Pharmacology - Arrhythmias Part 1 Flashcards

(75 cards)

1
Q

Vaughan-Williams class I are also called…..

A

sodium channel blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vaughan-Williams Class III are also called….

A

postassium, or multi channel blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

name some things that can lead to the development of an arrhythmia

A

channel myopathies
CAD (insufficient blood supply)
QT prolongation
stress
too much caffeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

arrhythmia increases the risk for what 2 things

A

stroke (esp atrial) and heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

an arrhythmia is an abnormal heart _____ that affects ____

A

abnormal heart rhythm/rate that affects cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

can arrhythmias be drug-induced?

A

YES - digitalis (digoxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

can CHF cause arrhythmia

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the term for a genetic cause of arrhythmia? what is the mutation?

A

WPW syndrome (Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

true or false

anesthetized patients are not at risk for getting arrhytmia

A

FALSE- they are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

name 4 NONPHARM therapies for arrhythmia

A

pacemakers
ablation
surgery
cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the natural pacemaker of the heart

A

SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

define bradycardia and tachycardia (specifically)

A

bradycardia - under 60bpm

tachycardia - over 100 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

true or false

electrolyte imbalances can affect the HR

A

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

name 3 atrial arrhythmias

A

PAC (premature atrial contraction)

PAR (paroxysmal atrial tachycardia)

AF - atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

explain what a PAC (premature atrial contraction) is

A

it can happen in healthy people

there’s a surprise early atrial contraction, and a normal ventricular contraction follows. returns to normal

can happen bc of stress, caffeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

explain what PAR (paroxysmal atrial tachycardia) is

A

an early atrial contraction triggers a flurry of atrial activity, but the ventricles ARE ABLE to keep up with the pace and contract after each p wave

HR can go up to 180 BPM! patients feel this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

explain what afib is and how high the HR can go

A

up to 500bpm

atrial quivers instead of contracting. ventricles CANNOT KEEP UP and will contract based on when the atria SHOULD be contracting
on an ECG wont be able to tell where the p wave is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

explain what PVC (premature ventricular contractions) are and if they’re dangerous

A

happens when a ventricular cardiac cell or a purkinje cell depolarizes to threshold and triggers a premature contraction

just 1 isn’t dangerous
term for the cell that’s responsible is called an ectopic pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which arrhythmia is responsible for cardiac arrest and is rapidly fatal

why is it rapidly fatal?

A

ventricular fibrillation

the ventricles are quivering and stop pumping blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

torsades de pointes is a type of ____

A

V-tach (ventricular tachycardia)

often caused by drug adverse effects!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the therapy for torsades de pointes? what is a common drug-inducer?

A

therapy - IV magnesium

common inducer - sodium channel blockers (bc of reverse use dependence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

name the flow of ions in the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger

A

3Na+ in and 1 Ca++ out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

name the flow of ions in the Na+ - K+ ATPase pump

A

2K in, 3 Na out

1 ATP used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

differentiate between absolute refractory period and relative refractory period

A

absolute - the ion channels are INACTIVATED. they MUST REST before they can open again

relative - if you put in sufficient input, the channel can be activated again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
sodium channel blockers are frequency or voltage dependent blockers? explain
frequency dependent the channels that are ACTIVATED and overactive are blocked -- used the most
26
channel blockers can be ___ dependent or ____ dependent
voltage (state) dependent or use (frequency) dependent
27
state (voltage)-dependent channel blockers block what states of the channel?
open and inactivated
28
explain a disturbance in impulse CONDUCTION that can cause an arrhythmia
there can be a blockage in the heart due to ischemia or smth else this causes a re-entrance current where the electrical signal comes BACK and a premature impulse is fired
29
explain how early depolarization can cause an arrhythmia
this shortens the refractory period during the refractory period is when the ventricles are filling therefore, the drugs should aim to increase the ERP (effective refractory period)
30
name 2 antiarrhythmic classes that increase the threshold potential
sodium and calcium channel blockers
31
name a class of antiarrhythmic that increases action potential duration
class III
32
true or false the ultimate goal of antiarrhytmics is to speed up the automatic rhythms
FALSE - slow
33
what is phase 4 do we want drugs that increase or decrease the slope of phase 4?
diastole (filling) decrease slope
34
true or false we want antiarrhythmics to increase the max diastolic potential
true
35
36
name 2 antiarrhythmics that increase the max diastolic potential
adenosine and acetylcholine
37
name an anytiarrhythmic class that works by increasing the duration of the action potential
potassium channel blockers (CLASS III)
38
what class of antiarrhythmics decreases phase 4 slope
beta blockers (CLASS II)
39
name the 2 classes of antiarrhythmics that increase the threshold
class I and IV (sodium channel blockers and non dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers)
40
what does it mean to increase the refractoriness
increase the refractory period -- increases filling time and increases time it takes for another action potential
41
name the 2 ways to increase the refractory period
in early after depolarization and in delayed after depolarization (EAD and DAD)
42
*name the class Ia drugs
quinidine procainamide disopyramide
43
*name the class Ib antiarrhythmics
lidocaine mexiletine
44
name the class Ic antiarrhytmics
flecainide propafenone
45
name 3 class III antiarrhytmics
amiodarone dofetilide sotalol
46
compare the kinetics of class Ia-Ic sodium channel blockers
Ia - intermediate kinetics Ib - fast kinetics (weak binding) Ic - slow kinetics (strong binding)
47
how is the MOA of class Ia sodium channel blockers different from classes Ib and Ic?
Ia also inhibits potassium channels
48
which class of sodium channel blockers has no efficacy in atrial arrhythmias
class Ib
49
which class of sodium channel blockers is CONTRAINDICATED in coronary artery disease and structural heart disease
class Ic (flecanide, propafenone_
50
name 2 classes of antiarrhythmics which have a risk of torsades de pointes
class Ia and class III
51
which specific antiarrhytmic is a multichannel blocker and thus has extra cardiac side effects
amiodarone
52
rank the following according to their binding affinity: class Ia class Ib class Ic
weakest (fastest kinetics) - Ib Ia is moderate Ic is strongest (slowest kinetics)
53
explain the MOA of non-DHP calcium channel blockers as antiarrhytmics
block L-type calcium channels - reduce heart rate and conduction mainly at the SA and AV nodes
54
which class of antiarrhythmics " reduces phase 0 slope and the peak of the action potential"
class I - sodium channel blockers
55
which specific subclass of the sodium channel blockers decreases the phase 0 slope the MOST? what is its effect on the action potential duration?
class Ic NO effect on the action potential duration
56
which subclass of class I increases the action potential duration and which reduces the action potential duration
increases - IA decreases - Ib
57
which class of antiarrhythmics significantly delays repolarization? what is the result of this?
potassium channel blockers the action potential duration and the effective refractory period are increased
58
true or false flecainide has minimal effects on the action potential duration
TRUE - it is class Ic propafenone also
59
true or false class Ic dissociates from the channel with fast kinetics
FALSE - slow kinetics class Ib is fast and class Ia is intermediate
60
true or false fast kinetics = weak binding
true
61
true or false procainamide shortens the action potential duration
FALSE - class 1A prolongs the action potential duration class 1B shortens and class IC has minimal effects
62
true or false group IA drugs significantly prolong the action potential duration and the ERP
true - bc they also reduce the phase 3 potassium current
63
true or false ALL group 1 drugs prolong the ERP
TRUE bc they slow down the recovery of sodium channels from being inactivated
64
true or false all group 1 drugs reduce both phase 0 and phase 4 sodium currents
true
65
true or false procainamide is effective against most atrial and ventricular arrhythmias
true
66
true or false procainamide speeds up the upstroke of the action potential
FALSE - slows
67
true or false procainamide slows SA/AV node conduction
true
68
true or false procainamide has no effect on the action potential duration
FALSE - prolongs duration due to its minor class III action (potassium blocking)
69
concern with all IA blockers
reverse-use dependence can cause QT prolongation
70
extracardiac effects of procainamide
has ganglion blocking properties so can cause hypotension!!! must infuse SLOWLY and contraindicated in shock patients watch for syncope!
71
explain the metabolism of procainamide
acetylated to NAPA NAPA accumulation can cause torsades de pointes - more common in fast acetylators.
72
how is procainamide eliminated
renally - need dose adjustment in renal failure
73
name some DDI procainamide
potentiates the effects of beta blockers on the heart --- too much decrease in inotropy, chronitropy also enhances the hypotensive effect of thiziades anticholinergic effects
74
name a common and concerning toxic effect of procainamide
lupus more common in slow acetylators bc more procainamide is accumulating
75