PHYSIO BRAINSCAPE - Group 1A Flashcards by Henriyo Cortez

All of the following are true for homeostasis EXCEPT:
A. All organs of the body perform functions that help maintain these relatively constant conditions
B. Balances the relatively constant conditions of both external and internal environment.
C. Maintenance of nearly constant conditions in the internal environment.
D. Most control systems of the body act by negative feedback.

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Which of the following are effectors for the Nervous Control mechanism of bodily functions?
 A. Brain and Spinal Cord
 B. Muscles and Glands
 C. Stomach and Liver
 D. Skin

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\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the major cation in the extracellular fluid and \_\_\_\_\_\_ in the intracellular fluid.
A. Calcium; Potassium
B. Calcium; Magnesium
C. Sodium; Potassium
D. Sodium; Calcium

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It is also called the internal environment or milieu intérieur of the body.
 A. Extracellular Fluid
 B. Interstitial Fluid
 C. Intracellular Fluid
 D. Intercellular Fluid

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15% of the body weight is the interstitial fluid, where can it specifically be seen?
A. Intercellular fluid
B. In the blood plasma
C. Extracellular fluid
D. Intercellular spaces

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Which of the following are major anions in the ECF? 
A. Bicarbonate and Phosphate
B. Chloride and Bicarbonate
C. Chloride and Phosphate
D. Chloride, Bicarbonate, and Phosphate

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In a 50kg woman which of the following is TRUE regarding the volumes of her body fluids?  
A. TBW= 40L
B. ICF= 20L
C. ECF= 20L
D. Plasma= 7.5L

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ECF is \_\_% of body weight. ICF is \_\_% of body weight. TBW is \_\_% of body weight.
A.  60; 40; 20 
B. 20; 40; 60 
C. 40; 60; 20 
D. 60; 20; 40

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Which is NOT true regarding nervous control?
A. It operates at a subconscious level and controls many functions of the internal organs.
B. It is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
C. It uses organic message.
D. Its mediators are neurons.

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Hormones: Mediators:: Nerves and synapses:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A.Effector
B.Linking Mechanism
C.Mediator
D.Response Target

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Which of the following is not a true statement?
A. Smooth ER: also know as granular ER and it is responsible for detoxification and lipid synthesis
B. Rough ER ribosomes: bound for cell membrane, lysosomes and outside of the cell.
C. Free floating ribosomes: creates proteins and bound for cytoplasm and mitochondria.
D. Golgi Apparatus: closely related to the endoplasmic reticulum, for packaging of proteins and molecular tagging

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Which of the following is not a function of glycocalyx?
A. Imparts a negative electrical charge.
B. Attachment to glycocalyx of the other cells.
C. Receptor substances for binding hormones and for immune reactions .
D. Vesicular organelles that form by breaking off from the Golgi apparatus

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\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a fibrillar proteins synthesized by ribosomes in the cytoplasm and it function is to provide rigid physical support for certain parts of the cell. 
A.  Cytoplasm 
B. Cytoskeleton 
C. Endoplasmic Reticulum 
D. Peroxisomes

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Which of the following is not a true description of the following cell component?
A. Secretory vesicles: formed by the ER Golgi apparatus system, for storage of enzymes that are not yet activated and for replenishing the plasma membrane whenever it forms phagocytic or pinocytic vesicles.
B. mitochondria: forms ATP, does not follow genetic code, it has its own DNA and it penetrated by several thousand of nuclear pores.
C. Nucleolus: does not have a limiting membrane and it becomes considerably enlarged when the cell is actively synthesizing proteins .
D. ER: network of tubular and flat vesicular structures in the cytoplasm.

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Which of the following is not true regarding Fluid Mosaic Model? A. phospholipid bilayer B. With hydrophobic end C. Amphiphatic D. Not repelled by water and are not mutually attracted to one another.

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\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is not embedded in the cell membrane, are not covalently bound to membrane components and loosely attached to the cell membrane by electrostatic interactions? CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.
 A. Peripheral proteins 
B. Membrane Proteins 
C. Integral proteins  
D. Membrane lipids

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Collective term of different substances that make up the cell. 
 A. Protoplasm 
B. Water 
C. Structural proteins
D. Electrolytes

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Which of the following is true regarding mitochondria? A. Without inner and outer membrane? B. The liberated energy is used to synthesized a “high energy” substance called ATP C. Chronic exercise decrease the density of mitochondria to supply the additional energy required D. no answer

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Long intracellular filaments that form microtubules and fibrillar proteins? A. Structural proteins B. Functional proteins C. Cell membrane D. Membrane proteins

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Possession of both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties? A. Amphoteric B. Amphiphatic C. Amphibolic D. None of the above

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It is the crawling movement of an entire cell  in  relation  to  its  surroundings,  such  as  movement  of white blood cell  through  tissues.
A. Amoeboid movement
B. ciliary movement
C. flagelllar movement
D. whipping movement

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It is  a  whiplike  movement that occurs  on  the  surfaces  of  the  respiratory  airways  and on the inside surfaces of the uterine tubes (falopian  tubes)  of  the  reproductive  tract.
A. Amoeboid movement
B. ciliary movement
C. flagelllar movement
D. crawling movement

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Each  cilium is  an  outgrowth  of  a structure that lies immediately beneath the cell membrane, called  the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_  of  the  cilium.
A. flagella
B. basal body
C. head
D. cell membrane

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The most important initiator of ameboid locomotion is the process called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. chemotaxis
B. chemotactic substance
C. phagocytic substance
D. endotaxis

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``` Any chemical substance that causes chemotaxis to occur is called a __________. A. chemotaxis B. chemotactic substance C. positive chemotaxis D. Negative chemotaxis ```

``` Adenine : Guanine : __________ : Cytosine A. Tyrosine B. Cysteine C. Thymine D. Tryptophan ```

``` RNA that carries the genetic code to the cytoplasm for controlling the type of protein formed. A. rRNA B. tRNA C. mRNA D. DNA ```

``` RNA that transfers amino acid molecules to protein molecules as the protein is being synthesized. A. rRNA B. tRNA C. mRNA D. DNA ```

``` It refers to changes in physical and functional properties of cells as they proliferate in the embryo to form the different bodily structures and organs. A. Cell Mitosis B. Meosis C. Cell cyle D. Cell differentiation ```

``` What type of endocytosis occurs continually in the cell membrane and ingests minute particles inside the cell cytoplasm? A. Phagocytosis B. Amoeboid C. Diffusion D. Pinocytosis ```

``` The particular form of energy to which a receptor is most sensitive A. Lateral inhibition B. Adequate stimulus C. Desensitization D. Postsynaptic potential ```

``` Depolarization is the opening of ____________ channels A. Ca+ B. K+ C. Na+ D. Cl- ```

``` Secreted by neurons in the substantia nigra A. Serotonin B. Dopamine C. Norepinephrine D. GABA ```

Type of inhibition caused by the release of an inhibitory substance onto the outsides of presynaptic nerve fibrils before their endings terminate on the postsynaptic neuron A. Presynaptic inhibition B. Postsynaptic inhibition C. Nerve Fibrils inhibition D. Neurotransmitter inhibition

It is the additive effect produced by numerous EPSPs that originated from the same synapse by a series of high-frequency action potentials on the presynaptic neuron A. Temporal summation B. Spatial summation C. IPSP D. Occlusion

It is produced by a number of EPSPs that were generated at different synapses on the same postsynaptic neuron A. Spatial summation B. Temporal summation C. Facilitation Zone D. Discharge Zone

``` Type of neuronal circuit wherein the signals from multiple inputs unite to excite a single neuron A. Convergence B. Divergence C. Reverberation D. Recruitment ```

The transmitter that is purely excitatory A. GABA B. Nitric oxide C. Serotonin D. Glutamate

The following nerve terminals secrete Gamma-AminoButyric Acid (GABA), EXCEPT: A. Cerebellum B. Spinal cord C. Basal ganglia D. Cerebrum

The spatial distribution from which a stimulus produces a response A. Lateral field B. Weber-Fechner Law C. Receptive field

``` This stage of hemostasis initiates the formation of a platelet plug. A. Secondary Hemostasis B. Clot Retraction C. Primary Hemostasis D. Platelet Adhesion ```

The first stage in formation of the Platelet Plug is Platelet Adhesion which refers to platelets’ A. Sticking to surfaces such as subendothelium B. Sticking to other platelets C. Providing the surface for assembly of clotting factors D. Releasing of thromboxane A2, ADP and serotonin

``` If the platelet count is below _______ bleeding might be present. A.150000/UL B. 200000/UL C.50000/UL D.350000/UL ```

``` This factor is important for normal platelet aggregation. A. Glycoprotein IIb-IIIa complex B. Calcium C. Glycoprotein Ib D. Tissue Factor ```

``` This activates protein C which inactivattes factor V and VIII. A. Heparin B. Antithrombin III C. Thrombin D. Thrombomodulin ```

``` Vitamin K is used to produce prothrombin and other clotting factors in which organ? A. Spleen B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Thymus ```

``` Which of the following is associated with Hemophilia A or Classic Hemophilia? A. Factor X B. Factor II C. Factor XI D. Factor VIII ```

``` Which of the following binds fibrinogen and supports platelet aggregation? A. gp Ib/IX/V B. gp IIb/IIIa C. gp Ia/IIa D. P2Y1 ```

``` Which are Vitamin K dependent coagulation proteins? A. I, V, VIII, XIII B. II, VII, IX, X C. II, III, IV, XI D. I, II, V, XIII ```

Which is not true for Primary Hemostasis? A. involves blood vessels and platelets only B. formation of platelet plug C. bleeding time as a screening test D. clotting time as screening test

Information processing includes all of the following except: A. Perception of sensory information B. Effects motor output C. Thought processes and conscious awareness D. Emotion and motivation

``` The following describes the general function of the nervous system except: A. Sensory detection B. Information processing C. Expression of behavior D. Direct long term functions ```

``` Which of the following is destroyed in the disease Multiple Sclerosis? A. Myelin sheath B. Astrocytes C. Neuroglia D. Neurons ```

``` A major cell type in the Nervous System that maintains the internal milieu of the nervous system. A. Neurons B. Neuroglia C. Schwann Cells D. Satellite Cells ```

``` It is a type of neuroglia that help remove the cellular products of the damage. A. Satellite Cells B. Ependymal Cells C. Macroglia D. Microglia ```

``` It is the nerve impulses that travel away from the soma. A. Axon B. Dendrite C. node of Ranvier D. Cell body ```

``` The gaps formed between the myelin sheath that facilitate rapid conduction of nerve impulses. A. Axon hillock B. Terminal buttons C. Node of Ranvier D. Dendrite ```

``` Which is true in unmyelinated nerve fiber? A. It consists of Aα fiber. B. It consists of Aδ fiber. C. It consists of B fiber. D. It consists of C fiber. ```

``` Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by the ependymal cells of the A. Choroid plexus B. Arachnoid mater C. Cerebellum D. Cerebrum ```

``` They are sensory neurons found in olfactory epithelium, the retina of the eye, and ganglia of the vestibulocochlear nerve A. Unipolar Neuron B. Bipolar Neuron C. Pseudo-unipolar Neuron D. Multipolar Neuron ```

``` Which of the following transport moves across the membrane that is against the concentration gradient? A. Co-transport B. Diffusion C Osmosis D. Ligand-Gated Channels ```

All of the following are true in Passive and Active Transport EXCEPT: A. There is no energy used in diffusion B. Carrier proteins are used in Passive Transport C. Glucose is transported via Carrier-Mediated Transport D. ATP is needed by the Active Transport

``` In Fick’s law, thickness is used to divide what factor? A. Concentration gradients B. Concentration coefficient C. Permeability coefficient D. Permeability constant ```

Osmosis is the net movement of water through a semi-permeable membrane caused by a concentration. All of the following are true in osmosis EXCEPT: A. The solvent is the substance that dissolves. It undergoes diffusion from low solute to high solute concentration. B. Osmolality determines the osmotic pressure between solutions. C. Osmotic pressure prevents backflow across the membrane. D. Tonicity is influenced by non-permeating solutes.

``` What type of transport is characterized by molecular conformation of its chemical bonds that responds to the electric potential across the cell membrane? A. Co-transport B. Facilitated Diffusion C. Ligand-gated D. Voltage-gated ```

Which is TRUE regarding facilitated diffusion? A. It is stereospecific and depends on saturation. B. It occurs downhill from a gradient and also called symport. C. It is faster than simple diffusion and does not require additional energy. D. Its rate of diffusion depends on permeability and concentration gradients.

Which is NOT an example of the characteristics of Carrier-Mediated Transport? A. D-glucose is transported by facilitated diffusion but the L-isomer is not. B. Galactose is a competitive inhibitor of glucose transport in the small intestine. C. Once transport maxima of glucose has been reached, glucose is spilled in urine. D. Solutes move in opposite directions across the membrane.

Primary active transport requires direct input of metabolic energy. Which of the following is NOT an example of primary active transport? A. Ca2+ ATPase in sarcoplasmic reticulum B. H+/K+ ATPase in parietal cells of the stomach C. Na+/K+ ATPase in cells D. Na+/H+ in proximal tubules

Which of the following is a function of Na+/K+ ATPase? A. It initiates osmosis of water into the cell. B. It moves a negative charge from interior to the exterior of the cell for each cycle. C. It promotes net loss of ions out of the cell. D. It activates swelling of the cell.

Secondary active transport is different from primary active transport for many reasons, which of the following is TRUE of secondary active transport? A. Usually an anion is transported uphill. B. Metabolic energy is provided indirectly from the Na+ gradient. C. The two types of secondary active transport are called uniport and antiport D. Na+/ Cl- in distal convoluted tubule is an example of exchange transport.

``` What causes both depolarization and repolarization of the nerve membrane during action potential? A. Potassium Channel B. Voltage-gated sodium channel C. Na-k pump D. Diffusion potential ```

``` This plays an important role in increasing the rapidity of repolarization of the membrane: A. Voltage-gated K+ Channel B. Voltage-gated Na channel C. Na-K pump D. Diffusion potential ```

``` its degree of activity is strongly stimulated when excess sodium ions accumulate inside the cell membrane A. K channel B. Aquaporins C. Na, K ATPase pump D. Diuretic amiloride ```

``` It is the diffusion potential that balances the tendency for diffusion that is caused by concentration gradient. A. Equilibrium potential B. Electrochemical equilibrium C. Resting membrane potential D. Repolarization ```

``` These channels are opened or closed by changes in membrane potential. A. Ligand-gated channels B. Voltage-gated channels C. Aquaporins D. Diffusion Potential ```

``` These channels are opened or closed by hormones, second messengers or neurotransmitters. When open, it is permeable to Na and K causing the motor and plate to depolarize. A. Ligand-gated channels B. Voltage-gated channels C. Aquaporins D. Action potential ```

``` It is the potential difference generated across a membrane because of a concentration difference of an ion. It can be generated only if the membrane is permeable to the ion. A. Equilibrium Potential B. Resting Membrane Potential C. Diffusion potential D. Action potential ```

``` This is established by diffusion potentials that result from concentration differences of permanent ion. A. Equilibrium potential B. Resting membrane potential C. Diffusion potential D. Action potential ```

``` This contributes only indirectly to the resting membrane potential by maintaining, across the cell membrane, the Na and K concentration gradients that then produces diffusion potentials. A. K channels B. aquaporins C. Na-K pump D. diuretic amiloride ```

``` This is a property of excitable cells which consists of a rapid depolarization, or upstroke, followed by repolarization of the membrane potential. A. Equilibrium potential B. Resting membrane potential C. Diffusion potential D. Action potential ```

``` This is the membrane potential needed to be reached in order to elicit an action potential A. Equilibrium potential B. Threshold C. Diffusion potential D. Resting Membrane Potential ```

``` This blocks the voltage-sensing Na channels and abolish action potentials. A. Tetrodotoxin (TTX) B. Lidocaine C. Both D. Neither ```

Which series of events contribute to the repolarization stage? A. Closure of sodium channels; potassium efflux B. Opening of potassium channels; potassium influx C. Opening of sodium channels; closure of potassium channels D. Closure of potassium channels; sodium influx

``` This occurs when another action potential cannot be elicited, no matter how large the stimulus. A. Absolute refractory period B. Relative refractory period C. Accommodation D. Myelination ```

``` An action potential can be elicited during this period only if a larger than usual inward current is provided A. Absolute refractory period B. Relative refractory period C. Accommodation D. Myelination ```

``` _______ increases pump activity by a genomic action to increase the formation of Na, K ATPase molecules A. Thyroid Hormone B. Aldosterone C. Dopamine D. Insulin ```

``` At what membrane voltage neuronal voltage-gated Na+ channels become activated? A. -90 mV B. +90 mV C. -50 mV D. +50 mV ```

The hyperpolarization phase of the action potential is due to which mechanism: A. Closure of resting Na+ channels B. Closure of Cl- channels C. Opening of voltage-gated Cl- channels D. Prolonged opening of voltage-gated K+ channels

``` This is the phase of the action potential during which another stimulus given to the neuron will not lead to a second action potential: A. Overshoot B. Absolute refractory period C. Relative refractory period D. Threshold ```

What is responsible for the overshoot of the action potential? A. Prolonged opening of slow calcium-sodium channels B. Leakage of potassium outside the cell C. Closure of potassium channels D. Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels

At the peak of the action potential, the membrane potential is: A. exactly at the Na+ equilibrium potential B. close to but more positive than the Na+ equilibrium potential C. close to but less positive than the Na+ equilibrium potential D. exactly at 0 mV

``` This refers to the stage of action potential where the membrane is said to be “polarized” at -90 mV A. Resting stage B. Depolarization C. Overshoot D. Repolarization ```

Ionic Basis of Relative Refractory Period A. Potassium conduction is higher at rest B. Depolarization C. Repolarization D. Hyperpolarization

Ligand- Gated Channels are responsible for? A. Synaptic Potentials B. Depolarization C. Overshoot D. Repolarization

A point of contact present between two neurons or between a neuron and another cell, such as a muscle or a gland cell. A. Nodes of Ranvier B. Chemically gated channels C. Synapse D. Myelin sheath

The tendency for K+ to diffuse out of the cell is _______ by the tendency of the positively charged K+ to be attracted back into the cell by the negatively charged proteins. A. Proportional B. Opposed C. Increased D. Reversible

``` Sodium-Potassium pump helps maintain the differential levels of Na+ and K+ by pumping three Na+ out of the cell in exchange for two K+ into the cell. The pump is driven by _______ A. Electronic potential B. Contribution of Na/KATPase C. Resting Membrane Potential D. ATP hydrolysis ```

``` Characterized by a semi-permeable membrane and charged osmotically active ion. A. Nernst Equation B. Diffusion Potential C. Gibbs-Donnan Equilibrium D. Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz Equation ```

``` What type of action potential conduction “jumps” from one node of Ranvier to the next along the length of the axon? A. Saltatory conduction B. Continuous conduction C. Hyperpolarization D. Action potential ```

What is Myelination? A. it is where action potential are generated B. acts as an insulator C. Both D. Neither

``` All of the following are characteristics of action potential EXCEPT: A. Abides by the all or none law B. Non- decreasing C. Irreversible D. Graded ```

Time periods after an action potential, during which a new stimulus cannot be readily elicited? A. Refractory periods B. Absolute Refractory Period C. Either D. Resting Membrane Potential

If a membrane is permeable to more than one ion, the diffusion potential is dependent on the following except: A. Polarity of each ion B. Permeability of the membrane to each ion C. Concentration of each ion on the outside and inside of the membrane D. Type of channel present in the membrane.

``` Diffusion potential of a membrane that is permeable to more than one ion is computed using the: A.Goldman Equation B.Nernst Equation C.Fick’s Law D. All or Nothing Law ```

The evolutionary reason for the resting potential not being zero (0) mv is: A. It lessens the ATP needed for depolarization. B. It prepares the membrane for rapid response to stimulus. C. It is because of EPSP. D. Leaky channels generate action potentials.

If a membrane is permeable to more than one ion The Goldman-Hodgkins-Katz equation is used to compute the membrane potential inside the membrane. This means that if Cl- has zero permeability in the membrane then: A. Cl- the most important determinant of membrane potential. B. The membrane potential would become equal to the Nernst potential of the Cl-. C. The membrane potential would be equal to the Nernst potential of the remaining ions. D. The concentration of Cl- would determine the membrane potential.

``` Potassium ions are transported outside via: A. Na-K ATPase pump B. Leaky Na channel C. Aquaporins D. Ligand Gated Channel ```

``` At what membrane potential will the voltage gated Na channel be inactivated? A. -90 mv B. O mv C. 35 to -90 mv D. -90 to 36 mv ```

``` According to the Gibbs-Donnan Equilibrium, if there is a non-permeating ion, the diffusible ions distribute themselves so that at equilibrium their ____________ are equal. A.Voltage B.Concentration C.Potential D.Force ```

``` What is the value of the safety factor? A. Less than 1 B. Greater than 1 C. Equal to 1 D. Equal to 0 ```

These areas of the body produces RBC in the fetus except: A.Yolk Sac B.Liver C.Bone Marrow D.Spleen

All of the following organs is a site for fetal erythropoeisis except? A.Small Intestine B.Lymph Nodes C.Spleen D.Liver

The following are descriptive of physiologic polycythemia except: A.It is a type of secondary polycythemia B.Blood count ranges from 6 to 7 million/mm3 C.This usually occurs for people living in low altitudes. D.Blood count usually is 30% higher than normal.

What is the major effect of anemia in the body? A. Decrease Heart Rate and Increase Workload B. Increase Heart Rate and Decrease Workload C. Increase both heart rate and workload D. Decrease both heart rate and workload

What types of RBC is present in hereditary spherocytosis? A. big and spherical B. very small and spherical C. anucleated and with indentations D. elongated and small

In sickle cell anemia, what does hemoglobin S. have that is faulty? A. Alpha Chains B. Beta Chains C. nucleus D. microfilaments

it is a phase in the formation of the platelet plug wherein platelets develop pseudopods, eventually release thromboxane A2, ADP, PAF and serotonin which activate other platelets and finally activate its collagen receptor glycoprotein IIb,IIIA after vWF binds to GpIb A. platelet adhesion B. platelet activation C. Platelet aggregation D. Primary hemostasis

It is the fourth stage of the coagulation cascade wherein the fibrin clot is invaded by the fibroblasts which eventually forms connective tissue around the clot; as the clot retracts edges of the injured vessel are pulled together further reducing blood loss. a. Clot dissolution b. Clot retraction c. Platelet aggregation d. Platelet activation

it is the second phase of hemostasis wherein plug formation occurs and platelets serve as key players, along with the blood vessel wall and von Willebrand factor. A. Reflex vasoconstriction B. Primary hemostasis C. Clot dissolution D. secondary hemostasis

Common pathway of the Coagulation cascade in the intrinsic pathway starts upon activation of: A. factor X by factor VII B. factor XI by factor XIIa C. tissue factor D. factor IX by Calcium and Factor XIa

Male with anti-A agglutinin on his blood cells marries a female with both Type A and Type B agglutinogens. Which of the following would never be an expected progeny of the couple? A. Type AB B. Type A C. Type B D. Type O

It is a type of pathway of the coagulation cascade wherein it initiates the coagulation cascade and is limited by the quantities of traumatized tissue, Factors X, VII and V. a. Extrinsic pathway b. Intrinsic pathway c. Pentose-phosphate pathway d. Krebs cycle

``` When Anti A serum is added and the sample turned cloudy and the sample with the Anti B serum agglutinate, what is the agglutinin present on the blood sample? A. Anti A B. Anti B C. Anti A & Anti B D. None ```

``` What is/are commonly used for Blood Typing? A. ABO Blood typing B. Rh Typing C. A & B D. None of the above ```

``` WBC that work with the immune system to attach to specific invading organisms and destroy them: A. lymphocytes B. neutrophils C. basophils D. eosinophils ```

Secreted by the endothelium that binds thrombin thereby reducing free thrombin and eventually activates Protein C, that inactivates Factor V and VIII a. Heparin b. Calcium c. Thrombomodulin d. Vitamin K

``` After several days to weeks, what WBC becomes the dominant phagocytic cell because of increased bone marrow production? A. granulocytes B. macrophages C. lymphocytes D. megakaryocytes ```

``` Circulating mast cells are: A. neutrophils B. eosinophils C. basophils D. monocytes ```

``` What type of antibodies become attached to mast cells and basophils during allergic reactions? A. IgM antibodies B. IgA antibodies C. IgG antibodies D. IgE antibodies ```

The chief site of blood formation during the middle trimester? A. Spleen and lymphnode B. Yolk sac C. Bone marrow D. Liver

How long does it take granulocytes to leave the bone marrow? A. 6-7 hours B. 3-8 hours C. 4-8 hours D. 4-7 hours

Where are leukocytes formed? A. spleen B. lymph tissues C. bone marrow D. liver

The mobile units of the protective system of the body A. granulocytes B. leukocytes C. macrophages

``` Which mechanism of cellular communication is exhibited by a thyroid hormone? A. endocrine signaling B. neurocrine signaling C. autocrine signaling D. juxtacrine signaling ```

Contact dependent signaling occurs between adjacent cells linked by A. desmosomes B. tight junctions C. gap junctions D. anchoring junctions

``` Synaptic transmission refers to the transport of __________ from a presynaptic cell to a post-snynaptic cell. A. hormones B. ions C. neurotransmitters D. neurons ```

``` Signalling mechanism/s defined as multiple, hierarchical steps, that amplifies hormone-receptor binding event A. signaling pathways B. signaling molecules C. transduction signalling D. endocrine signalling ```

Signalling mechanism/s that uses peptides and proteins, catecholamines, steroid hormones, eicosanoids A. signaling pathways B. signaling molecules C. transduction signalling D. endocrine signalling

``` Transport of glucose, amino acids, and other polar molecules through the cell membrane are mediated by _______. A. carrier proteins B. transport proteins C. enzymes D. osmosis ```

``` D-glucose when transported through facilitated diffusion is an example of A. saturation B. stereospecificity C. competition D. active transport ```

``` Carrier-mediated transport characterized by a directional proportion between the transport rate and solute concentration A. saturation B. stereospecificity C. passive transport D. counter transport ```

``` Galactose acting as a competitive inhibitor of glucose transport in the intestine is an example of A. competition B. saturation C. passive transport D. facilitate diffusion ```

Release and diffusion of local hormones with regulatory action on neghboring target cells A. endocrine signalling B. juxtacrine signalling C. neurocrine signalling D. paracrine signalling

A protein molecule in the cell membrane which has watery spaces all the way through the molecule and allow free movement of water as well as selected ions. A. Channel protein B. Carrier protein C. Transport protein D. Carrier-Mediated Transport

Type of membrane transport that requires additional energy A. Passive Transport B. Active Transport C. Facilitated Diffusion D. Osmosis

``` A type of passive transport where in the net movement of water is caused by a concentration difference of water A. Facilitated Diffusion B. Diffusion C. Osmosis D. Carrier- Mediated Transport ```

It is the measure of the osmotic pressure of two solutions separated by a semipermeable membrane A. Osmolarity B. Tonicity C. Osmolality D. Osmotic pressure

A mechanism of cellular communication where in a cell secretes hormones or chemical messengers into the blood stream to be transported to a distant target organ A. Neurocrine signaling B. Juxtacrine signaling C. Autocrine signaling D. Endocrine signaling

``` Acetylcholine channel is an example of what kind of gating of protein channel? A. Ligand-Gated Channel B. Voltage-Gated Channel C.Primary Active Transport D. Secondary Active transport ```

A mechanism of cellular communication where in a cell secretes hormones or chemical messengers that binds to the same cell A. Autocrine signaling B. Paracrine signaling C. Juxtacrine signaling D. Endocrine signaling

``` What is the primary effector of the cGMP System? A. Phospholipase C B. cAMP phosphodiesterase C. Guanylyl cyclase D. Receptor tyrosine kinase ```

``` What is the secondary messenger of the Tyrosine Kinase System? A. Protein kinase A B. Adenylyl cyclase C. IP3 and DAG D. None ```

This characteristic of carrier-mediated transport which states that the transport rate increases as solute concentration increases until all carriers are saturated A. Stereospecificity B. Saturation C. Competetion D. Electrogenic Nature

``` How many layers are there in a cell membrane? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ```

``` Where is the hydrophobic part in a cell membrane? A. Top layer B. Bottom layer C. Middle layer D. Both top and bottom layer ```

``` What kind of proteins are deeply embedded within the lipid bilayer itself? A. Integral proteins B. Peripheral proteins C. Glycocalyx D. Carbohydrates ```

``` Which provides antigenic and functional properties to the cell membrane A. Carbohydrates B. Glycocalyx C. Integral proteins D. Peripheral Proteins ```

``` What are protein complexes which are located in specialized membrane patches? A. Lipid Rafts B. Glycocalyx C. Integral Proteins D. Peripheral proteins ```

``` Which is derived directly from the breakdown of ATP? A. Primary Transport B. Secondary Transport C. Simple Diffusion D. Symport ```

``` The Na+/K+ pump is an example of what kind of transport? A. Primary Transport B. Secondary Transport C. Simple Diffusion D. Facilitated Diffusion ```

``` Which occurs uphill against an electrochemical gradient? A. Primary Transport B. Secondary Transport C. Facilitated Diffusion D. Simple Diffusion ```

``` In what type of cotransport involves one substrate is transported in one direction across the membrane while another is cotransported in the opposite direction. A. Symporter B. Antiporter C. Secondary Transport D. Primary Transport ```

``` Calcium pump is an example of what kind of transport? A. Primary Transport B. Secondary Transport C. Simple Diffusion D. Facilitated Diffusion ```

``` What do you call continued firing after the stimulus stops? A. Reverbration B. Afterdischarge C. Amplifying Divergence D. Convergence ```

Which DOES NOT define Occlusion? a. Stimulus to B produces EPSP in X and Y b. Stimulus to C produces EPSP in Y and Z c. Stimulus to C produces EPSP in X and Z d. Stimulation of B and C together is not as great as the sum of the responses to stimulation B and C separately because B and C end neuron only

What is the opposite of facilitation? a. Presynaptic Inhibition b. Post synaptic Facilitation c. Synaptic Inhibition d. Synaptic Facilitation

It is a process by whereby neurons transduce environmental energy into neural signals. a. Information processing b. Expression of behavior c. Sensory detection d. Stimulus

What are the elementary attributes of a stimulus? a. appropriate modality, intensity, location and duration b. appropriate mildness, intensity, location and drive c. inappropriate modality, intensity, location and duration d. inapproriate mildness, intensity, location and duration

Where is Dopamine secreted? a. Median raphe of the brainstem b. Spinal cord c. Basal ganglia d. Substantia nigra

What always acts as a major inhibitory of transmitter of the spinal cord? a. Glycine b. Dopamine c. GABA d. Glutamate

What controls mood and sleep? a. Nitrous Oxide b. Dopamine c. Serotonin d. Acetylcholine

What is responsible for long-term behavior and memory? a. Norepinephrine b. Epinephrine c. Nitric Oxide d. Glutamate

What is Adequate Stimulus? a. Adequate Stimulus is the particular form of energy to which a receptor is most sensitive b. Adequate Stimulus is the particular form of energy to which a receptor is most insensitive c. Adequate Stimulus is the particular form of energy to which a stimuli is most sensitive d. Adequate Stimulus is the particular form of energy to which a stimuli is most insensitive

A. Adequate Stimulus is the particular form of energy to which a receptor is most sensitive

``` This stimulates the production of red blood cells in low oxygen states. A. Hemosiderin B. Erythropoietin C. Ferritin D. Presence of oxygen ```

B The principal stimulus for red blood cell production in low oxygen states is a circulating hormone called erythropoietin, a glycoprotein with a molecular weight of about 34,000.

How many months after birth will an infant begin to produce agglutinins? A. 10 - 18 months B. 2 - 8 months C. immediately after birth D. agglutinins are present before birth

B Immediately after birth, the quantity of agglutinins in the plasma is almost zero. two to eight months after birth, an infant begins to produce agglutinins.

``` This disease decreases the concentration of circulating fibrinogen. A. Kidney Disease B. Hemophilia C. Stroke D. Liver Cirrhosis ```

D Fibrinogen is formed in the liver, and liver disease can decrease the concentration of circulating fibrinogen, as it does the concentration of prothrombin.

The following are the functions of blood, except. A. Regulates body temperature B. Transports oxygen and carbon dioxide in and out of the body C. Regulation of skin color and pigment D. pH regulation

``` A large glycoprotein synthesized in the endothelium that coats the damaged area of the blood vessel and serves as an attractant for platelets. A. Factor VIII B. Von Willebrand Factor C. Thrombin D. Platelet Factor IV ```

``` This is secreted by the endothelium which binds thrombin, and activates protein C A. Thrombomodulin B. Heparin C. Antithrombin III D. Intrinsic Factor ```

``` All are Immunologic adverse reactions to transfusion, except: A. Allergic reactions B. Anaphylaxis C. Fluid overload D. Posttransfusion purpura ```

``` WBC produced in large numbers in persons with Parasitic Infection. A. Neutrophil B. Eosinophil C. Monocyte D. Basophils ```

``` Which of the following is responsible for acquired immunity? A. Monocyte B. Langerhans C. Basophils D. Lymphocyte ```

``` A condition in which number of RBC in the circulation increases due to hypoxia A. Polycythemia B. Anemia D. Leukemia D. Cancer ```

``` What vitamin deficiency is involved in Megaloblastic Anemia? A. Vit K B. Vit A C. Vit B6 D. Vit B12 ```

``` Types of Microglia found in the PNS A. Astrocytes B. Satellite Cells C. Astrocytes and Schwann Cells D. Schwann Cells and Satellite Cells ```

``` Comprise almost all the synapses in the CNS used for signal transmission A. Electrical synapse B. Thermal synapse C. Chemical Synapse D. Mechanical Synapse ```

``` A neurotransmitter that Control overall activity and mood of the mind, such as increasing the level of wakefulness A. Norepinephrine and Epinephrine B. GABA C. Serotonin D. dopamine ```

``` Mechanism in which one presynaptic neuron suppresses another one A. Presynaptic Repression B. Presynaptic Inhibition C. Presynaptic Neutralization D. Presynaptic Facilitation ```

``` Which of the following is NOT a function of the nervous system? A. Learning and Memory B. Sensory Detection C. Language D. None of the above ```

``` What is the function of acytelcholine? A. Emotions, sleep B. Arousal, wakefulness C. Learning, memory, muscle contractions D. Movement, rewards ```

``` What is the part of the neuron that receives signals from other neurons? A. Macroglia B. Axon C. Dendrites D. Soma ```

What is the function of the oligodendrocytes? A. regulates the CNS microenvironment B. involved in myelin formation C. supply nutrients D. alert the body from infection

Long fibrous process that originates from a thickened area of the cell body A. Antenna B. Axon hillock C. Terminal buttons D. Nodes of ranvier

Protects neurons from extreme variations in their extracellular enviroment a. Neuroglia b. Microglia c. Macroglia d. Macropages

A classification of a neuron based on the number of processes where dendrites and axon are continuous or fused. A. Unipolar B. Multipolar C. Bipolar D. Pseudo-Unipolar

The gaps between adjacent Schwann cells are called A. Axon terminals B. Neurotubules C. Nodes of Ranvier D. Centrioles

``` The minimum stimulus required to trigger an action potential is known as the A. Rheobase B. Chronaxie C. Receptors D. Threshold ```

``` What Type of fibers have the largest diameter axons. A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C D. Type D ```

If the total body weight of a man is 70 kgs. What is the volume of his milieu interieur? A. 14.5L B. 14 L C. 13.5 L D. 13 L

Where is Norepinephrine and Epinephrine secreted? A. Nucleus Basalis B. Median Raphe C. Substantia Nigra D. Locus Ceruleus

PHYSIO BRAINSCAPE - Group 1A Flashcards

(200 cards)