Physiology + Disease of the Liver, Drug Metabolism Flashcards

(136 cards)

1
Q

Describe the blood supply to the liver

A

70% venous blood from the hepatic portal vein

30% arterial flow from the hepatic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where does the portal vein carry venous blood from?

A

Stomach

Small intestine

Large intestine

Pancreas

Spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the main cell type in the liver called?

A

Hepatocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How are hepatocytes arranged?

A

Hepatocytes are arranged in lobules around a central vein.

Reticuloendothelial cells surround hepatocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the functional zonation of liver lobules

A

Zone I - periportal (far from central vein) hepatocytes. Oxidative metabolism, gluconeogenesis, urea synthesis. Most oxygenated.

Zone II

Zone III - pericentral (near vein) hepatocytes. Drug metabolism, glycolysis, lipogenesis. Least oxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where in the lobule does gluconeogenesis take place?

A

Zone I - most oxygenated, furthest area away from central vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where in the lobule does drug metabolism, glycolysis and lipogenesis take place?

A

Zone III - closest to the central vein of the lobule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the venous supply within a liver lobule

A

Sinusoids (vascular spaces) separate plated of hepatocytes.

Blood from sinusoids converges on a central vein of a lobule

Central veins converge on the hepatic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List the major cell types of the liver

A

Hepatocytes

Cholangiocytes

Sinusodial epithelial cells (line the sinusoids)

Reticuloendothelial cell meshwork contains:

Endothelial cells

Kupffer cells - anchored to wall of sinusoids

Lipocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the space of Disse?

What is found in this space?

A

The space between a sinusoid and a plate of hepatocytes

Lipocytes are found here - they store fat and secrete collagen in disease states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which cell types of the liver secretes HCO3- and water?

Where are they found?

A

Cholangiocytes

Line the bile ducts of the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do cholangiocytes produce?

A

HCO3-

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name 8 functions of the liver:

A

Energy metabolism and substrate interconversion

Synthesis of plasma proteins

Drug metabolism and detoxification

Immune functions

Production of bile

Cholesterol processing

Storage of vitamins and minerals

Excretion of bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is the liver involved in carbohydrate metabolism?

A

Glycogenolysis

Gluconeogenesis

Glycogen synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is the liver involved in lipid metabolism?

A

Ketogenesis

Trigylceride synthesis from fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What coagulation factor is made in the liver?

A

Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What substance, that is responsible for the breakdown of fibrin, is made in the liver?

A

Plasminogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which 2 binding proteins are made in the liver?

A

Thyroid-binding globulin (TBG)

Sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which major plasma protein is made in the liver?

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Outline the immune function of the liver

A

Kupffer Cells responsible for immunity in the liver

Macrophages attached to the endothelial cell lining of the sinusoids

Ingest bacteria (by phagocytosis) and inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the gallbladder do to bile?

A

Stores and concentrates it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where does bile produced in the liver drain to?

A

Main bile duct from the liver to the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In response to food in the duodenum, what are the actions of secretin?

A

HCO3- secretion from exocrine pancreas

Bile production from liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In response to food in the duodenum, what are the actions of CCK?

A

Gallbladder contraction

Enzyme secretion from the exocrine pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What hormone stimulates bile production in the liver, and HCO3- secretion from the pancreas?
Secretin
26
Which hormone stimulates gallbladder contraction and enzyme secretion from the pancreas?
CCK
27
What are the 2 components of the exocrine pancreas secretions?
Enzymes HCO3-
28
List the 6 major components of bile
Bile salts (bile acids + taurine) Lecithin (a phospholipid) HCO3- and other salts Neutralizes acid in duodenum Cholesterol Bile pigments and small amounts of other metabolic end-products. Trace metals
29
What is the function of bile salts?
To hold fats in suspension for pancreatic lipase to work
30
What is the role of HCO3- being excreted in bile?
Neutralises the acidic chyme coming from the stomach
31
What is the role of hepatocytes in bile production?
Either make the bile products or extract them from the blood
32
Which component of bile is made by cholangeocytes?
HCO3- (and other salts)
33
What 4 things to hepatocytes secrete?
Bile salts Cholesterol Lecithin Bile pigments
34
What 2 things do cholangiocytes secrete?
HCO3- Water
35
Once the components of bile have been made, where do they drain to?
Across the canalicular membrane of the hepatocytes and cholangiocytes to the bile canaliculus and then into the bile duct
36
How are bile salts moved in and out of a bile canaliculus?
Membrane transporters Different types of transporters to move them in and move them out of the canaliculus
37
What are the primary bile acids synthesised from? What are they conjugated to? Why are they conjugated?
Cholesterol Primary bile salts are conjugated to taurine Conjugated to make them more soluble
38
What does taurine conjugate to?
Primary bile salts
39
What does glycine conjugate to?
Secondary bile acids
40
Once a bile acid has been conjugated, what does it then become?
A bile salt
41
Where do conjugated bile salts move to?
Bile canaliculus
42
What happens to 95% of the bile salts in the small intestine? What proportion of these are intact bile salts
They are recycled via the enterohepatic circulation and returned to the liver for use Of this, 75% are intact bile salts 25% are deconjugated by bacteria to produce primary or secondary bile acids
43
Where in the small intestine are bile salts reabsorbed?
Terminal ileum
44
What happens to excess cholesterol?
Moved straight out of the hepatocytes through the bile canaliculus into the faeces
45
List the 4 functions of bile salts
Emulsification of dietary lipids, rendering them accessible to pancreatic lipases. Elimination of cholesterol. Prevention of cholesterol precipitation in the gall bladder. Facilitation of the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.
46
How is cholesterol transported in plasma?
In complexes with lipoproteins (synthesised in the liver)
47
List 4 functions of cholesterol
Plasma membranes Component of bile salts Precursor for steroid hormones Myelin (neuron axonal 'wrapping')
48
What is the role of the liver in cholesterol processing (6)?
Synthesizes cholesterol from Acetyl CoA. Synthesizes lipoproteins, which transport cholesterol in plasma. Exports cholesterol via circulation to body cells for synthesis of key products e.g. steroid hormones. Exports cholesterol to liver for synthesis of bile salts. Extracts excess cholesterol from plasma. Exports excess cholesterol via liver into bile for excretion in faeces.
49
What vitamins and minerals does the liver store?
Fat soluble vitamins D E A K Minerals - iron and copper
50
What is the main bile pigment?
Bilirubin
51
How is bilirubin formed?
From the breakdown of haem in the spleen and bone marrow
52
Where is bilirubin exported into?
Bile
53
What is conjugated with bilirubin? Which cell in the liver does this? What is the purpose of this?
Hepatocytes conjugate bilirubin with glucuronic acid to form a polar, water-soluble molecule, which is exported into bile.
54
When bilirubin is moving through the blood, what is it bound to?
Albumin
55
Once bilirubin has been conjugated and released into the small intestine, what is it broken down into? How does this get excreted?
Urobilinogen Picked up by the portal vein, then excreted in urine
56
Which blood tests show hepatocyte/hepatitic damage?
ALT (alanin transaminase) AST (aspartate transaminase)
57
Which blood tests show bile duct/obstructive damage?
Alkaline phosphotase Gamma GT
58
Name the 5 true tests of liver function
Prothrombin time Bilirubin Albumin Urea/creatinine pH
59
What causes jaundice?
Failure of the body to excrete bile Clinically apparent when serum bilirubin is twice above normal concentration - 34uM/L
60
In which 3 places can gallstones cause an obstruction?
Gallbladder Bile duct Major duodenal papillae
61
What are the 3 layers of the wall of the gallbladder?
Epithelium Lamina propria Fibromuscular layer
62
Which layer of the gallbladder is responsible for contraction?
Fibromuscular layer
63
List some facts about gallstones
Most are cholesterol based Associated with high fat diets / hypercholesterolaemia Can be formed by reduced bile secretion or defective reabsorption of bile salts
64
List some pros and cons to US investigation
Pros - simple, non-invasive, widely available Cons - operator dependent, poor specificity, poor views of pancreas
65
What type of imaging can be used to visualise the biliary system?
ERCP Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography
66
List the causes of pancreatitis
Idiopathic Gall stones Ethanol Trauma ``` Steroids Mumps Autoimmune Scorpion bites Hypercalaemia/hypertriglyceridaemia ERCP Drugs ```
67
What does the endocrine pancreas secrete?
Insulin Glucagon Somatostatin
68
What does the exocrine pancreas release?
Enzymes Amylase, trypsin Chymotripsin, lipase HCO3-
69
List some symptoms of chronic pancreatitis
Pain - epigastric region Pancreatic failure Diabetes (endocrine) Malabsorption (exocrine)
70
What blood results would be raised in biliary obstruction?
Bilirubin Alkaline phosphatase - raised GGT - raised
71
When taking a history from a pancreas patient, what questions would you need to ask?
Alcohol HTN Viruses Farm Foreign travel Sexual history Drugs
72
What are the 2 types of pancreatic cancer?
Adenocarcinoma Neuroendocrine
73
What is a cancer of the bile duct called?
Cholangiocarcinoma
74
List some pros and cons to using CT to image the pancreas
Pros - widely available, good views of pancreas, transferable images Cons - radiation exposure, high demand
75
List some pros and cons to using MRCP to view the pancreas
Pros - good mapping of ducts Cons - limited availability
76
List some pros and cons to using MRCP to view the pancreas
Pros - good mapping of ducts Cons - limited availability
77
List some pros and cons to using ERCP to view the pancreas
Pros - high sensitivity and specificity Cons - invasive, technically challenging, complications
78
What are the 4 phases of pharmacokinetics?
Absorption Distribution Metabolism Excretion
79
What 3 effects does drug metabolism have on drug activity?
Conversion of drugs to inactive commons: -most common Inactive pro-drugs to active drugs: - prevent adverse effects - improved distribution Active metabolites: -codeine converted to morphine
80
Where do orally administered drugs go after absorption?
Portal system to the liver
81
What is 'first pass metabolism'?
Orally-administered drugs, absorbed by the GI tract, are transported via the portal system through the liver where they are metabolised to an extent before entering the systemic circulation.
82
Which organ is the major site of drug metabolism?
The liver
83
In which 2 places are drugs excreted?
Bile Urine
84
What is a phase I drug reaction?
Conversion of a drug to an intermediate metabolite by adding a functional group through: - oxidation - reduction - hydrolysis
85
What is the purpose of phase I drug reactions?
Increase polarity of the drug Provide a site for phase II (conjugation) reactions
86
Do phase I reactions make a drug more or less pharmacologically active?
Less active
87
In what circumstance would a drug not need to undergo phase I metabolism?
If it already has a functional group in its chemical structure
88
What is the purpose of phase II reactions?
To conjugate a drug to a metabolite to make it more soluble and more easily excreted from the body
89
Do phase II reactions make a drug more or less pharmacologically active?
Less active
90
What is the purpose of phase III reactions?
To move conjugated metabolites out of the hepatocytes of the liver where they can be excreted
91
Once a drug has undergone a phase III reaction, where will it go?
Larger molecules will be excreted in the bile Smaller molecules will reach the systemic circulation and be excreted via the kidneys
92
What is the most common type of phase I metabolism reaction?
Oxidation of a drug
93
Which enzymes catalyses phase I reactions?
Cytochrome P450 enzymes
94
Discuss cytochrome P450 enzymes What 3 things need to be present for them to function?
Haem proteins (haem molecule at active site) Molecular oxygen NADPH NADPH cytochrome P450 reductase
95
What is the mixed function oxidase system?
Molecular oxygen NADPH NADPH cytochrome P450 reductase What is needed for cytochrome P450 enzymes to function
96
Describe oxidation of a drug by cytochrome P450 enzymes
Involves oxidation and reduction Catalyses the transfer of one O2 atom to the drug while the other O2 atom is reduced to water
97
What is the most common cytochrome P450 isoform?
CYP3A
98
List some phase I reactions that are NOT oxidation by P450
Reductions Oxidation without P450 - alcohol dehydrogenase - monoamine oxidase (NA, 5-HT) Hydrolytic reactions that occur in the plasma and many tissues -aspirin
99
What type of chemical reaction are cytochrome P450 enzymes responsible for?
Oxidation reactions
100
Describe the role of monamine oxidase in phase I reactions
Oxidation of a metabolite without the cytochrome P450 enzymes Inactivates biologically active amines - NA - 5-HT
101
A patient lacks cytochrome P450 enzymes. | What phase I reactions will be able to take place?
Reductions Ethanol metabolisiation by alcohol dehydrogenase Inactivation of NA and 5-HT by monamine oxidase Hydrolytic reactions
102
Which enzyme metabolises ethanol?
Alcohol dehydrogenase
103
Where in the liver are P450 enzymes found? What else are found here?
On the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of hepatocytes Conjugating enzymes involved in phase II reactions
104
What is bilirubin conjugated with in the liver?
Glucuronic acid
105
Which enzyme conjugates glucronide?
UDP-glucuronyl transferase
106
What moves hydrophillic metabolites from hepatocytes?
Multi-purpose membrane-bound transport carrier systems
107
Give an example of a drug administered as a pro-drug and activated by phase I metabolism
ACE inhibitors
108
Which drug, after phase I metabolism, yields a toxic metabolite?
Paracetamol
109
What determines the duration of action of digoxin and atenolol?
Renal elimination These drugs are not inactivated by metabolism - need renal clearance to 'deactivate' them (this is the only thing that stops the drug from working
110
What considerations need to be made when prescribing drugs to neonates?
Hepatic drug-metabolizing enzyme systems are immature. Renal clearance inefficient Lower doses of all drugs are needed
111
Why can metabolic clearance be quicker in children?
CYPs are mature Relative liver mass and hepatic blood flow are higher
112
What considerations need to be made when prescribing drugs to children?
Dosages of medicines should be obtained from a paediatric dosage handbook. Prescribed dosages are judged by considering both age and body surface area.
113
What considerations need to be made when prescribing drugs to elderly patients?
Capacity for phase I reactions is reduced (liver mass and hepatic blood flow is reduced) Polypharmacy affects drug metabolism Rational prescribing - minimise number of drugs used Start treatment with smallest effective dose
114
During which phase of drug metabolism are drug interactions likely to occur?
Phase I reactions Likely to interact with enzymes e.g. cytochrome P450 enzymes
115
What classes of drugs are CYP3A enzymes responsible for metabolising?
Most calcium channel blockers Most benzodiazepines Most HIV protease inhibitors Most HMG-CoA-reductase inhibitors Cyclosporine Most non-sedating antihistamines Oral contraceptives
116
Give some examples of CYP3A inhibitors
Fluconazole (antifungal) Erythromycin (macrolide Abx) Cimetidine (histamine H2 receptor antagonist) Grapefruit juice
117
What effect can CYP3A inhibitors have on drug metabolism?
Reduced drug clearance Higher plasma concentrations of drug Potentially toxic drug levels and adverse effects
118
Give some examples of CYP3A inducers
Carbamazepine Rifampicin Rifabutin Ritonavir St. John's Wort - herbal remedy for depression
119
What effect can CYP3A inducers have on drug metabolism?
Increased clearance of drug Lower plasma levels of drug Lack of therapeutic effect
120
Which drugs can St. John' Wort commonly interact with?
Warfarin Anti-epileptics Oral contraceptives
121
If someone has low CYP450 activity, what effect will this have on drug metabolism?
Less drug inactivation if CYP responsible - more active drug available at toxic levels Less drug activation if CYP responsible - pro-drug may become toxic (e.g. paracetamol) drug may not activate
122
If someone has high CYP450 activity, what effect will this have on drug metabolism?
More drug inactivation - may require increased dose of drug More drug activation - rapid onset - may require reduced dose to prevent accumulation of drug
123
Give an example of a drug that is activated by cytochrome P450 enzymes
Codeine CYP2D6 isoform
124
List 5 side effects of codeine
N+V Light-headedness Dizziness Sweating Constipation
125
List 6 signs of opioid toxicity
Respiratory depression Skeletal muscle flaccidity Cold and clammy skin Bradycardia Hypotension Constipation
126
What effects will liver cirrhosis have of drug metabolism?
Porto-systemic shunting directs drug away from the liver Increased bioavailabilty of drug because of reduced first-pass metabolism (above) Hepatocytes are sick or reduced in number Decreased protein binding Overall increased bioavailability of drugs in liver disease
127
Define bioavailability
The proportion of administered drug which reaches the systemic circulation unchanged and is thus available for distribution to the site of action
128
Define first pass metabolism
The extent of metabolism occurring BEFORE the drug enters the systemic circulation
129
Which 3 drugs increase in bioavailability in cirrhosis?
Calcium channel antagonist - nicardipine B-adrenoceptor antagonist - propranolol Calcium channel antagonists - verapamil
130
What will happen to the bioavailability of ramipril in liver cirrhosis?
Bioavailability will be reduced - needs first-pass metabolism to activate it
131
What effect will hypoproteinaemia have on drug bioavailability?
Leads to reduced drug-binding capacity More unbound pharmacologically active drug to circulate
132
What 3 things need to be considered when prescribing in liver disease?
Prescribe with care Drugs metabolised by the liver should be given in smaller doses Patients with liver disease are more likely to be susceptible to hepatotoxic drugs
133
If a patient is jaundiced with normal stools and urine, what does this suggest?
Pre-hepatic cause of jaundice (high bilirubin)
134
If a patient is jaundiced with dark urine and normal stools, what does this suggest?
Hepatic cause of jaundice Bilirubin has been able to be conjugated and excreted in the urine, causes the darker colour
135
If a patient is jaundiced with dark urine and pale stools, what does this suggest?
Post-hepatic (obstructive) cause of jaundice If bile and pancreatic lipase’s are unable to reach the bowel because of a blockage (e.g. in obstructive post-hepatic pathology), fat is not able to be absorbed, resulting in stools appearing pale, bulky and more difficult to flush.
136
What does prothrombin time assess?
The extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade