Pharmacy Practice 1 Flashcards
(113 cards)
1
Q
Which government department collects data and reports on the health of the nation?
Therapeutic Goods Administration
Australian institute of health and welfare
Department of human services
Department of health
A
Australian institute of health and welfare
2
Q
How are TGA-listed medicines labelled?
AUST D
AUST M
AUST L
AUST R
A
AUST L
3
Q
Which professional organization represents community pharmacy owners?
Australian college of pharmacy
Pharmaceutical society of Australia
Pharmacy guild of Australia
Professional pharmacists Australia
A
Pharmacy guild of Australia
4
Q
How many health professions are regulated by AHPRA?
3
9
15
21
A
15
5
Q
Which government department oversees Medicare payments?
Therapeutic Goods administration
Australian institute of health and welfare
Department of human services
Department of health
A
Department of human services
6
Q
Which government department regulates medicines, medical services and blood products?
Therapeutic Goods administration
Australian institute of health and welfare
Department of human services
Department of health
A
Therapeutic Goods Administration
7
Q
How are TGA-regulated medicines labelled?
AUST D
AUST M
AUST R
AUST L
A
AUST R
8
Q
Which is Australia’s ranking in life expectancy among OECD countries?
1st
3rd
6th
10th
A
6th
9
Q
Which pregnancy category of drugs are teratogenic?
Category B1
Category C
Category D
Category X
A
Category X
10
Q
Which medicines schedule is a pharmacist only medicine?
Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 8
A
Schedule 3
11
Q
Is earache a sign or a symptom?
A
Symptom
12
Q
Which medicines schedule is a controlled drug?
Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 8
A
Schedule 8
13
Q
Which is an example of a symptom?
Nausea
Fever
Hypertension
Skin rash
A
Nausea
14
Q
Which medicines schedule is a pharmacy medicine?
Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 8
A
Schedule 2
15
Q
Which is an example of a sign?
Fatigue
Cough
Nausea
Chest pain
A
Cough
16
Q
Is pain a sign or a symptom?
A
Symptom
17
Q
Which medicine schedule is a prescription only medicine?
Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 8
A
Schedule 4
18
Q
Which pregnancy category of drugs are the safest in pregnancy?
Category A
Category C
Category D
Category X
A
Category A
19
Q
Are red eyes a sign or a symptom?
A
Sign
20
Q
What is differentiating between two or more conditions that share similar signs and symptoms?
Empirical approach
Therapeutic alliance
Differential diagnosis
Patient-centred care
A
Differential diagnosis
21
Q
Which pregnancy category is paracetamol?
Category A
Category D
Category B1
Category X
A
Category A
22
Q
Only one oral NSAID should be used at a time for pain relief.
True or False?
A
True
23
Q
Which is NOT a potential side effect of codeine?
Nausea
Breathing problems
Drowsiness
Diarrhea
A
Diarrhea
24
Q
What is minimum age for an infant to be dosed with paracetamol?
From birth
1 month
3 months
12 months
A
1 month
25
Which NSAID is available only on prescription?
Ibuprofen
Celecoxib
Diclofenac
Mefenamic Acid
Celecoxib
26
What is minimum age for an infant to be dosed with ibuprofen?
From birth
1 month
3 months
12 months
3 months
27
What is the dose of sustained release paracetamol in osteoarthritis?
2 x 200mg every 4 to 6 hours
2 x 300mg every 4 to 6 hours
2 x 500mg every 4 to 6 hours
2 x 665mg every 6 to 8 hours
2 x 665mg every 6 to 8 hours
28
What is the most common adverse effect of excessive paracetamol?
Kidney damage
Constipation
Diarrhea
Liver damage
Liver damage
29
What is the action of metoclopramide when compounded with paracetamol of migraine?
Analgesic
Anti-nauseant
Antipyretic
Anti-inflammatory
Anti-nauseant
30
Chronic pain occurs for most days longer than what time frame?
3 days
3 months
3 weeks
3 years
3 months
31
What is NOT possibly caused by straining to defecate?
Haemorrhoids
Cardiac irregularities
Asthma
Worsening GORD
Asthma
32
What category of haemorrhoid treatment is hydrocortisone?
Astringent
Local anaesthetic
Corticosteroid
Corticosteroid
33
What type of laxative is lactulose?
Bulk-forming
Stool softener
Osmotic
Stimulant
Osmotic
34
What category of haemorrhoid treatment is cinchocaine?
Astringent
Local anaesthetic
Corticosteroid
Local anaesthetic
35
What is the role of urinary alkalinisers in cystitis?
Reduce bacterial adhesion to bladder wall
Increase pH to relieve pain
Urinary tract antibacterial
Increase pH to relieve pain
36
Which categories on the Bristol stool chart indicate diarrhea?
Type 1-2
Type 3-4
Type 5-7
Type 5-7
37
Which categories on the Bristol stool chart indicate constipation?
Type 1-2
Type 3-4
Type 5-7
Type 1-2
38
What type of laxative is senna?
Bulk-forming
Stool softener
Osmotic
Stimulant
Stimulant
39
What is the role of methenamine (hexamine) hippurate in cystitis?
Reduce bacterial adhesion to bladder wall
Increase pH to relieve pain
Urinary tract antibacterial
Urinary tract antibacterial
40
What category of haemorrhoid treatment is zinc oxide?
Astringent
Local anaesthetic
Corticosteroid
Astringent
41
What type of laxative is psyllium?
Bulk-forming
Stool softener
Osmotic
Stimulant
Bulk-forming
42
Which is NOT an anti-motility agent for diarrhea?
Codeine
Dihydrocodeine
Loperamide
Diphenoxylate
Dihydrocodeine
43
Which lifestyle factor may predispose constipation?
Regular exercise
Adequate water intake
High fiber diet
Suppressing the urge to defecate
Suppressing the urge to defecate
44
Which product may prevent traveller’s diarrhea?
Porcine colostrum
Equine colostrum
Canine colostrum
Bovine colostrum
Bovine colostrum
45
What is the role of cranberry in cystitis?
Reduce bacterial adhesion to bladder wall
Increase pH to relieve pain
Urinary tract antibacterial
Reduce bacterial adhesion to bladder wall
46
What class of heartburn medicine is ranitidine?
Antacid
Alginate
H2 antagonist
Proton pump inhibitor
H2 antagonist
47
Which acupressure point may help prevent nausea?
B10
P6
L14
ST36
P6
48
Which is NOT a symptom of GORD?
Sore throat
Increased saliva
Discomfort in the upper abdomen
Discomfort in the lower abdomen
Discomfort in the lower abdomen
49
Once commencing threadworm treatment, should a child be excluded from school or daycare?
Yes
No
No
50
Which medications may worsen reflux symptoms
Sedating antihistamines
NSAIDs
Metformin
All of the above
All of the above
51
Which class of heartburn medicine is calcium carbonate?
Antacid
Alginate
H2 antagonist
Proton pump inhibitor
Antacid
52
What are strategies for preventing motion sickness?
Look forward at horizon
Avoid being near a smoker
Eat dry crackers
All of the above
All of the above
53
Which is most suitable to prevent travel sickness during a short journey?
Pheniramine
Promethazine
Hyoscine hydrobromide
Dimenhydrinate
Hyoscine hydrobromide
54
Which anthelmintic can be used to treat children under 2 years of age?
Mebendazole
Pyrantel
Pyratel
55
Which class of heartburn medicine is pantoprazole?
Antacid
Alginate
H2 antagonist
Proton pump inhibitor
Proton pump inhibitor
56
Which tinea infection is “jock itch”?
Tinea pedis
Tinea cruris
Tinea corporis
Tines capitis
Tinea cruris
57
Which type of moisturizer prevents water loss from skin?
Emollient
Humectant
Occlusive
Hydrocortisone
Occlusive
58
What is the first line treatment for mild dandruff?
Daily non-medicated shampoo
Ciclopirox liquid
Ketoconazole shampoo
Zinc sulfide shampoo
Daily non-medicated shampoo
59
What type of moisturizer attracts moisture to the surface of the skin?
Emollient
Humectant
Occlusive
Hydrocortisone
Humectant
60
What classification of dermatitis describes a condition with an obvious external cause?
Endogenous
Exogenous
Seborrhoeic
Chronic
Exogenous
61
Which psoriasis treatment helps to remove accumulated scale so that other treatments penetrate?
Corticosteroids
Moisturizers
Salicylic acid
Coal tar
Salicylic acid
62
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is an inflammatory response to which organism?
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus progenies
Candida albicans
Malassesia yeasts
Malassesia yeasts
63
Which oral thrush treatment requires a prescription?
Miconazole gel
Nystatin drops
Amphotericin lozenges
None of the above
Amphotericin lozenges
64
Which type of eczema is sure and exposure dependent?
Irritant contact
Allergic contact
Seborrhoeic
Atopic
Irritant contact
65
Which skin infection presents as weeping, crusty skin lesions, often around the nose or mouth?
Boils
Folliculitis
Impetigo
Carbuncles
Impetigo
66
Which antifungal has the more rapid response?
Terbinafine
Miconazole
Clotrimazole
Tolnaftate
Terbinafine
67
What is first line treatment in mild acne?
Salicylic acid and sulfur
Zinc
Retinoids
Benzoyl peroxide
Benzoyl peroxide
68
Which chickenpox treatment helps to minimize scar formation?
Antihistamines
Hydrogels
Pine tar soap substitutes
Cold compresses
Hydrogels
69
What is the cause of shingles?
Primary infection of human papilloma virus
Secondary infection of human papilloma virus
Primary infection of herpes varicella zoster virus
Secondary infection of herpes varicella zoster virus
Secondary infection of herpes varicella zoster virus
70
Which is NOT a treatment for head lice?
Pyrethrins + piperonyl butoxide
Benzyl alcohol
Maldison (malathion)
Benzyl benzoate
Benzyl benzoate
71
What is xerostomia?
Mouth ulcers
Dry mouth
Chickenpox
Cold sores
Dry mouth
72
Which is NOT a treatment for scabies?
Pyrethrins + piperonyl butoxide
Permethrin
Crotamiton
Benzyl benzoate
Pyrethrins + piperonyl butoxide
73
Which is NOT a sign or symptom of scabies?
Nocturnal itch
Skin sores inside wrists and between fingers
Fine linear rash on skin
Visible mites
Visible mites
74
Which virus causes common warts?
Herpes simplex
Human papilloma virus
Herpes zoster
Herpes varicella
Human papilloma virus
75
What is the characteristic shape of receding hair in male pattern baldness?
M shaped
V shaped
O shaped
Ludwig pattern
M shaped
76
Which virus caused cold sores (herpes labialis)?
Herpes simplex virus type 1
Herpes simplex virus type 2
Heroes zoster virus
Human papilloma virus
Herpes simplex virus type 1
77
Which mouth ulcer treatment contains a topical corticosteroid?
Difflam gel
Bonjela mouth ulcer gel
Kenalog in orabose
SM-33 liquid
Kenalog in orabose
78
How are head lice acquired?
Faecal-oral route
Transfer from hats
Direct head-to-head contact
Shared combs and brushes
Direct head-to-head contact
79
Which phase of hair growth is the dormant or resting phase?
Anagen
Catagen
Telogen
None of the above
Telogen
80
Which colour corresponds with the highest exposure risk of 11+ on the UV index?
Green
Red
Orange
Purple
Purple
81
What is the life span of a head lice?
1 week
3 weeks
5 weeks
8 weeks
5 weeks
82
Which sunscreens are classified as very high protection?
Broad spectrum against UVA and UVB
SPF 50+
SPF 30+
SPF 100
SPF 50+
83
Which hay fever treatment has the strongest evidence base?
Oral antihistamines
Intranasal antihistamines
Ocular antihistamines
Intranasal corticosteroids
Intranasal corticosteroids
84
What is the classification of allergic rhinitis that occurs <4x/week or <4 consecutive weeks?
Seasonal
Perennial
Intermittent
Persistent
Intermittent
85
Which sore throat treatment is a NSAID?
Flurbiprofen
Cetylpyridinium
Benzocaine
Povidone-iodine
Flurbiprofen
86
What is the most effective treatment for rhinorrhoea (runny nose)?
Levocabastine
Ipratropium
Cromoglycate
Naphazoline
Ipratropium
87
What defines a severe, life-threatening allergy?
Anaphylaxis
Allergic rhinitis
Rhinosinusitis
Hay fever
Anaphylaxis
88
Which type of cough treatment costs the throat and protects from irritants?
Antitussive
Mucolytic
Demulcent
Expectorant
Demulcent
89
Which sore throat treatment is a local anaesthetic?
Benzydamine
Cetylpyridinium
Lidocaine
Povidone-iodine
Lidocaine
90
Which cough treatment is a mucolytic?
Guaiphenesin
Bromhexine
Dihydrocodeine
Glycerine
Bromhexine
91
Which cough treatment is an antitussive (cough suppressant)?
Guaiphenesin
Bromhexine
Dihydrocodeine
Glycerine
Dihydrocodeine
92
Which cough treatment is an expectorant?
Guaiphenesin
Bromhexine
Dihydrocodeine
Glycerine
Guaiphenesin
93
Which cough treatment is a demulcent?
Guaiphenesin
Bromhexine
Dihydrocodeine
Glycerine
Glycerine
94
How many Australians are affected by asthma?
25,000
250,000
2,500,000
25,000,000
2,500,000
95
Which stage of change defines contemplation?
Smoker is NOT thinking about quitting in the next 6 months
Smoker thinks seriously about quitting in the next 6 months
Quit attempt is planned within the next 30 days
Person becomes non-smoker for at least 6 months
Smoker thinks seriously about quitting in the next 6 months
96
What SUSMP schedule are reliever puffers?
Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 8
Schedule 3
97
Which stage of change defines preparation?
Smoker is NOT thinking about quitting in the next 6 months
Smoker thinks seriously about quitting in the next 6 months
Quit attempt is planned within the next 30 days
Person becomes non-smoker for at least 6 months
Quit attempt is planned within the next 30 days
98
What time to first cigarette (TTFC) shows the highest level of dependence?
5 mins
30 mins
2 hours
12 hours
5 mins
99
What is the addictive component of tabacoo smoke?
Tar
Carbon monoxide
Nicotine
Cyanide
Nicotine
100
What are the most effective pharmacological intervention/s to quit smoking?
Single agent NRT
Combined NRT
Bupropion
Varenicline
Combined NRT
Varenicline
101
What proportion of asthma patients are intolerant to aspirin?
None
1-2%
3-11%
20-25%
3-11%
102
Which drug class are reliever puffers?
Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)
Short-acting beta agonists (SABA)
Long-acting beta agonists (LABA)
Long-acting muscarinic antagonists (LAMA)
Short-acting beta agonists (SABA)
103
Which ear treatment is not a cerumenolytic for ear wax removal?
Carbamide peroxide
Docusate
Acetic acid with isopropyl alcohol
Dichlorobenzene with chlorbutol
Acetic acid with isopropyl alcohol
104
What sort of vision loss occurs with age-related macular degeneration?
Central vision
Side vision
Central vision
105
What is the limit on the use of vasoconstrictor eye drops?
5 days
7 days
28 days
No limit
5 days
106
What type of conjunctivitis is usually bilateral and causes itchy, watery eyes?
Allergic
Viral
Bacterial
Irritant
Allergic
107
What type of conjunctivitis typically has a purulent discharge?
Allergic
Viral
Bacterial
Irritant
Bacterial
108
Which is NOT a preventative medicine for allergic conjunctivitis?
Normal saline
Cromoglycate drops
Ketotifen drops
Lodoxamide drops
Normal saline
109
Which vision impairment condition is long-sightedness?
Astigmatism
Presbyopia
Myopia
Hypermetropia
Hypermetropia
110
Which type of conjunctivitis associated with URTI may cause photophobia?
Allergic
Viral
Bacterial
Irritant
Viral
111
Which is the most suitable non-prescription treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis?
Lodoxamide drops
Antazoline drops
Chloramphenicol drops
Levocabastine drops
Chloramphenicol drops
112
Which medicines do NOT potentially cause dry eyes?
Contraceptive pills
Diuretics
ACE inhibitors
Anticholinergics
ACE inhibitors
113
What sort of vision loss occurs with glaucoma?
Central vision
Side vision
Side vision
