pharmacology section

Question 1

hemicholinum

Answer 1

inhibits choline uptake into presynaptic cholinergic nerve terminal

Question 2

vesamicol

Answer 2

inhibits choline acetyl transferase in cholinergic presynaptic terminal (inhibits ACh synthesis from acetyl CoA and choline)

Question 3

botulinum

Answer 3

inhibits ACh vesicle release

Question 4

metyrosine

Answer 4

inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase in noradrenergic nerve terminals - decreases synthesis of all catecholamines

Question 5

reserpine

Answer 5

blocks NE vesicle reuptake

secondary line Tx HTN

Question 6

guanethidine

Answer 6

blocks NE release into synapse

Question 7

bretylium

Answer 7

blocks NE release into synapse

Question 8

cocaine TCAs amphetamines

Answer 8

inhibits NE reuptake

Question 9

amphetatmines

Answer 9

increase NE release and inhibit NE re-uptake

Question 10

atropine

Answer 10

antimuscaric - used to treat bradycardia and ophthalmic complications - uveitis, ophthalmologic exam (dilates pupil = mydriasis)
CONTRAINDICATED IN GLAUCOMA

Question 11

scopolamine

Answer 11

CNS - antimuscarinic antagonist

tx:MOTION SICKNESS

Question 12

benztropine

Answer 12

CNS - ANTIMUSCARINIC

tx: PARKINSON’S

Question 13

homatropine

Answer 13

eye - antimuscarinic

mydriasis and cycloplegia (inhibits ciliary muscles - no accomodation)

Question 14

trocipamide

Answer 14

eye - antimuscarinic

mydriasis and cycloplegia (inhibits ciliary muscles - no accomodation)

Question 15

ipratropium

Answer 15

respiratory antimuscarinic

tx: COPD, ASTHMA

Question 16

tiotropium

Answer 16

respiratory antimuscarinic - bronchodilation

tx: COPD, ASTHMA

Question 17

oxybutynin

Answer 17

genitourinary - detrusor relaxation (delays voiding)

reduces urgency in mild cystitis and reduces bladder spasms

Question 18

glycopyrrolate

Answer 18

GI & respiratory = decreases lacrimation, sweating, salivation, GI and bronchial secretions

prenteral: preoperative use to reduce airway secretions
oral: drooling, peptic ulcer

Question 19

motion sickness treatment

Answer 19

antimuscarinics = scopolamine

antihistamines (with antimuscarinic action) = first generation H1 receptor blockers = MECLIZINE, DIMENHYDRINATE

Question 20

meclizine

Answer 20

first generation antihistamine - ANTIHISTAMINE and ANTIMUSCARINIC effects
MOTION SICKNESS -

Question 21

dimenhydrinate

Answer 21

first generation antihistamine -
ANTIHISTAMINE and ANTIMUSCARINIC effects
TX: MOTION SICKNESS

Question 22

becthanechol

Answer 22

cholinergic agonist

STIMULATE PERISTALSIS IN postoperative ileus & treat ATONIC BLADDER (non-obstructive urinary retention)

Question 23

carbachol

Answer 23

cholinergic agonist

lower intraocular pressure in glaucoma

Question 24

pilocarpine

Answer 24

cholinergic agonist

lower intraocular pressure in glaucoma

Question 25

methocholine

Answer 25

cholinergic agonist | diagnosis for asthma

Question 26

neostigmine

Answer 26

AChE inhibitor postoperative & neurogenic ileus & urinary retention myasthenia gravis reversal of NMJ blockade

Question 27

pyridostigmine

Answer 27

AChE inhibitor - long acting | myasthenia gravis

Question 28

edrophonium

Answer 28

AChE inhibitor - short acting (10-20 min) | dx myasthenia gravis

Question 29

physostigmine

Answer 29

AChE inhibitor - CROSSES BBB (enters CNS) - tertiary amine | tx atropine overdose & glaucoma

Question 30

donepezil

Answer 30

AChE inhibitor = Alzheimer's disease

Question 31

organophosphates

Answer 31

irreversibly inhibit AChE (phosphorylate) - (parathion) - insecticides ANTIDOTE = ATROPINE + PRALIDOXIME

Question 32

pralidoxime

Answer 32

regenerates AChE | tx cholinesterase poisoning

Question 33

epinephrine

Answer 33

direct sympathomimetic - alpha 1, 2 & beta 1, 2 receptors | USE: ANAPHYLAXIS, GLAUCOMA (open angle), ASTHMA, HYPOTENSION

Question 34

norepinephrine

Answer 34

direct sympathomimetic - alpha 1 &2 & beta 1 | use: HYPOTENSION (decreases renal perfusion

Question 35

isoproterenol

Answer 35

direct sympathomimetic - beta 1 & 2 use: tornado de points, bradyarrhythmias INCREASES HR, DECREASES QT INTERVAL

Question 36

dopamine

Answer 36

``` direct sympathomimetic Dopamine D1 = low dose beta 1 & 2 = medium dose alpha 1 & 2 = high dose tx: SHOCK, HF ```

Question 37

dobutamine

Answer 37

beta 1 direct sympathomimetic | HF, cardiac stress testing

Question 38

phenylephrine

Answer 38

alpha 1 & 2 direct sympathomimetic | tx: HYPOTENSION, ocular procedures, rhinitis

Question 39

albuterol

Answer 39

``` direct sympathomimetic (beta 2 > beta 1) use: ACUTE ASTHMA ```

Question 40

salmeterol

Answer 40

``` direct sympathomimetic (beta 2 > beta 1) use: LONG-TERM ASTHMA, COPD control ```

Question 41

terbutaline

Answer 41

``` direct sympathomimetic (beta 2 > beta 1) use: REDUCE PREMATURE UTERINE CONTRACTIONS ```

Question 42

metaproterenol

Answer 42

``` direct sympathomimetic (beta 2 > beta 1) use: ACUTE ASTHMA ```

Question 43

ritodrine

Answer 43

``` direct sympathomimetic (beta 2) use: REDUCE PREMATURE UTERINE CONTRACTIONS ```

Question 44

drugs to reduce premature uterine contractions

Answer 44

sympathomimetics terbutaline ritodrine

Question 45

amphetamine

Answer 45

indirect sympathomimetic releases stored catecholamines use: NARCOLEPSY, OBESITY, ADHD

Question 46

ephedrine

Answer 46

indirect sympathomimetic releases stored catecholamines use: nasal congestion, urinary incontinence, hyotension

Question 47

cocaine

Answer 47

indirect sympathomimetic reuptake inhibitor vasoconstriciton and local anesthesia

Question 48

tyrosine

Answer 48

catecholamine precursor cleared by MAO MAO inhibitors => HTN with tyramine containing foods

Question 49

clonidine

Answer 49

centrally acting alpha-2 agonist decreases central sympathetic outflow tx: HTN (esp with renal disease - no decrease in RBF) & opioid withdrawal

Question 50

alpha-methyldopa

Answer 50

centrally acting alpha-2 agonist decreases central sympathetic outflow tx: HTN (esp with renal disease - no decrease in RBF OR HTN in pregnancy)

Question 51

phenoxybenzamine

Answer 51

IRREVERSIBLE nonselective alpha antagonist | use: PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA (before surgery)

Question 52

phentolamine

Answer 52

REVERSIBLE nonselective alpha antagonist | tx: prevent hypertensive crisis in MAO inhibitors who eat tyramine containing foods

Question 53

prazosin

Answer 53

selective alpha-1 inhibitor | use: HTN, URINARY RETENTION BPH

Question 54

terazosin

Answer 54

selective alpha-1 inhibitor | use: HTN, URINARY RETENTION BPH

Question 55

doxazosin

Answer 55

selective alpha-1 inhibitor | use: HTN, URINARY RETENTION BPH

Question 56

tamsulosin

Answer 56

selective alpha-1 inhibitor | use: HTN, URINARY RETENTION BPH

Question 57

mirtazapine

Answer 57

alpha 2 selective inhibitor | use: DEPRESSION

Question 58

acebutolol

Answer 58

beta -1 selective blocker | partial agonist

Question 59

betaxolol

Answer 59

beta -1 selective blocker

Question 60

esmolol

Answer 60

beta -1 selective blocker | short acting

Question 61

atenolol

Answer 61

beta -1 selective blocker

Question 62

metoprolol

Answer 62

beta -1 selective blocker

Question 63

propranolol

Answer 63

nonselective beta blocker

Question 64

timolol

Answer 64

nonselective beta blocker

Question 65

pindolol

Answer 65

nonselective beta blocker | partial agonist

Question 66

labetalol

Answer 66

nonselective alpha and beta blocker

Question 67

carvedilol

Answer 67

nonselective beta blocker