Pharmacology Flashcards
(121 cards)
1
Q
Sulfonamides mechanism of action:
A
folate synthesis inhibitors, create a folic aid deficiency that damages bacterial DNA
2
Q
Penicillin mechanism of action:
A
inhibits cell wall synthesis
3
Q
Macrolides and Lincosamides mechanism of action:
A
attack the 50s ribosomal subunit
4
Q
Tetracyclines mechanism of action:
A
attack the 30s ribosomal subunit
5
Q
Broadest spectrum antibiotic?
A
tetracycline
6
Q
Taking tetracycline with ____ and ____ makes it less effective.
A
Dairy, antacids
7
Q
Penicillin ___ is sensitive to stomach acid and given via IV.
A
G (Guys can’t stomach it)
8
Q
How is Pen G removed from the body?
A
Renal tubular secretion
9
Q
Pen V is given via ___ route and has a ___ half-life.
A
oral, 30 minute
10
Q
Which antibiotic has the broadest gram-negative spectrum?
A
Ampicillin
11
Q
These 3 drugs are used against pseudomonas infections.
A
Carbenicillin, Ticarcillin, Ciprofloxacin
12
Q
____ is cross allergenic with penicillin.
A
Cephalosporins
13
Q
Cephalosporins mechanism of action:
A
inhibits cell wall synthesis
14
Q
“Linc and Clind hide Mice”
A
Lincosamides end in -mycin, includes Clindamycin
15
Q
“Mac likes to Throw Mice”
A
Macrolides end in -thromycin
16
Q
ECSTATiC for bacteriostatic:
A
Erythromycin Clindamycin Sulfonamides Tetracyclines Azithromycin Trimethoprim Chloramphenicol
17
Q
“Very Proficient At Cell Murder”: the bactericidals
A
Vancomycin Penicillin Aminoglycosides Cephalosporins Metronidazole
18
Q
Conditions requiring antibiotic prophylaxis (4)
A
- Prosthetic heart valve
- history of endocarditis
- heart transplant with valve defects
- congenital heart problems
19
Q
Antibiotic Prophylaxis doses:
A
Amoxicillin 2 grams 1 hour pre-op for adults
Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg 1 hour pre-op for kids
If Penicillin allergy:
Clindamycin 600 mg 1 hour pre-op for adults
Clindamycin 20 mg/kg 1 hour pre-op for kids (NOT to exceed the adult dose)
20
Q
Which antibiotic causes upset GI and p. colitis?
A
Clindamycin
21
Q
Which antibiotic is associated with aplastic anemia?
A
Chloramphenicol
22
Q
Which antibiotic is associated with allergic cholestatic hepatitis?
A
Erythromycin
23
Q
Which analgesia is recommended for feverish kids and why?
A
Acetaminophen.
Aspirin can cause Reye’s syndrome
24
Q
Aspirin mechanism of action:
A
irreversible COX 1 and 2 inhibitor
25
Celecoxib and meloxicam mechanism of action:
COX 2 inhibitors only
26
Aspirin can cause adverse ___ effects.
GI
27
Ibuprofen can cause adverse ___ effects.
Kidney
28
Acetaminophen mechanism of action:
inhibits pain in CNS, still not entirely understood
29
Acetaminophen can cause adverse ___ effects.
Liver
30
Aspirin:
1. analgesic and anti-inflammatory mechanism:
2. anti-pyretic mechanism:
3. bleeding mechanism:
1. COX 1 and 2 inhibition -> inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
2. inhibits prostaglandin synthesis in hypothalamus
3. inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis, inhibiting platelet aggregation
31
Corticosteroids:
| 1. analgesic and anti-inflammatory mechanism:
1. inhibits phospholipase A2 which inhibits arachidonic acid synthesis
32
Corticosteroid "rule of 2s"
If a patient has taken 20 mg of steroids for 2 weeks, they are at risk of acute adrenal insufficiency for 2 years after when at the dentist (?)
33
```
Morphine effects:
M
O
R
P
H
I
N
E
```
```
Miosis
Out of It (sedation)
Respiratory depression (lose CO2 sensitivity)
Pneumonia
Hypotension
Infrequency (urinary retention, constipation)
Nausea and vomiting (CTZ stimulation)
Euphoria/dysphoria
```
34
What is pilocarpine's mechanism of action? What is it used to treat?
direct muscarinic agonist (cholinergic alkaloid) - xerostomia and glaucoma
35
Neostigmine and Physostigmine action:
REVERSIBLE AChE inhibitor (indirect muscarinic agonist)
36
Organophosphates, insecticide action:
IRREVERSIBLE AChE inhibitor (indirect muscarinic agonist)
37
What drug reverses organophosphate poisoning?
Pralidoxime
38
What drug reverses opioid overdose?
Naloxone
39
What drug reverses benzodiazepine overdose?
Flumazenil
40
Atropine, scopolamine action:
anti-muscarinic
41
Succinylcholine action:
nicotinic antagonist
42
ACE Inhibitors mechanism of action: (-pril)
block formation of angiotensin 2 (potent vasoconstrictor) to treat hypertension
43
ARBs mechanism of action: (-sartan)
angiotensin 2 receptor inhibitors
44
Which medications are given for Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)?
cardiac glycosides (Digoxin, Digitalis)
45
Digoxin:
1. Mechanism of action
2. Effect
3. Type of drug
4. Given for what?
5. Notable side effect
1. Inhibits Na/K ATPase, increasing intracellular Ca++
2. Promotes positive ionotropy (increase contractile force of the heart)
3. Cardiac glycoside
4. CHF
5. Blurry vision
46
Trigeminal neuralgia is treated with:
anti-convulsants like carbamazepine
47
Cross allergy between what 2 local anesthetics has been observed?
Lidocaine and mepivicaine
48
What local anesthetic AND drug are associated with methemoglobinemia?
Prilocaine, prolonged amyl nitrite
49
H2 receptor antihistamines act on what structure to do what? Common H2 antagonists?
H1 receptors are located where ? Common H1 receptor antagonists and mechanism of action?
Parietal cells, reduce gastric secretions - cimetidine, famotidine
Smooth muscle, endothelial cells - fexofenadine, loratidine (LORaX)
50
Which bacteria are commonly associated with dental-related endocarditis?
alpha hemolytic strep (strep viridans, strep pneumoniae)
51
Heparin mechanism of action:
prevents conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
52
Patients taking Warfarin/coumadin should have a recent ___ OR ___.
INR or prothrombin time
53
Which analgesic is recommended for pregnant patients?
Acetaminophen
54
What induces thrombophlebitis?
Propylene glycol
55
What is an absolute contraindication for opioids?
Severe cranial trauma
56
What drug is used to treat HIV?
Zidovudine
57
This tetracycline has a long half-life and therefore only needs to be taken once a day.
Doxycycline
58
What opioid can cause serious, life threatening side effects if given to a patient on an MAOI?
Meperidine (M & M)
59
Isoniazid is a treatment for ____.
TB
60
Which oral antibiotic is most likely to cause birth control inactivation? Why?
Rifampin; induces cytochrome P450 enzyme so BC is metabolized faster.
61
Flouroquinolones ending:
-floxacin
62
___ has high concentration in GCF.
Tetracyclines
63
____ has high concentration in bone.
Clindamycin
64
Taking which antibiotic can cause a c. diff infection?
Clindamycin
65
The post-ganglionic neuron in the PNS releases ___ onto muscarinic receptors.
Acetylcholine
66
The post-ganglionic neuron in the SNS releases ___ onto end organ.
NE
67
What happens when alpha-2 receptors are stimulated?
stimulated negative feedback -> blocked sympathetic response
68
What type of drug is Verapamil?
Calcium channel blocker
69
These classes of drugs are linked to drug-induced gingival enlargement.
Calcium channel blockers
Anticonvulsants (Dilatin)
Immunosuppressants (cyclosporin)
70
What class of drugs used to treat hypertension and arrhythmia cannot be given to a patient with CHF?
Calcium channel blockers
71
Clonidine is what type of drug?
alpha-2 agonist (Clones = 2, and cloning is negative (negative feedback))
72
Prazosin is what type of drug?
alpha-1 blocker
73
This drug is a sedative hypnotic that is used to alleviate anxiety but does NOT cause depression of the CNS or impair cognition or motor coordination.
Buspirone
74
This drug is used to treat seizures and abrupt stopping will cause increased risk of this.
Valproic acid; increased risk of bleeding
75
Which drug used to treat hypertension inhibits release of renin from the kidney?
Beta blockers
76
Amphetamines, ephedrine, and cocaine are all classified as:
indirect sympathomimetics
77
____ and ____ must be obtained to determine if a patient is a candidate for GA.
Complete blood count (CBC) and urinalysis
78
Ethambutol is a treatment used for?
TB
79
Emergency treatment for grand Mal seizure?
Dilatin (phenytoin)
80
Emergency treatment for status epilepticus?
Diazepam (valium)
81
Treatment for a TCA overdose?
activated charcoal
82
Seizures induced by lidocaine can be treated with?
diazepam
83
Ciprofloxacin is effective against ___.
pseudomonas aeruginosa
84
If a patient is allergic to both penicillin and clindamycin, they can be prescribed ___.
clarithromycin OR azithromycin
85
How is diazepam metabolized?
cytochrome P450
86
How is diazepam excreted?
urine
87
___ reverses an atropine overdose.
physostigmine
88
Eccrine sweat glands are primarily innervated by what type of neuron and neurotransmitter?
sympathetic, cholinergic
89
How many drug testing phases occur on humans before marketing?
3
90
What drug can reverse epinephrine?
phenoxybenzamine
91
Where are benzodiazepine recpeptors located?
on chloride ion channels
92
Verapamil is what kind of drug? What is it used to treat?
Calcium channel blocker (non-dihydropyridine)
| Treats hypertension/angina and arrhythmia
93
Nifedipine is what kind of drug? What is it used to treat?
Calcium channel blocker (dihydropyridine)
| Treats hypertension/angina
94
Amylodipine is what kind of drug? What is it used to treat?
Calcium channel blocker (dihydropyridine)
| Treats hypertension/angina
95
Drug Induced Gingival Enlargement is caused by what types of medications?
Anticonvulsants (dilantin)
Immunosuppressants (cyclosporins)
Calcium channel blockers
96
Dihydropyridine Calcium channel blockers ending:
-dipine
97
In addition to blocking conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, ACE also? How would an ACE inhibitor interfere?
breaks down bradykinin; pt. would experience increased levels of bradykinin
98
An anesthetic with a low pKa has a ____.
faster onset
99
Which local anesthetic is the most hydrophobic?
Bupivicaine
100
Spironolactone mechanism of action:
aldosterone receptor blocker
101
What is the maximum dose of Lidocaine a child can receive?
2 mg/lb
| 4.4 mg/kg
102
Fanconi's syndrome primarily affects what organ?
Kidney
103
How deep should the needle penetrate in a PSA block?
1/2 the distance of the long needle, 16 mm
104
Mechanism of action of Metformin:
activates AMP kinase, reducing liver glucose production
105
Which antibiotic is only effective against anaerobes?
Metronidazole
106
Which 2 benzodiazepines have relatively short half-lives?
Triazolam (1-2 hrs) and Midazolam (2-5 hrs)
107
What can EDTA be used for?
chelating agent that dissolves inorganic materials
108
Why does Articaine have a much shorter half-life than other local anesthetics?
It has both an ester and amide bond, and the ester bond is metabolized more rapidly than amides
109
Heparin is reversed with what drug?
Protamine
110
Amyl nitrite has what effect?
vasodilation
111
Hallmark symptom of opioid overdose?
miosis
112
How does erythromycin cause numerous other drug interactions?
it decreases cytochrome P450 metabolism of other drugs
113
Isopropyl alcohol is metabolized mainly into?
acetone
114
The combination of a schedule II drug with an antipsychotic drug produces what effect?
neuroleptic analgesia
115
What neurotransmitter is affected by benzodiazepine and barbiturate use?
GABA
116
Pen G is also known as?
Benzylpenicillin
117
What is the difference between neostigmine and physostigmine?
Neostigmine is a QUATERNARY amide, cannot cross BBB
| Physostigmine is a TERTIARY amide, CAN cross BBB
118
How does succinylcholine block neuromuscular transmission?
depolarizing the motor-end plate of skeletal muscle
119
Which beta blockers are selective?
A-M except carvedilol and labetalol
120
Which beta blockers are non-selective?
N-Z PLUS carvedilol and labetalol
121
The barbiturate most similar to the mechanism of action to diazepam to relax skeletal muscle is?
meprobamate
