of MGMT in neoplastic cells, what drug classes have a hard time working?
Alkylating agents
38
What can be damaged in normal cells from alkylating agents?
DNA
39
So which rapidly proliferating tissues are at risk for damage from alkylating agents?
Bone marrow GI Genitourinary tract epithelium Hair follicles
40
Which cells does alkylating agents cause damage in, which leads to immunosuppression?
Lymphocytes
41
What is the drug that consists of a paltinum atom bound to 2 amines and 2 chlorines in the cis conformation?
Cisplatin | cis
42
What does cisplatin do to guanine residues to cause DNA damage?
forms intrastrand cross-links between adjacent guanine residues
43
What cancer is cisplatin used to treat?
Testicular cancer
44
What si teh dose-limiting toxicity for cisplatin?
Nephrotoxicity
45
What is the drug is synthesized by Strep, has prominent cytotoxic acitivty by binding DNA and chelated iron (II), leading to the formation of free radicles that cause single and double stranded DNA breaks?
Bleomycins
46
What is the major side effect of bleomycin?
Pulmonary fibrosis
47
What is the target of camptothecins to cause DNA strand dmg?
Topoisomerase I
48
What is the drug that interferes with topoisomerase II?
Anthracyclines
49
What is the dangerous toxicity of doxorubicin?
Heart failure
50
What is the protein that normally serves as an efflux pump, and can cause resistance to chemo drugs if it's increased?
P-glycoprotein
51
What do vinca alkyloids, vinblastine,a nd vincristine bind to at the + end of microtubules?
Beta-tubulin
52
Binding to B-tubulin by the vincas prevents what to happen?
Tubulin polymerization --> no microtubule extension
53
What is the dose-limiting toxicity of vinblastine?
Myelosuppression
54
Which drugs are inhibitors of microtubule DEpolymerization?
Taxanes | paclitaxel, docetaxel
55
Imatinib meselate treats CML, which has shows that tumor cells are dependent on what oncogenes for their survival?
BCR-ABL
56
In the RAS cascade, which drugs inhibit the EGFR?
Cetruximab
57
In the RAS cascade, what drug directly inhibits RAS?
Farnesyltransferase inhibitors
58
In the RAS cascade, what inhibits the Tyr-P points on the receptor?
Gefitinib
59
In the RAS cascade, what does Imatinib and Dasatinib inhibit?
ABL
60
In the RAS cascade, which drug inhibits RAF?
Sorafenib
61
In the RAS cascade, MEK inhibitors block what?
MEK lol
62
So to sum it up, what is the whole RAS cascade from receptor --> Myc/Jun/Fos?
EGFR --> Tyr-P --> RAS (activated by ABL and SRC) --> RAF --> MEK --> MAPK --nucleus--> MYC + JUN + FOS --> gene trasncription
63
Which pathway does VEGFR2 signal to promote proliferation of endothelial cells?
RAF/MAPK pathway
64
Which pathway does VEGFR2 signal to promote survival of endothelial cells?
PI3K/AKT
65
RAS is a middle man by encoding which genes, which if left on or mutated, would allow for uncontrolled growth?
GTPases
66
What are the main involvements of SRC, which could lead to excessive cell prolifereation if mutated and icnreased?
Survival Angiogenesis Proliferation
67
Which "chromosome" is associated with BCR-ABL?
Philadelphia chromosome t(9,22)
68
The Philadelphia chromosome t(9,22) is associated with which leukemia?
CML
69
PTEN is a tumor suppressor that blocks which pathway?
AKT/PKB
70
What is the syndrome where there is only 1 fxnl copy of p53, which leaves u for a big risk for tumors?
Li Fraumeni syndrome
71
Erlotinib reversibly binds to the ATP binding site of which receptor?
EGFR
72
What cancer is Erlotibib used to treat?
Metastatic non-small cell lung cancer
73
What is the other EGFR inhibitors but is used for EGFR expressing colorectal cancers and some head and neck tumors?
Cetuximab
74
What is the inhibitor of the bcr-abl tyrosine kinase found in CML leukemic cells?
Imatinib mesylate
75
What are the 2 reasons that dasatinib is better than imatinib?
Greater efficacy against BCR-ABL | Inhibits the activity of imatinib-resistnat BCR-ABL isoforms
76
FLT3 can be mutated in which leukemia?
AML
77
Since FLT3's can be mutated in AML to produce ligan-independent tyrosine kinases, which drugs can demonstrate anti-leukemia cell activity?
FLT3 inhibitors
78
What is required for RAS for its association with the plasma membrane?
Farnesylation
79
What 3 cancers demonstrate K-RAS mutations?
Non-small cell lung CA Colorectal CA Pancreastic carcinoma
80
What does Sorafenib inhibit, which is downstream of RAS?
RAF
81
What does rapamycin bind to initially?
FKBP12
82
After rapamycin binds to FKBP12, what does the complex bind to, thus inhibiting its activity?
mTOR
83
Inhibition of mTOR promotes which processes?
Cell cycle inhibition, apoptosis, and angiogenesis inhibiton
84
What is Bevacizumab (IgG1 Ab) directed against?
VEGF-A
85
Bevacizumab is used to treat what cancer, since it typically has an overexpression of VEGF?
Metastatic renal cell carinoma
86
What are the 3 things that sunitinib inhibt?
VEGFR-1 VEGFR-2 PDGFR
87
Sorafenib inhibits everything that sunitinib inhibits, plus what other thing?
B-RAF
88
What is the first-line treatmnet for multiple myeloma?
Thalidomide and Dexamethasone just FYI: (T= the drug that causes limb deformities in feti, and D = cortisol, which determines whether cushings is from a ACTH secreting tumor or not)
89
What are the 2 ways that thalidomide acts against multiple myeloma?
Inhibits FGF induced angiogensis | Co-stimulate T cells
90
What is the anti-CD20 IgG monoclonal Ab that enchances chemotherapy effects in B-cell non-Hodgkins lymphoma?
Rituximab

Hem/Onc 2 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions