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AUBF > Physical Examination of Urine > Flashcards

Physical Examination of Urine Flashcards

1
Q

Enumerate the Physical Characteristics of Urine:

A

Color
Clarity
Odor
Taste
Foam
Volume
Concentration

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2
Q

In the evaluation of urine physical characteristics it is recommended to view through a clear container

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

Clear containers either plastic or glass.

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3
Q

What may this describe?

Can be inverted; a vortex can be used to mix the specimen (for the urine to be well-distributed all throughout).

A

A well-mixed specimen

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4
Q

Main determinant of body’s state of hydration.

A

Urine Volume

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5
Q

Characterized by decreased urine output.

A

Dehydration

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6
Q

Reabsorbs water retention in the body; prevents water to be excreted in the urine.

A

ADH also called Arginine Vasopressin

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7
Q

Waste products and solutes are released from the blood to the urine.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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8
Q

Of the approximate renal blood flow of 100 mL/min, only an average of 1 mL/min is excreted as urine.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

the approximate renal blood flow is not 100 mL/min, its 120mL/min

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9
Q

____% of our blood passes through the renal artery, which will later on be filtered by the kidney.

A

25%

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10
Q

if an average of 1 mL/min is excreted as urine.

what may a value of 0.3mL/min imply?

A

Dehydration

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11
Q

if an average of 1 mL/min is excreted as urine.

what may a value of 15mL/min imply?

A

Excessive hydration

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12
Q

The kidneys excrete 2 – 3x more urine at night than it will during the day.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

The kidneys excrete 2 – 3x more urine during the day than it will at night.

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13
Q

Night-and-Day Volume Ratio of Urine

A

1:2 to 1:3

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14
Q

Day-and-Night Volume Ratio of Urine

A

2:1 to 3:1

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15
Q

Normal Daily Urine Output

A

600 – 2000 mL

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16
Q

Average Daily Urine Output

A

1200 – 1500 mL

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17
Q

This derangement is characterized by an increase in daily urine output.

A

Polyuria

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18
Q

This derangement is characterized by an decrease in daily urine output.

A

Oliguria

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19
Q

Name this derangement

Possible Causes:
o (1) Increased fluid intake;
o (2) Nervousness;
o (3) Diabetes Mellitus;
o (4) Diabetes Insipidus;
o (5) Diuretics (e.g., alcohol, coffee, etc.).

A

Polyuria

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20
Q

Name this derangement

Possible Causes:
o (1) Decreased fluid intake;
o (2) Excessive water loss;
o (3) Calculi or tumors of the kidney.

A

Oliguria

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21
Q

increased urine excretion (>1800 mL/day).

A

Diuresis

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22
Q

Increased urine output at night.

A

Nocturia

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23
Q

Name this derangement

Possible Causes:
o (1) Increased fluid intake at night;
o (2) Reduction in bladder capacity;
o (3) Chronic progressive renal failure.

A

Nocturia

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24
Q

Can be caused by pregnancy (placenta occupies the space in the bladder), old age, or enlarged prostate.

A

Reduction in bladder capacity

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25
Q

Loss of circadian rhythm in the kidney.

A

Chronic progressive renal failure.

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26
Q

Absence of urine output; complete cessation of urine output

A

Anuria

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27
Q

<100 mL/day in 2 – 3 consecutive days in spite of high fluid intake is a product of?

A

Anuria

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28
Q

Name this derangement

Possible Causes:
o (1) Decreased renal blood flow;
o (2) Serious kidney damage;
o (3) Urinary tract obstruction.

A

Anuria

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29
Q

Both are characterized by High urine output (polyuria)

A

DIABETES MELLITUS AND DIABETES INSIPIDUS

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30
Q

Diabetes characterized by Decreased/defective insulin

A

DIABETES MELLITUS

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31
Q

Diabetes characterized by High concentration of glucose in the urine

A

DIABETES MELLITUS

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32
Q

Diabetes characterized by Decreased/defective ADH

A

DIABETES INSIPIDUS

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33
Q

Diabetes characterized by Diluted urine

A

DIABETES INSIPIDUS

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34
Q

Diabetes characterized by an increased Specific Gravity

A

DIABETES MELLITUS

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35
Q

Diabetes characterized by decreased Specific Gravity

A

DIABETES INSIPIDUS

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36
Q

Roughly indicates the degree of hydration; should be correlated with specific gravity. Affected by concentration

A

Urine Color

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37
Q

Describe the observation

Pale yellow: Diluted urine

A

Properly hydrated

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38
Q

Describe the observation

Dark yellow: Concentrated urine

A

Dehydrated

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39
Q

Describe the observation

Almost colorless or straw → pale or light yellow

A

NORMAL

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40
Q

The yellow urine pigment

A

Urochrome

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41
Q

Lipid soluble (does not dissolve in water); named by Thudichum in 1864.

A

Urochrome

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42
Q

Produced at a constant rate via endogenous metabolism; present in plasma.

A

Urochrome

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43
Q

Imparts the normal yellow color in urine.

A

Urochrome

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44
Q

Increased in thyroid conditions, fasting state, and prolonged urine standing at room temperature.

A

Urochrome

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45
Q

The urine pigment that resembles Pink brick dust

A

UROERYTHRIN

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46
Q

Attaches to urates as a result of amorphous urates precipitation in an acid urine.

A

UROERYTHRIN

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47
Q

Urine pigment most evident in refrigerated specimens.

A

UROERYTHRIN

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48
Q

the dark yellow/orange urine pigment

A

UROBILIN

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49
Q

Oxidation product of normal urinary urobilinogen.

A

UROBILIN

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50
Q

Imparts an orange-brown color to urine that is not fresh.

A

UROBILIN

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51
Q

Hemoglobin degrades → bilirubin → urobilinogen.

A

UROBILIN

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52
Q

Interpret the pathologic cause of this urine color

Colorless to pale yellow

A

Diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus.

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53
Q

Interpret the pathologic cause of this urine color

Dark yellow, amber, orange

A
  • Bilirubinuria
  • Biliverdin
  • Excess urobilin
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54
Q

Interpret the pathologic cause of this urine color

Blue, green

A
  • Indican (product of tryptophan metabolism)
  • Pseudomonas infection
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55
Q

Interpret the pathologic cause of this urine color

Pink, red

A
  • Hematuria
  • Hemoglobinuria
  • Myoglobinuria
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56
Q

Interpret the pathologic cause of this urine color

Brown, black

A
  • Methemoglobinuria (oxidized hemoglobin; brown)
  • Alkaptonuria
  • Melanuria
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57
Q

metabolic disorder wherein homogentisic acid accumulates in the urine; upon alkalinization, this imparts the color black in the urine

A

Alkaptonuria

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58
Q

Increased indican in the urine = indicanuria; seen in what condition?

A

Hartnap Syndrome (Blue Diaper Syndrome)

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59
Q

Produces pyocyanin and pyoverdine.

A

Pseudomonas infection

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60
Q

Interpret the non-pathologic cause of this urine color

Colorless to pale yellow

A

Recent fluid consumption or diuresis

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61
Q

Interpret the non-pathologic cause of this urine color

Dark yellow, amber, orange

A
  • Acriflavine
  • Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
  • Carotene
  • Warfarin (Coumadin)
  • Riboflavin (vitamin) /Nitrofurantoin
  • Phenindione
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62
Q

Interpret the non-pathologic cause of this urine color

Blue, green

A
  • Amitriptyline
  • Methocarbamol
  • Methylene blue
  • Phenol
  • Clorets
  • Azure A
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63
Q

Interpret the non-pathologic cause of this urine color

Pink, red

A
  • Beets (alkaline/acid urine)
  • Rifampin (anti-TB drug)
  • Menstrual contamination
  • Blackberries
  • Phenolphthalein
  • Phenolsulfonphthalein
  • Phenothiazines
  • Senna (laxative; Carcasa)
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64
Q

Interpret the non-pathologic cause of this urine color

Brown, black

A
  • Levodopa
  • Methyldopa
  • Metronidazole
  • Argyrols
  • Phenol derivatives
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65
Q

used in Diagnex Blue Test, which tests for gastric fluid and the presence of HCl

A

Azure A

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66
Q

Urine has a lot of intact RBCs, which gives the smoky or cloudy red urine

A

Hematuria

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67
Q

High amounts of hemoglobin in the urine; degraded RBCs and their cell membranes.

A

Hemoglobinuria:

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68
Q

Myoglobin is present in the skeletal muscles; keeps oxygen in the muscles.

A

Myoglobinuria

Wherein: Hemoglobin and myoglobin are both present as clear, red urine.

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69
Q

A by-product of heme synthesis; imparts a portwine red-purple color

A

Porphyrin

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70
Q

Came from the oxidation of porphobilinogen/porphyrinogen, a by-product of heme synthesis.

A

Porphyrin

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71
Q

When one has melanoma, the excess melanin will be excreted in the urine.

A

Melanuria

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72
Q

Upon air exposure/standing of urine (environment turns alkaline), this will present a black color.

A

Melanuria

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73
Q

color of urine that may occur in catheter bags

A

Violet

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74
Q

This color of urine may indicate the ff

o (1) Indican;
o (2) Klebsiella infection;
o (3) Providencia infection.

A

Violet

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75
Q

faint cloud in urine after standing due to WBCs, epithelial cells and mucus.

A

Nubecula

76
Q
  • Provides a key or correlation to the microscopic
    examination results.
  • Amount of turbidity correlates with materials observed
    under the microscope
A

CLARITY/TRANSPARENCY/TURBIDITY

77
Q

This is the normal CLARITY/TRANSPARENCY/TURBIDITY of urine

A

Usually clear or transparent

78
Q

CLARITY/TRANSPARENCY/TURBIDITY OF URINE

No visible particulates (transparent); all solutes are soluble (all are dissolved in water).

A

CLEAR

79
Q

CLARITY/TRANSPARENCY/TURBIDITY OF URINE

Few particulates (print is easily seen); amount of haziness varies with substances and its’ amount present in urine.

A

HAZY/SLIGHTLY CLOUDY

80
Q

CLARITY/TRANSPARENCY/TURBIDITY OF URINE

Many particulates (print is blurred); difficult to read.

A

CLOUDY

81
Q

CLARITY/TRANSPARENCY/TURBIDITY OF URINE

Print cannot be seen

A

TURBID

82
Q

CLARITY/TRANSPARENCY/TURBIDITY OF URINE

May precipitate or be clotted (crystals).

A

MILKY

83
Q

These are the non-pathlogical cause of urine turbidity

RBCs
WBCs
Bacteria
Yeast
Nonsquamous epithelial cells
Abnormal crystals
Lymph fluids (chyle – chyluria)
Lipids (lipiduria)

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

These are all pathological causes of turbidity

84
Q

These are the non-pathlogical cause of urine turbidity

Squamous epithelial cells
Mucus
Amorphous crystals
Semen (spermatozoa)
Fecal contamination
Radiographic contrast media
Talcum powder
Vaginal creams

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

85
Q

Correlate the urine turbidity when viewed in the laboratory

Amorphous urates, radiographic contrast media (dye).

A

ACIDIC URINE

86
Q

Correlate the urine turbidity when viewed in the laboratory

Amorphous phosphates, carbonates.

A

ALKALINE URINE

87
Q

Correlate the urine turbidity when viewed in the laboratory

Amorphous urates, uric acid crystals.

A

SOLUBLE WITH HEAT

88
Q

Correlate the urine turbidity when viewed in the laboratory

RBCs, amorphous phosphates, carbonates.

A

SOLUBLE WITH DILUTE ACETIC ACID

89
Q

Correlate the urine turbidity when viewed in the laboratory

WBCs, bacteria, yeast, spermatozoa

A

INSOLUBLE WITH DILUTE ACETIC ACID

90
Q

Correlate the urine turbidity when viewed in the laboratory

Lipids, lymphatic fluid, chyle.

A

SOLUBLE WITH ETHER

91
Q

Not reported in routine urinalysis. Serves as preliminary and supportive evidence for the presence of protein and bilirubin.

A

FOAM

92
Q

Are these conditions normal when describing foam in urine?

When urine specimen is shaken or agitated sufficiently, a white foam can be forced to develop at its’ surface that readily dissipates on standing

YES OR NO

A

YES

These conditions are NORMAL

93
Q

Present in White, stable Foam

A

Protein (albumin)

94
Q

Present in Yellow, yellow-green Foam

A

Bilirubin

95
Q

produces orange foam; can resemble the foam caused by bilirubin

A

Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)

96
Q

When discussing foam in urine these happen upon?

o Amorphous phosphates: Imparts white turbidity.
o Amorphous urates: Imparts pink turbidity.

A

Refrigeration

97
Q

Historically done (circa 1674) to detect presence of urinary sugars (for diabetes mellitus).

A

Urine Taste test

98
Q

disorder producing copious amount of urine

A

Diabetes

99
Q

The following is the taste of urine for each form of diabetes

MELLITUS: Tasteless.
INSIPIDUS: Sweet.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

MELLITUS: Sweet.
INSIPIDUS: Tasteless.

100
Q

This urine characteristic is seldom of clinical significance unless distinct ones are present.

A

Odor (distinct odor)

101
Q

These are normal conditions for the odor of urine

FAINT AROMATIC (freshly voided) which becomes ammoniacal (from bacterial accumulation) when the urine is allowed to stand.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

102
Q

What makes urine ammoniacal?

A

Solutes undergo further oxidation in the urine, making it ammoniacal.

103
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Odorless

A

Acute Tubular Necrosis

104
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Ammonia-like

A

Bacterial decomposition: UTI
(pungent/fluid), old/improperly
preserved urine.

105
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Fruity, sweet

A

Ketones: Diabetes Mellitus,
starvation, vomiting, diarrhea.

106
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Maple syrup, caramelized sugar, curry

A

Maple Syrup Urine Disease

107
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Mousy, barny, musty

A

Phenylketonuria

108
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Rancid

A

Tyrosinemia

109
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Sweaty feet

A

Isovaleric and glutaric acidemia

110
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Cabbage, hops

A

Methionine malabsorption

111
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Rancid butter

A

Tyrosiluria, hypermethioninemia

112
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Rotting fish, old fish, fishy

A

Trimethylaminuria, hypermethioninemia

113
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Bleach

A

Contamination or adulteration of
specimen.

114
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Menthol-like

A

Phenol-containing medications

115
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Rotten eggs, sulfur

A

Cystinuria

116
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Swimming pool

A

Hawkinsinuria

117
Q

What derangement corresponds to the odor?

Mercaptan, pungent, unusual, distinctive

A

Ingestion of asparagus, onions, garlic, and eggs.

118
Q

Expressed as specific gravity or osmolality. Used to measure the concentrating ability of the kidney in maintaining homeostasis.

A

Urine Concentration

119
Q

density (principle) of a solution compared with the density of a similar volume of distilled water (SG 1.000) at a similar temperature.

A

Specific Gravity

120
Q

the concentration of a solution expressed in terms of osmoles of solute particles per kilogram of water (osm/kg)(principle = colligative properties).

A

Osmolality

121
Q

These ALL measure specific gravity

  • Freezing Point Depression
  • Vapor pressure depression

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

These depressions measure Osmolality instead

122
Q

These all measure specific gravity

  • Reagent strip test
  • Refractometry
  • Falling drop
  • Harmonic Oscillation Densitometry
  • Urinometry

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

123
Q

Measure of osmolality where all solutes
contribute equally to result obtained

A

Freezing Point Depression

124
Q

Measure of osmolality that does not detect volatile solutes
(e.g., ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol).

A

Vapor Pressure Depression

125
Q

A specific gravity test that is characterized by pKa change of polyelectrolyte.

A

Reagent Strip Test

126
Q

A specific gravity test that is characterized by refractive index.

A

Refractometry

127
Q

The indirect methods to measure Specific gravity

A

Reagent Strip Test and Refractometry

128
Q

The direct methods to measure Specific gravity

A
  • Falling Drop
  • Harmonic Oscillation Densitometry
  • Urinometry
129
Q

This is the PRINCIPLE of specific gravity in urine

A

Density

130
Q

Specific gravity is affected by both the number and size of particles in the solution.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

131
Q

These are the observed values for random specific gravity tests

A

1.002 – 1.035

1.040 if there is notable (radiocontrast media).

132
Q

These are the observed values for a 24hr specific gravity test

A

1.015 – 1.025

133
Q

Variations in specific gravity

Urine with S.G. fixed at 1.010 (filtrate from the glomerulus).

A

ISOSTHENURIA

134
Q

Variations in specific gravity

Urine with S.G. less than 1.010 (1.007).

A

HYPOSTHENURIA

135
Q

Variations in specific gravity

Urine with S.G. greater than 1.010

A

HYPERSTHENURIA

136
Q

Direct method for specific gravity that is calibrated daily with distilled water (S.G. 1.000).

A

URINOMETRY

137
Q

Direct method for specific gravity that is Calibrated at 20°C.

A

URINOMETRY

138
Q

Direct method for specific gravity that requires 10 – 15 mL of urine.

A

URINOMETRY

139
Q

Less accurate than other methods for specific gravity.

A

URINOMETRY

140
Q

Direct method for specific gravity that requires temperature, protein, and glucose correction.

A

URINOMETRY

141
Q

tool used in URINOMETRY

A

Urinometer or Hydrometer

142
Q

Direct method for specific gravity that is a change in the frequency of sound waves oscillation is in proportion to the density in the solution.

A

HARMONIC OSCILLATION DENSITOMETRY

143
Q

Direct method for specific gravity that has a microprocessor that corrects sample temperature; valid results up to an S.G. of 1.080.

A

HARMONIC OSCILLATION DENSITOMETRY

144
Q

Direct method for specific gravity that utilizes a specially-designed column filled with water-immiscible oil.

A

FALLING DROP

145
Q

Direct method for specific gravity where a measured drop of urine is introduced into the column, and as this drop falls, it encounters two beams of light (breaking the first beam starts a timer, and breaking the second turns it off).

A

FALLING DROP

146
Q

Direct method for specific gravity where the falling time is measured electronically and is expressed as a specific gravity

A

FALLING DROP

147
Q

Indirect method for specific gravity based on the refractive index, which is differentiating the velocity of light in air vs. the velocity of light in a solution.

A

REFRACTOMETRY

148
Q

Indirect method for specific gravity where degree or deviation or refraction of light is in proportion with the density in the solution.

A

REFRACTOMETRY

149
Q

Indirect method for specific gravity that requires 1 – 2 gtts/drops of urine.

A

REFRACTOMETRY

150
Q

Indirect method for specific gravity that is calibrated between 15 – 38°C.

A

REFRACTOMETRY

151
Q

Indirect method for specific gravity that is interfered by radiographic contrast media.

A

REFRACTOMETRY

152
Q

Indirect method for specific gravity that is calibrated daily using distilled water, 3% NaCl, 5% NaCl, and 9% sucrose to adjust the set screw.

A

REFRACTOMETRY

153
Q

Indirect method for specific gravity where temperature correction is not required. Instead requires protein and glucose correction.

A

REFRACTOMETRY

154
Q

Identify their calibration values for Refractometry

D. H2O

A

1.000

155
Q

Identify their calibration values for Refractometry

3% NaCl

A

1.015 +/- 0.001

156
Q

Identify their calibration values for Refractometry

5% NaCl

A

1.022 +/- 0.001

157
Q

Identify their calibration values for Refractometry

9% Sucrose

A

1.034 +/- 0.001

158
Q

The reading on the refractometer is generally lower
than a urinometer reading on the same urine specimen
by about 0.002.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

159
Q

Indirect method for specific gravity that detects ionized solutes only (indicator changes color in relation to ionic concentration).

A

REAGENT STRIP TEST

160
Q

Indirect method for specific gravity where the S.G. pad contains polyelectrolytes and bromthymol blue as indicator with color reaction of blue (1.000) to green to yellow (1.030).

A

REAGENT STRIP TEST

161
Q

Indirect method for specific gravity wherein manufacturers recommend adding 0.005 when the pH is 6.5 or higher.

A

REAGENT STRIP TEST

162
Q

Indirect method for specific gravity where there are no glucose, protein, and radiographic contrast media
interferences.

A

REAGENT STRIP TEST

163
Q

Identify how these values for specific gravity are corrected for Reagent Strip Test

TEMPERATURE

A
  • (Urinometer); Adjust by 0.001
    for every 3°C difference from
    calibration temperature.
  • Subtract if below (colder
    temp).
  • Add if above (warmer temp); if
    hindi umabot by 3 increments,
    retain
164
Q

Identify how these values for specific gravity are corrected for Reagent Strip Test

PROTEIN

A

Subtract 0.003 for every 1 g/dL of
protein.

165
Q

Identify how these values for specific gravity are corrected for Reagent Strip Test

GLUCOSE

A

Subtract 0.004 for every 1 g/dL of
glucose

166
Q

Indirect method for specific gravity affected only by the number of particles present

A

OSMOLALITY

167
Q

Normal values for Osmolality

Serum

A

275 – 295 mOsm/kg;

168
Q

Normal values for Osmolality

Urine

A

275 – 900 mOsm/kg.

169
Q

the amount of a substance that dissociates to produce 1 mole of particles in a solution.

A

Osmole

170
Q

Because the osmolality of biological fluids such as
urine and serum is very low, the milliosmole (mOsm) is
the unit of choice.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

Where; 1 osm = 1000 mOsm

171
Q

Osmolality is considered more precise than its’ counterpart, osmolarity because osmolality does NOT vary with temperature.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

172
Q

In every 1 mole of substance that is dissolved in a
solution, the freezing point and vapor pressure
INCREASES while the boiling point DECREASES.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

In every 1 mole of substance that is dissolved in a
solution, the freezing point and vapor pressure
DECREASES while the boiling point INCREASES.

173
Q

PARTICLE CHANGES TO COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES

Freezing Point

What is the normal pure water point?

A

0°C

174
Q

PARTICLE CHANGES TO COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES

Freezing Point

WHAT IS THE EFFECT OF 1 MOLE OF SOLUTE?

A

Lowered 1.86°C

175
Q

PARTICLE CHANGES TO COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES

Boiling Point

What is the normal pure water point?

A

100°C

176
Q

PARTICLE CHANGES TO COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES

Boiling Point

What is the EFFECT OF 1 MOLE OF SOLUTE?

A

Raised 0.52°C

177
Q

PARTICLE CHANGES TO COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES

Vapor Pressure

What is the normal pure water point?

A

2.38 mm Hg at 25°C

178
Q

PARTICLE CHANGES TO COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES

Vapor Pressure

What is the EFFECT OF 1 MOLE OF SOLUTE?

A

Lowered 0.3mm Hg at 25°C

179
Q

PARTICLE CHANGES TO COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES

Osmotic Pressure

What is the normal pure water point?

A

0 mmHg

180
Q

PARTICLE CHANGES TO COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES

Osmotic Pressure

What is the EFFECT OF 1 MOLE OF SOLUTE?

A

Increased 1.7 x 109 mm Hg

181
Q

Which of the following conditions will cause a smoky red urine?

HEMATURIA
POLYURIA
NOCTURIA
MARIA

A

HEMATURIA

182
Q

All of the following methods are considered as direct methods for specific gravity, EXCEPT:

REFRACTOMETRY
URINOMETRY
FALLING DROP

A

REFRACTOMETRY

183
Q

The ammoniacal color of urine can suggest which of the following diseases?

URINARY TRACT INFECTION
CANCER
MAPLE SYRUP DISEASE

A

URINARY TRACT INFECTION

184
Q

In the foam test, which of the following substances will produce persistent yellow bubbles when urine is shaken?

A

BILIRUBIN

185
Q

Which of the following derangements in urine volume will have a urine output of less than 100 mL per day for 2 – 3 consecutive days?

A

ANURIA

186
Q

is a weighted glass float with a long, narrow, calibrated stem.

A

URINOMETER

AUBF (3 decks)

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