Physiology Flashcards

(117 cards)

1
Q

In the cell cycle, when does a new nuclear membrane develop?

A

Telophase

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2
Q

In the cell cycle, when do spindle fibers form?

A

Prophase

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3
Q

What do you call division of the cytoplasm into two cells?

A

Cytokinesis

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4
Q

Ca that demonstrates a nucleus with no nucleolus

A

Papillary thyroid Ca - Orphan Annie

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5
Q

Smooth ER is involved mostly in detoxication and synthesis of lipids. Where is it commonly found?

A

Liver

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6
Q

Protein factory of the cell that is found in the liver, neurons, pancreas and thyroid

A

Rough ER

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7
Q

Rough ER in the neurons

A

Nissl substance

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8
Q

What wear and tear pigment accumulates in the lysosome?

A

Lipofuscin

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9
Q

A microtubule motor protein causing transport from the center of the cell to the periphery

A

Kinesin

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10
Q

A microtubule motor protein causing transport from the periphery of the cell to the center

A

Dynein

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11
Q

Disease with dynein missing in cilia and flagella

A

Kartagener’s syndrome

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12
Q

What is the functional unit of a gap junction

A

Connexon

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13
Q

Disc shaped junctional complex that allows firm intercellular adhesions

A

Macula adherens/desmosomes

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14
Q

What are the 3 components of a glycocalyx?

A

Glycoprotein, Glycolipids, Proteoglycans

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15
Q

Which disease involves a mutation in a gene of Chromosome 7 that encodes for an ABC transporter called CFTR

A

Cystic fibrosis

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16
Q

Mediate secretion of hormones, neurotransmitters from intracellular vesicles during exocytosis

A

SNARE proteins

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17
Q

Which effective osmole is used in the treatment of brain edema?

A

Mannitol

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18
Q

What are the 2 important functions of the Na-K pump?

A

Maintains electrical potential across the membrane and prevents cellular swelling

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19
Q

What is the functional subunit of the Na-K-ATPase pump that is inhibited by cardiac glycosides?

A

Alpha subunit

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20
Q

What is the earliest sign of ASA toxicity?

A

Tinnitus

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21
Q

What cells cause myelination in your CNS? PNS?

A

CNS - oligodendrocytes. PNS - Schwann cells.

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22
Q

What kind of conduction happens in your nodes of ranvier?

A

Saltatory or jumping

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23
Q

Enzyme that degrades Ach to acetate and choline

A

Acetylcholinesterase

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24
Q

Where is dopamine found?

A

Substantia nigra pars compacta and ventral tegmental area

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25
Where is the "happy hormone" secreted?
Serotonin - median raphe of the brainstem
26
The number 1 inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain
GABA
27
What are the functions of GABA?
GABA - A is chloride influx, GABA - B is potassium efflux
28
What is the number 1 excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain?
Glutamate
29
Which neurotransmitter is deficient in Alzheimer's Disease?
Acetylcholine
30
Site of decussation of the corticospinal tract
Medulla
31
What connects your 2 cerebral hemispheres?
Corpus callosum
32
Loss of accommodation due to paralysis of ciliary muscle
Cycloplegia
33
What produces the aqueous humor and where does it exit?
Produces by ciliary body and exits into the canal of schlemm
34
What is the difference between rods and cones in the eye?
Rods - nighttime vision, Cones - daytime vision
35
Depression in macula lutea with the highest cone density
Fovea
36
Deterioration of pigment epithelium in the eye
Macular degeneration
37
Night blindness due to Vit A deficiency
Nyctopia
38
Genetic defect in Type I procollagen, sclera appears blue
Osteogenesis imperfecta
39
Hexosaminidase A deficiency where patients have a characteristic macular "cherry red spot" appearance
Tay - Sach's Disease
40
Define occupational hearing loss
More than 10yrs exposure to daily 8 hour sound levels of >85dB
41
Part of the outer ear that functions to amplify and localize sound
Pinna
42
What is the content of the Endolymph? Perilymph?
Endolymph - potassium, Perilymph - sodium.
43
True or false: low frequency sounds are more damaging to the Organ of Corti
True
44
Fibers used by the sense of smell
Unmyelinated C fibers
45
Components of a fast twitch muscle
Type II, fast, large, more active, high myosin ATPase
46
Components of unitary smooth muscles
Muscle units act together as one, (+) gap junctions, (+) spike and plateau potentials, may exhibit spontaneous contractions, found in intestines/bile ducts/ureters
47
Plasma membrane that surrounds the muscle fiber
Sarcolemma
48
Functional unit of the muscle with thick and thin filaments
Sarcomere
49
Largest protein in the body, tethers myosin to Z lines
Titin
50
Stabilizes plasmalemma and prevents contraction induced rupture
Dystrophin
51
Effect that states each contraction occurs after complete relaxation
Staircase (Treppe) Effect
52
Components of an isometric contraction
Length is held constant, no muscle shortening or lengthening
53
True or false: muscle fatigue occurs earlier in slow twitch fibers
False
54
Type of calcium channels in the cardiac muscle
Voltage gated L type slow calcium channel
55
Rope like structures of the cytoskeleton that may act as tumor markers
Intermediate filaments
56
Spinal cord neuron that facilitates lateral inhibition
Renshaw cell
57
True or false: muscle spindle detects length while golgi tendon organ detects tension
True
58
Components of dynamic change and static change in a muscle spindle
Dynamic change - sudden stretch, mediated by NUCLEAR BAG (group Ia afferents), Static change - slow stretch, mediated by NUCLEAR CHAIN (group II afferents).
59
Where is the micturition center located?
Pons
60
Functional unit of the cerebellum
Purkinje and Deep Nuclear Cell
61
Functional unit of the cerebellum for planning and initiation of movement
Cerebrocerebellum
62
Circuit in the basal ganglia that helps plan learned, complex movements
Putamen Circuit
63
Lesions of the globus pallidus resulting to snake like or writhing movements
Athetosis
64
Where is the lesion in hemiballismus?
Subthalamic nucleus of Luys
65
Where is the lesion in chorea?
Corpus striatum
66
Autosomal genetic disorder caused by CAG trinucleotide repeats
Huntington's Disease - depletion of GABA and acetylcholine
67
Regulation of body temperature is mediated by the ?
Hypothalamus
68
Majority of heat loss happens through?
Radiation (60%), evaporation (22%)
69
Most important effect of decreased oxygenation at high altitude
Decreased mental proficiency
70
Changes in natural acclimitization
Increase chest size, decrease body mass, larger hearts, better oxygen delivery
71
Caused by sudden ascent during diving
Decompression sickness - nitrogen bubble blocks blood vessels
72
Part of the kidney that is vascular
Cortex
73
True or false: proteinuria is always abnormal
True
74
What is the capacity of the urinary bladder?
500-600mL
75
What muscle empties the bladder
Detrusor muscle
76
What innervates the external urethral sphincter?
Pudendal nerve
77
What does the capillary epithelium of the nephron secrete?
Nitric oxide, endothelin 1
78
Normal GFR?
180L/ day
79
What happens to your GFR if you constrict your efferent arteriole?
Increase
80
What happens your GFR if you constrict your afferent arteriole
Decrease
81
True or false: glucocorticoids increases GFR
False - glucocorticoids increase both GFR and RBF
82
True or false: histamine increases GFR
False - histamine increases RBF only
83
What 3 hormones decrease GFR?
Norepinephrine, epinephrine and endothelin
84
Massive sympathetic stimulation that results in massive vasoconstriction of the kidneys?
CNS ischemic response
85
Part of the glomerulus that senses changes in Na
Macula densa
86
Effect of Adenosine and Nitric oxide on the afferent arteriole
Adenosine - vasoconstricts, nitric oxide - vasodilates
87
Workhorse of the nephron, where most reabsorption and secretion occurs
Proximal Tubule
88
Epithelial lining of proximal tubule
Low columnar with extensive brush border
89
What segment of the Loop of Henle is permeable to water
Descending limb
90
What is the role of Principal cells on the distal tubule?
Secrete K, absorb sodium and water
91
Site for regulation of final urine volume and concentration
Medullary collecting tubules and collecting ducts
92
Gold standard to diagnose left sided heart failure
BNP
93
Hormone secreted by the DT and CD that acts in a manner similar to ANP
Urodilatin
94
Used to estimate GFR
Clearance of Inulin and Creatinine
95
Used to estimate Renal Plasma Flow, Renal Blood Flow
Clearance of Para-Amino Hippuric Acid (PAH)
96
Threshold of glucose in the renal system
200mg/100mL. Maximum of 376mg/100mL.
97
True or false: Sodium is actively transported in all parts of the renal tubule
False - sodium is actively transported in all parts of the renal tubule except the descending limb of the Loop of Henle
98
Factors that shift Potassium into the cells
Insulin, Aldosterone, B adrenergic stimulation, Alkalosis
99
Normal serum Potassium level
4.2 mEq/L
100
Calcium reabsorption in the kidneys is controlled by?
Vitamin D and PTH
101
Phosphate throwing hormone
PTH - decrease phosphate reabsorption in proximal tubule
102
65% of magnesium is reabsorbed where?
Loop of Henle
103
Countercurrent multipliers that create graded osmolarity
Loops of Henle
104
Countercurrent exchangers that preserve and maintain osmolarity (prevents dissipation of gradient)
Vasa recta
105
This hormone stimulates Urea receptors
ADH
106
Where is the thirst center?
Anteroventral wall of 3rd ventricle and preoptic nuclei
107
What pH is compatible with life?
pH = 6.8 - 8
108
Abnormality which increases RR will cause:
Reapiratory alkalosis
109
In metabolic acidosis, what is the normal serum anion gap?
12 mEq/L, + or - 4
110
Protein responsible for the biconcave shape of RBCs
Spectrin
111
Where is erythropoietin produced?
90% in the interstitial cells of peritubular capillaries (kidneys), 10% in the liver
112
Why is EPO produced and what is its effect?
Produced in response to decreased oxygenation, stimulates proerythroblast production
113
What is the active form of iron?
Ferrous - Fe 2+
114
Main storage center of iron
Ferritin, found in liver
115
Where is Transferrin produced and secreted?
Produced in liver, secreted into the bile and duodenum
116
Where do you see hemosiderin laden macrophages?
Heart failure cells - left heart failure
117
Graveyard of RBCs
Spleen