Physio and Psycho Flashcards
(263 cards)
1
Q
Medulla Function
A
Mouth and throat movements, respiration, hr, bp, injury = death
2
Q
Pons
A
connects halves of cerebellum, relays info for movement, deep sleep, respiration, REM
3
Q
Cerebellum
A
posture, balance, voluntary movements, procedure and implicit memories
attention, language and visual
4
Q
what does damage to the cerebellum cause
A
ataxia (symptoms of intoxication)
5
Q
Reticular Formation
A
coordination of eye movements and pain control
6
Q
The RAS is part of what brain region and what does it do?
A
Reticular formation; mediates consciousness/ arousal, sleep wake and alerts to sensory signals
7
Q
what is the reward seeking part of the brain and what else does it do
A
the substantia nigra, has motor control via the basal ganglia
8
Q
degeneration of dopamine producing cells in the substantia nigra can cause
A
parkinson like symptoms
9
Q
studies used electrical stimulation to show the contribution of what brain part to emotions
A
hypothalamus
10
Q
the hypothalamus produces mammilary bodies, what is their role
A
memory and SCN (bodies bio clock)
11
Q
what does GnRh do
A
regulates functions of the testes/ ovaries
12
Q
what is the difference between oxytocin and vasopressin in the posterior pituitary
A
oxytocin: contractions and lactation, vasopressin: water balance via kidneys
13
Q
what mental health disorders can Oxytocin help with
A
ASD, schizophrenia, disorders that involve deficits in recognition of emotions and facial expressions
14
Q
which brain function is responsible for transmitting all sensory info, coordination of sensory/motor functioning, language, speech and declarative memory
A
Thalamus (relay station)
15
Q
which condition is due to thiamine deficiency and how does that effect it
A
Korsakoff is due to thiamine deficiency that damages neuron’s in thalamus and mammillary bodies.
16
Q
What is included in the stratum and what is it a part of
A
the stratum is part of the basic ganglia and has the caudate nucleus, putamen and nucleus accumbent to receive info from the cerebral but the globes pallid us transmits info to thalamus
17
Q
what function does the basal ganglia have
A
initiation and control of voluntary movements, procedural and habit learning, cog functioning and emotions
18
Q
mood disorders, schizo, adhd, ocd, Huntington’s and Parkinson’s have been related to damage in which area
A
basal ganglia
19
Q
What is the role of the amygdala
A
fear, acquisition of conditioned fear, evaluation of emotional significance of events, recognizing emotions in facial expressions
21
Q
how is PTSD related to the amygdala
A
associated with abnormal functioning and hyperactivity in the amygdale which produces distressing memories however hyperactivity of VPC can reduce normal regulation of activity
21
Q
What is kluver-bucy syndrome
A
bilateral legions on amygdala, hippocampus and temporal lobes in monkeys led to hyperreality, reduced fear, hyper sexuality, blindness
22
Q
The ___ is linked to motivation, memory and emotions to pain. Damage people can experience pain but cant____
A
cingulate cortex and not be emotionally distressed by the pain
23
Q
Which brain region transfers declarative memories from short - long term
A
Hippocampus
24
Q
damage in what cells and what cortex lead to impairments in episodic and spatial memory that is liked to Alzheimer’s
A
hippocampus cells and the entorhinal cortex (gateway for information entering and leaving the hippocampus
25
increases in cortisol levels in the hippocampus has the ability to do what
impair the retrieval of declarative memories
26
Brocas area is responsible for language so brocas aphasia is:
slow, laboured speech of nouns and verbs, impaired repetition and anomia (inability to recall names of familiar objects. comprehension of written and spoken language is intact
27
The prefrontal cortex is made up of what three areas and what are their functions
Orbiofrontal cortex: emotion regulation, social behaviour, damage causes poor impulse and social control
Ventromedial prefrontal: decision making, memory, emotion, damage causes poor decision making and confabulation
dorsolateral prefrontal: executive functions, damage causes concrete thinking and impair judgment and planning, apathy
28
what is confabulation and what two areas affect it
filling memory gaps with false information, the thalamus and ventromedial prefrontal
29
What does it mean to be somatotypically organized
it means that each part of the supplementary motor cortex is controlled by a specific cortical area
30
What is in the temporal lobe
auditory cortex: damage causes hallucinations and deafness
Wernickes aphasia: impaired comprehension of language. speech is fluid but contains word substitutions and is devoid of meaning
31
What are the three somatosensory agnosias
tactile: cant recognize items by touch. asomatognosia: lack of recognition of ones body. anosognosia: denial of ones illness
32
Damage to the left parietal lobe is linked to ideational apraxia, ideomotor apraxia and ____ syndrome
Gerstmanns syndrome: right left disorientation, loss of writing skills (agrophia) and loss of arithmetic skills (acalculia)
33
What is cortical blindness and the forms of blindsight
when the primary visual cortex is damaged but eyes and nerve are intact. blindsight is when people don't see a stimulus but have an appropriate behavioural response to it. affective blindsight is when they respond emotionally correct
34
what is the inability to recognize faces of familiar people and what causes it
Prosopagnosia and lesions on occipital ltemporal junction
35
The PNS transmits signals between the CNS and ___
body
36
Sensory info is transmitted to the CNS via ____ then to the skeletal muscles
SNS
37
the ANS transmits signals between the ___ and ____
smooth muscle organs and the CNS
38
the AND consists of the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic, which is the role of each
Symp: fight or flight response, pupil dilation, digestion, sexual activity
Para: rest and relaxation, return to pre emergency state
39
Sympathetic is to erection and parasympathetic is to____
ejaculation
40
Prior to stimulation, the inside of a neuron is ____
negative, sodium then makes it positive
41
Regarding neuroplasticity, homologus is
response to early damage, brain functions switch to corresponding area in other hemisphere
42
Regarding neuroplasticity, cross model reassignment
brain area responsible for processing sensory input is derived of input and function of area changes
43
Regarding neuroplasticity, map expansion
enlargement of functioning region as the result of practice which recruits neurons from a broader area (learning a new skill)
44
Regarding neuroplasticity, compensatory masquerade
no longer able to perform a task using cognitive processes mediated by damage, so it uses other processes
45
ACh causes muscles to contract what leads to muscle weakness
myasthenia gravis kills at neuromuscular junction
46
if ACh is low in the ethereal cortex and hippocampus it can lead to_____
early memory loss
47
Glutamate toxicity can lead to ______
strokes, seizures, huntingtons and Alzheimer's
48
Degeneration of GABA and ACh is linked to the motor symptoms of what condition
huntingtons
49
What is the catecholamine hypothesis
states that depression is caused by low levels of norepinephrine and mania is caused by high levels of norepinephrine
50
Eating disorders have been linked to ____ levels of serotonin
higher than normal which causes obsessive thinking, food restriction lowers serotonin and stops symptoms
51
ASD and schizophrenia are linked to high levels of ____ in the blood
serotonin
52
what is the dopamine hypothesis
Schizophrenia is linked to high dopamine
53
The mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway begins in ___ and ends is ___, which is essential in the reward circuit
Tegmental and ends is striatum
54
the mesocortical begins in ___ and ends in ___, and is essential for emotion, motivation and exec cog functions
Tegmental and ends in prefrontal
55
the tuberofundibular begins in ___ and ends in ___ and is essential for hormone regulation and prolactin release
Hypothalamus and ends in pituitary
56
Nigrostriatal begins in __ and ends in ___, important for purposeful movement
substantia and ends in dorsal
57
Agonists: mimic or increase effects of a neurotransmitter, partial agonists due what
elicit similar but weaker effects than the trasnmitter
58
what do antagonists do
black or reduce effect of transmitter
59
What is the difference between bottom up and top down processing
bottom up starts with incoming sensory info and continues up to the brain
top down starts with the brains preexisting knowledge to interpret incoming sensory info
60
What is the difference between rods and cones
cones: best in bright light and for visual acuity and colour perception
rods: important for peripheral vision and seeing in dim light
61
Explain red/green colour blindness
most common, genetic, or injury, caused by recessive gene on X, females must inherit gene from both parents
62
What does retinal disparity do
occurs because eyes see objects from different views, closer object = better disparity
63
size of objects, textures and motions are types of ___ cues
Monocular
64
Grapheme - colour involves letters or numbers being associated with specific colours, this is a type of what condition
Synesthesia
65
Explain gate control theory
whether pain in transmitted depends on a gate that is opened by incoming pain signals and closed by transmission of signals in large fibres and info from brain
66
Which law predicts that the JND for a stimulus is in constant proportion regardless of intensity
Webers law
67
there is a logarithmic relationship in Fechers law between ____ and _____
psychological sensation and magnitude of physical stimulus
68
In a study of which law did participants assign a number to stimuli based on the sensations they elicited and what did it prove
in stevens power law the participants proved a exponential relationship
69
Signal detection theory makes which assumption
that perception of a stimulus is the outcome of both sensory and decision making processes
70
what affects decision making in signal detection theory
sensitivity (distinguish between stimulus and noise) and decision criteria which is the ability to say a stimulus is present in ambiguous situations
71
what is a miss in SDT experiments
when the signal is present but they say it isn't
72
what value is measured by d-prime
sensitivity
73
HM had what areas removed and what happened after surgery
hippocampus, amygdala and temporal lobe were removed and after surgery, short term and procedural memories were intact but longterm episodic memory was affected and he couldn't transfer declarative info from short to long term
74
the hippocampus in important for consolidation of which forms of memory
declarative and spatial working
75
damage to the basil ganglia, cerebellum and supplementary motor cortex can lead to what difficulties in memory
trouble learning new skills and performing previously learned skills
76
damage to the amygdala affects memory how
individuals will have the same level of recall for emotional and nonemotional memories
77
the prefrontal is responsible for working memory in short term and prospective memory so lesions affect ____ more than ____
prospective more than time based which is remembering to do an action in time with no cue
78
damage to what area can cause anterograde and retrograde amnesia
thalamus and mammillary bodies
79
Kandals research with sea slugs showed that classical conditioning of reflexes can increase the release of serotonin in ____ memory
short term
80
in regards to Kandal, long term storage is involved in the development of _____ changing the neutron structure
new synapses
81
Long term potentiation occurs in neurons as a result of ____
rapid high frequency stimulation important in learning and memory
82
low frequency, high amplitude alpha waves are associated with what sleep stage when they are replaced with low frequency, low amplitude waves
stage one
83
what are sleep spindles
associated with stage two ofd sleep, sleep spindles are sudden bursts and fast waves and K complexes (large, slow waves)
84
what is paradoxical sleep
in stage five when brain is active and muscles are paralyzed (REM sleep)
85
deep sleep is characterized by slow waves in what stages
stage 3 and 4
86
Following 10 minutes of REM sleep, a person cycles through non rem and rem stages but what increases
length of REM increases and time in stage 3 and 4 decreases
87
circadian phase advance occurs in older adults and involves ____
going to sleep earlier
88
what theory predicts that smiling makes us feel happy and why
james lange theory because off the facial feedback hypothesis because exposure to an emotionally client stimulus causes a physiological reaction perceived as emotion
89
differences in emotional reactions cannot be attributed to differences in ______ because of which theory
differences in physiological arousal and it's due to cannon bard theory
90
the two factor theory of emotion shows that emotion is a result of physiological arousal followed by an attribution for that arousal. In this regard miss attribution of arousal is _____
tendency to mislabel arousal which its cause is unknown
91
Individuals experiencing unexplained arousal will look to the environment to determine _____
what emotion they experienced
92
Excitation transfer theory incorporates misattribution of arousal and is an explanation of how physical arousal can do what
Physical arousal elicited by one event can be transferred to act intensity arousal at an unrelated event
93
What are the three assumptions of excitation transfer theory?
Physical arousal associated with emotions, decays slowly, following in event.
Residual arousal caused by one event, can identify arousal at an unrelated event
People have limited insight into the cause of their physical arousal
94
Cognitive appraisal theory refers to what three types of appraisal
Primary appraisal , secondary appraisal, and reappraisal
95
Ledoux's two system theory shows that the subcortical system (survival system) reacts quickly and automatically to sensory info with ____
physiological and defensive behavioural responses
96
the cortical system is a conscious emotional system that does what
processes inför from the senses by using relevant cognitive processes and generates the conscious feeling of fear when it determines a stimulus warrants it
97
the cortical system includes areas of the cortex that do what
Process sensory information and it is involved in non-emotional conscious experiences
98
what is included in the papez circuit
Hippocampus, mammillary bodies, thalamus, and cingulate gyrus
99
What is the difference between the left hemisphere and the right hemisphere? In terms of emotions?
The left hemisphere, mediates, happiness, positive emotions, and damage can cause anxiety or depression, and the right hemisphere is for negative emotions, and sadness, and damage can cause in indifference
100
the hypothalamus regulates physical signs of emotion through communication with the ANS and the ___
pituitary gland
101
the general adaptation syndrome refers to the body's response to all types of stress. what are the three stages
the initial alarm stage, the resistance stage and the exhaustion stage
102
what is the allostatic load model
the brain is the key organ of stress and determines if something is threatening. being in a allostatic state can produce wear and tear leading to allostatic overload
103
a stroke is also known as ____
a cerebrovascular accident and is caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain that causes a loss of neurological function
104
what are the two types of strokes and why do they happen
A ischaemic stroke is the most common and is caused by a blockage in the cerebral artery. If it developed in the brain, it's a thrombotic stroke. If it developed elsewhere, it is an embolic stroke.
A hemorrhagic stroke is caused from bleeding from a rupture in the cerebral artery or in the space between brain and membrane
105
visual impairment during a stroke occurs when ____ is involved
the posterior cerebral
106
the middle cerebral is often involved in a stroke and causes what symptoms
Sensory loss, weakness, paralysis, visual field loss, light speech, and aphasia, when dominant hemispheres affected or neglect when the non-dominated hemispheres affected
107
When the anterior cerebral is involved in a stroke, one might experience ____
impaired judgment and mutism
108
What is the difference between anterograde amnesia in retrograde amnesia?
And her grade is caused post traumatic, and is a good predictor of recovery retrograde or falls, recent long-term memories
109
when memory returns following a TBI, which returns first
Those from the most distant memory return first
110
what is the inability to express or understand prosody (pitch, timing, loudness)
aprosodia
111
Some studies link post traumatic seizures to what structures atrophy
temporal lobe and hippocampus
112
What causes Huntington's?
an autosomal dominant gene, offspring have 50 % chance. linked to abnormalities in basal ganglia and GABA and glutamate
113
what suggests that huntington's is a manifestation of pathological change
that its occurs affective, cog and then motor
114
What causes Parkinson's?
A loss of dopamine producing cells in the basal ganglia, and the substantia nigra, as well as excess of glutamate, which is associated with the progression of Parkinson's
115
What is associated with the non-motor symptoms in Parkinson's?
A degeneration of norepinephrine in the locus
116
L-dopa can help what disease and how
parkinson's and by increasing dopamine
117
focal onset seizures being in one localized area in the cerebral hemisphere and affect one side of the body, what are the two types of focal onset seizures
focal onset aware: don't affect consciousness and focal onset impaired: causes changes in consciousness beginning with an aura
118
temoral lobe seizures are caused by ____, ____, and ____
genetics, TBI and infections but stress is the biggest factor
119
when do frontal lobe seizures occur
during sleep
120
parietal lobe seizures are may feel like floating or that
a body part is enlarged or shrunk
121
what are the two types of generalized onset seizures
motor (tonic, clonic, grand mal) and non-motor
122
hypertension has higher rates in what person
African Americans
123
what happens when the pancreas releases too much insulin
blood sugar decreases causing hypoglycemia
124
when the pancreas releases too little insulin, blood sugar rises and causes ____
diabetes
125
what is the risk individuals for diabetes
native americans, african americans and hispanic americans
126
the NEBA is a EEG used for ____ by assessing ratio of ____ and ____ waves
ADHD in 6-17y/o and theta and beta waves
127
DTI's assess ______
integrity of white matter that connects with different brain regions by identifying abnormalities in rate and direction of diffusion of water molecules along axons
128
what is the advantage of CT over MRI
quicker and less expensive and doesn't involve staying still or earplugs
129
PET and SPECT use radioactive tracers to assess ____ and ____ consumption
glucose and oxygen
130
name the four FGA's
Chlorpromazine, Haloperidol, Thiodazine and Fluphenizine
131
Chlorphrazamine and thioridazine can cause what side effect
Anticholinergic, dry mouth and urinary retention
132
Tardive dyskenesia is caused by long term use of haloperidol and fluphenizine and involves
withdrawal, more common in woman and seniors
133
what are the SGA's
Clozapine, risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole
134
SGA's are less likely to cause what type of side effects
extrapyramidal side effects
135
what are the five SSRI's
fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, citalopram, paroxetine, and sertraline
136
loss of SSRI treatment response is also known as _____
tachyphylaxis
137
what are the 3 SNRI's
venlafaxine, duloxetine and desvenlafaxine
138
what is an advantage of NDRI's
they dont cause anticholinergic reactions or sexual dysfunction and they aren't cardio toxic
139
what is the role of TCA's
to inhibit reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine
140
what do MAOI's do
oxidase deactivate norepinephrine, serotonin and dopamine so MAOI's increase them by pretending to be MA
141
Benzos increase GABA and barbiturates ____ GABA
enhance
142
Opioids mimic the affect of _____
analgesics (endorphins and enkephalins)
143
how do beta blockers help anxiety
by inhibiting the activity of the SNS
144
which anticonvulsant drug can cause liver failure
valproic acid
145
what do psychostimulants do?
increase dopamine and norepinephrine in the prefrontal
146
what 2nd line treatment for ADHD works for tics
guanfacine
147
what drugs treat cocaine use
bupropion and topiramate
148
what does THC stimulate and where
dopamine in ventral striatum
149
what is the therapeutic index
used to measure a drugs safety
150
what does it mean if a TI is equal to or less than 1.0
it has a narrow therapeutic window
151
For IDD, intelligence score must be ____ SD's below the population mean
2+
152
the cause is known in _____% of IDD cases
25-50%
153
prognosis for autism is better with an IQ over ____ and language skills by ____
70 and 5
154
children with autism will react ____ to familiar things but ____ to unfamiliar
the same as other kids, different than other kids
155
what is the rate for autism in mono twins
69-95%
156
accelerated brain growth in autism begins at ____ and plateus at ____
6 months and preschool age
157
low levels of serotonin in brain but high levels in ____ is linked to _____
blood is linked to autism
158
EIBI uses applied behaviour analysis to treat _____
autism with the biggest impact on intelligence and language
159
ADHD is 2x as common in males until adulthood and then it is what ratio
1.6:1
160
in order, what are the most comorbid with ADHD
ODD, conduct disorder, anxiety and depression
161
what is the heritable rate for mono and dizzy twins for ADHD
mono = 71% and dizzy = 41%
162
dopamine overactivity and a small ______ can lead to tourettes
caudate nucleus
163
severity for tic disorders peaks at what age
10-12y
164
haloperidol, serotonin and clonidine are used for treatments of what disorder
tic disorder
165
childhood onset fluency disorder requires ___ out of ____ symptoms
1 or more out of 7
166
what percent of COFD children recover
65-85%
167
what percent of children have specific learning disorder vs reading
5-15% vs 80
168
how long does brief psychotic disorder typically last
one day to one month
169
what is schizophreniform disorder
like schizophrenia but 2/5 symptoms for 1-6 months
170
the active phase of schizophrenia has 2/5 symptoms with continuous phases (prodromal, residual) that have ____ symptoms and ____ symptoms only
2+ symptoms and negative symptoms only
171
positive symptoms of schizo are to dopamine hyperactivity in ____ areas as negative symptoms are to hypoactivty in _____
hyperactivity in subcortical and hyperactivity in cortical (prefrontal)
172
70-85% of people with schizophrenia also use ____
tobacco
173
you have a better prognosis for schizo if you are a ____ or have ___ onset or ____ symptoms
female, acute or late onset and positive symptoms
174
what drug is most affective for treatment resistant schizophrenia
clozapine
175
how does NAVIGATE help those with schizophrenia
targets individuals experiencing first episode and uses resilience training which is based on CBTp
176
what is schizoaffective
symptoms of schizo and MD or manic episode but delusions and hallucinations for 2+ weeks without mood symptoms
177
what are the types of delusional disorder
erotomania, grandiose, jealous, persecutory (conspiracy) and somatic
178
what is a hypomanic episode
3+ symptoms of mania for 4 days but no psychotic features
179
an MD episode has 5+ symptoms for 2+ weeks with at least one symptom being ______
depressed mood
180
what is the difference between bipolar I and II
bipolar I includes 1 or more manic episode and bipolar II included one or more hypomanic episodes and one or more MD episodes
181
how long does one have to experience cyclothymic disorder
2 years in adults, 1 year in others
182
what should one consider to not under or over diagnose children with ADHD in regard to bipolar
mania symptoms
183
lithium is most common for classic bipolar and ____ is more affective for atypical bipolar
anticonvulsants and SGA's
184
DMDD includes 12 months of severe outbursts 3 times a week and _______
a irritable or angry mood
185
female twins have a higher rate of heredity for what disorder
MDD
186
Lewinsohns social reinforcement theory is based on ____ conditioning
operant
187
what are the components of becks cognitive theory
depression is attributed to a negative cognitive triad about oneself, the world and the future
188
latino, Mediterranean, middle eastern and asian populations report more ___ symptoms than ____ in MDD
more somatic than psychological symptoms
189
MDD is comorbid with ____ followed by ____
SUD followed by anxiety
190
what is the recommended treatment for adolescents with MDD
CBT, IPT-A and fluoxetine
191
what is the recommended treatment for adults with MDD
CBT, IPT-A and a SSRI or SSNI
192
how does ketamine help depression
by increasing glutamate levels
193
what is the benefit for rTMS over ECT
rTMS doesn't require sedation or cause memory loss
194
what pop has the highest rate for suicide
75+ and natives, followed by whites, hispanics, blacks and asians
195
what is the most effective treatment combo for separation anxiety
CBT with parent training
196
Mowers two factor theory of specific phobia attributes phobic reactions to classical conditioning and operant conditioning, what is the difference
classical: previously neutral stimuli becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits conditioned response after pairing with unconditioned neutral stimulus that elicits anxiety
operant: avoidance allows one to avoid anxiety trigger and the avoidance is negatively reinforced
197
in vivo exposure is _____ effective than imagination exposure
more effective
198
what are the first line treatments for social anxiety disorder
CBT and SSRI or SSNI
199
a panic attack has ___ of 13 symptoms
4 of 13
200
what is involved in panic control treatment
interoceptive exposure and relaxation
201
agoraphobia has 5 situations
public transportation, open spaces, being in enclosed spaces, standing in line or being outside home alone
202
graded exposure is more commonly used but non graded has better ____
long term effects
203
GAD is most comorbid with _____
MDD, social anxiety, specific phobia and PTSD
204
when symptoms of GAD are severe, combining what two treatments is helpful
MI and CBT
205
GAD is most comorbid with _____
MDD, social anxiety, specific phobia and PTSD
206
____ has earlier onset of OCD and higher prevalence but only in childhood
Males
207
a history of insufficient care and inhibited or emotionally withdrawn behaviour is associated with which disorder
reactive attachment disorder
208
disinhibited social engagement disorder is categorized by inappropriate interactions _______
unfamiliar adults
209
what are the five categories of symptoms for PTSD
Intrusion, avoidance, old changes, arousal, reactivity
210
hyperactive amygdala and cingulate and a hypoactive ____ show PTSD
ventromedial
211
Single session debriefing is not recommended for which disorder
PTSD because it could make things worse
212
Telepsych is _____ as face to face for PTSD
as effective but alliance may not be as strong
213
How long can acute stress disorder last
3 days - 1 month
214
localizes amnesia involves not remembering info from _______
a certain time period
215
continuous amnesia involves not remembering _____
new events
216
what is the criteria for a conversion disorder
symptoms that disturb voluntary motor or sensory functioning
217
what are the four stages of CBT-E for eating disorders
engagement and eating, reviewing progress, identifying triggers, relapse prevention
218
high levels of which type of motivation predict a greater reduction of ED symptoms and less treatment dropout
autonomous
219
which drugs are used in anorexia treatment
olazapine for weight gain and fluoxetine for weight maintenance
220
Enuresis is a disorder involving ______
voiding of urine in bed and clothing twice a week for more than 3 months over the age of 5
221
what are the three kinds of insomnia
sleep onset, sleep maintenance and late insomnia. maintenance is most common but combo is more common
222
A REM latency of less than 15 minutes is associated with which disorder
narcolepsy
223
non-REM sleep arousal disorder involves _____ and _____
sleep walking and terrors from incomplete awakening
224
sildenafil, tadalafil and vardenafil are used as treatments for which disorder
erectile dysfunction
225
what treatment is most recommended for female orgasmic disorder
directed masturbation more than CBT
226
what does the Dutch Protocol for gender dysphoria recommend
that it only persists into adults in a small number of children so wait until 12 and then watchful waiting with support until puberty then using social transition and blocking drugs
227
gender affirmative models say that children of all age ______
know their gender identity and can benefit from social transition
228
someone who is touching nonconsentually and has acted on urges has _____
frontteurism
229
a man with sexual attraction for a non genital body part of non living object has _____ disorder
fetishistic
230
what percentage of children with ODD eventually have a conduct disorder
30%
231
what are the four symptom categories of conduct disorder
aggression to people and animals, destruction of property, deceit or theft and serious violation of rules
232
there are three subtypes of conduct disorder, childhood onset which is 1 symptom before age ____, adolescent onset which is ___ symptoms before age____, and unspecified onset
10, 0, 10
childhood onsets are usually more aggressive and risk diagnosis for antisocial or SUD
233
cortisol is similar for adolescents with or without conduct disorder but only at what time
in the mornings
234
poor coordination between emotional and physiological arousal is associate with which disorder
conduct disorder
235
a maturity gap between sexual and social maturity is associated with what type of CD antisocial
adolescence - limited
236
the Parent management training - oregon model is based on what assumption
that behaviours are the result of coercive interactions without positive reinforcement
237
parent child interaction therapy is used for 2-7 year olds who have ____ disorder and have experienced ____
conduct disorder and have experienced maltreatment
238
MDFT has the goal of reducing substance use in 11-21 year olds by creating change in what four areas
adolescents, family interactions, parents, extra familial
239
which treatment is used for those at risk of losing home due to antisocial personality, SUD's and psychiatric problems
MST - based on ecological theory that there is risk factors at multiple levels
240
A specifier is used in alcohol major neurological disorder to determine between ____ and _____
non-amnestic and amnestic - confabulatory (korsakoff)
241
CRAFT works with SUD by working with the ____
concerned significant other
242
the community reinforcement approach to SUD's uses ____ conditioning to make drug free living more rewarding
operant conditioning
243
effects of voucher based reinforcement therapy fade but ____ can help maintain it
CBT
244
personalized normative feedback treatment uses comparison of frequency and finds that individuals _____ the prevalence
overestimate
245
which in order have the highest rate of Alzheimer's
black americans, hispanics, white americans
246
what is pseudo dementia
depression with prominent cognitive symptoms that respond well to treatment
247
Alzheimer's is associated with reduced ____ and extra ____
ACH and extra glutamate
248
intercellular tangles come from an accusation of what protein
TAU
249
alzheimer's is shown in medial temporal followed by ____ and then ____
frontal/parietal and then cortex
250
in regards to the big five, high ____ and low ____ is related to Alzheimers
high neuroticism and low conscientiousness
251
the early stage of Alzheimer's lasts 2-4 years and involves which symptoms
short term memory loss, anomia, personality changes, disorientation
252
the middle stage of Alzheimers lasts 2-10 years and involves which symptoms
long term memory, irritability, delusion and sundowning
253
_____ regulates glutamate in alzheimer's treatment
memantine
254
NCD with lewy bodies core features are fluctuating cognition with variations in attention, sleep disorders and ____
neuroleptic sensitivity
255
what is creutzfeldt jacob disease
a NCD from Iron diseases with rapid progression of impairment that is sporadic (common), familial or acquired by consuming infected meat
256
frontotemporal NCD has a language variant, semantic, agromantic (incorrect grammar, hesitant speech and ____
lopoenic : impaired retention, finding the right word
257
Cluster A personality consists of what 3 disorders
paranoid, schizoid and schizotypal
258
Cluster B consists of what 4 disorders
antisocial, borderline, histrionic and narcissistic
259
Cluster C consists of what 3 disorders
avoidant, dependent and OCPD
260
schizoid PD involves having _____
no desire for relationships
261
schizotypal PD individuals will express unhappiness at lack of friends but act how
in ways that suggest a lack of interest
262
CBT groups can help with reoffending rates in antisocial PD and contingency management provides ____ for desirable behaviours
reinforcement
263
intercession coaching in treatment of BPD helps generalize skills to real - world situations and provides chances to do what
provides chances to make repairs to therapeutic relationship
