Physiology Final Flashcards
(123 cards)
1
Q
Once ejaculated, what is the normal lifespan of a sperm within the female reproductive tract?
A
Typical 2-4 days, up to 7 days.
2
Q
In male embryos, cells in the prostate and external genitals produce a second form of androgen, called _________________ (DHT), which during the 8th week of utero provokes the genital tubercle to elongate and form the penis.
A
Dihydrotestosterone
3
Q
In the absence of DHT in female embryos, during the 8th week the external genital tubercle develops into the _________.
A
Clitoris
4
Q
What is the primary source of testosterone production in females?
A
Adrenal Glands
5
Q
Which organs of the male reproductive system are considered homologous to the ovaries?
A
Testes
6
Q
In contrast to spermatogenesis , which begins in males at puberty, oogenesis begins in females ___________
A
At birth.
7
Q
During the process of ovulation a woman releases a secondary oocyte. What event must occur to change the secondary oocyte into an ovum?
A
Fertilization
8
Q
True or False: A zygote begins cell divisions while traveling along the Fallopian tube toward the uterus for implantation.
A
True
9
Q
At mid-ovarian cycle, which hormone triggers ovulation?
A
LH
10
Q
Detection of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood or urine of a woman signals what event?
A
Pregnancy
11
Q
The significant drop in blood levels of progesterone and estrogen in the post-ovulatory phase serve as triggers for ____________.
A
Menstruation
12
Q
The primary mechanism of action of combined birth control contraceptive pills containing progestin and ethynyl estradiol is to suppress the female’s normal production of the gonadotropins, _____ and _____.
A
FSH; LH
13
Q
What is the targeted hormone which appears to stimulate the proliferation of some types of breast cancer cells?
A
Leptin
14
Q
At the present time in the US, ______ is the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease, as well as the primary cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women.
A
HPV
15
Q
From fertilization until the end of the 8th week of human development the developing human is called a(n) _________, and from the 9th week until birth the developing human is called a ________.
A
Embryo; Fetus
16
Q
True or False: Alcohol is considered the number 1 teratogen for the developing fetus based on the prevalence of fetal-alcohol syndrome.
A
True
17
Q
Corticotropin-releasing hormone, produced by the __________, is thought to play a key role in the timing of the baby’s birth as well as increasing the secretion of cortisol, which is needed for the maturation of fetal lungs and the production of alveolar surfactant.
A
Placenta
18
Q
What is the more serious risk of amniocentesis?
A
Having a Miscarriage
19
Q
What is the chromosome gene pairing that will produce the following color visions?
A) red-green colorblind female
B) red-green colorblind male
C) normal color vision male
A
A) XcXc
B) XcY
C) XCY
20
Q
What were the findings of the epigenetic effect of nicotine in rats and the offspring of rats that could have far reaching consequences for human use of tobacco products?
A
Nicotine not only affected egg of F1 (first generation pups), but was also passed down to F2 (second generation pups). This could be possible of humans inheriting Nicotine affects as well, passed down to succeeding generations.
21
Q
Depending on age and gender, water makes up approximately what percent of the total body mass of an adult?
A
45-60%
22
Q
An area in the hypothalamus known as the _______ _______ governs the urge to drink. This area of the hypothalamus can be stimulated directly by neurons in the mouth that sense “dry mouth” conditions. It can also respond to signals from the osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus that can respond to increased blood ______________. In addition, dehydration can lead to a decrease in blood volume , which causes the kidney to release the enzyme ______________. This enzyme, once released, leads to the production of angiotensin II.
A
Thirst Center; Osmolarity; Renin
23
Q
What happens to Na+ and Cl- reabsorption in the kidneys when the following occurs:
A) An increase in the amount of aldosterone
B) A decrease in the amount of angiotensin II
C) An increase in the amount of atrial naturetic peptide
A
A) Re-absorption of Na+: Increases Cl-: Increases
B) Re-absorption Na+: Decreases Cl-: Decreases
C) Re-absorption Na+: Decreases Cl-:Decreases
24
Q
What would be the overall effect on the amount of ADH produced if the following occurred:
A) An individual began to hemorrhage internally
B) An individual became dehydrated working outside on a hot day
C) An individual consumed much more water than normal as part of a weight loss “water diet”
A
A) ADH increases b/c body can’t afford to lose more water through urine.
B) ADH increases so body doesn’t lose more water.
C) ADH decreases b/c water isn’t needed it’s already at normal capacity.
25
Explain why someone who has the condition called "hyponatremia" may also suffer from hypotension.
Hyponatremia = amt. of NA in blood is < normal.
If person is hyponatremic, they're also hypotensive.
B/c NA isn't being reabsorbed, so less comes back into blood and exits through urine.
This means Na pulls water out with it, decreasing BP.
Thus, less Na & water in blood = Hyponatremia & Hypotensive.
26
What happens to the plasma concentration of HCO3- ions as blood flows through the systemic circulation and why?
HCO3- increases within circulation b/c blood cells in the body want to pull O2 from HCO3-.
27
What change can occur to proteins if the pH of the body fluids swings outside of the normal range?
Proteins are denatured.
28
Complete the following acid-base buffer reactions that occur within red blood cells:
A) H20 + CO2 ->
B) HCO3- ->
C) Hb-O2 + H+ ->
A) H2CO3
B) H+ + HCO3-
C) ____ + O2
29
Refer to the following equation and answer the questions:
CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3-
A) Rapid exhalations would tend to shift the above reactions in the equation to the (left/right) and lead to a(n) (decrease/increase) in pH.
B) Holding one's breath would tend to shift the above reactions to the (left/right) and lead to a(n) (decrease/increase) in pH.
C) Quick pH refresher: a decrease in pH signals a(n) (decrease/increase) in H+ ion concentration while an increase in pH signals a(n) (decrease/increase) in H+ ion concentration.
D) When the acidity of the blood increases, it stimulates chemoreceptors in the medulla, as well as in the carotid and aortic bodies, which signal the inspiratory center in the medulla to cause what change with the diaphragm and rib muscles? (Hint: these processes explain why its impossible to hold your breath indefinitely)
A) Left; Increase
B) Right; Decrease
C) Increase; Decrease
D) More O2 needs to be brought in, more CO2 needs to be taken out, so diaphragm/ribs will contract.
30
Acidosis (or acidemia) is a condition in which systemic arterial blood pH is ______ ___.
Below 7
31
Alkalosis (or alkalemia) is a condition in which the blood pH is _____ ___.
Above 7
32
Explain how anxiety, among other causes, can provoke respiratory alkalosis.
During anxiety attack, hyperventilation causes amount of H+ to increase, raising pH to above higher than normal.
33
What type of respiratory compensation might help in the short term to restore arterial blood pH levels?
Hypoventilation
34
With increasing age many elderly adults develop a decreased volume of ICF because of declining skeletal muscle mass with an increasing mass of adipose tissue. Why do these changes lead to a decrease in ICF?
With an increase of age, people often have an impaired ability to maintain fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balances.
35
One of the vaccinations that school’s require is against the mumps virus (paramyxovirus). What is the part of the GI tract targeted by mumps?
Parotid Gland
36
What is the hallmark symptom of GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease)?
Heartburn
37
What is the other name for the parietal cell’s H+/K+ ATPase molecules, which transport H+ ions out of the parietal cell into the stomach lumen while transporting K+ ions into the parietal cell?
Proton Pumps
38
Explain the difference in how the H2-blockers work to reduce stomach acid compared to how the PPIs work.
H2 Blockers: Block histamine receptors on parietal cells responsible for acid secretion.
PPI's: Goes straight to and blocks Hydrogen pumps responsible for creating acid.
39
Why doesn’t more absorption occur in the stomach?
Stomach has an acidic environment, nutrients are broken down instead.
40
What is one of the primary substances excreted in bile?
Bilirubin (Heme is by-product this)
41
What is a key role of bile as part of the digestive processes?
Emulsifies fats, and physically breaks them down so enzymes can break fat down chemically to digest/absorb fats.
42
What are the basic conditions that cause lactose intolerance and how is a breath test for hydrogen gas diagnostic for the disorder?
Small intestine absorptive cells don't produce enough lactase.
Undigested lactose is fermented by bacteria in colon, and gives off H gas.
H is absorbed from intestines and carried through bloodstream to the lungs.
Detected in the breath.
43
If you plan to have at least one drink on a night but want to be sober and safe to drive in two hours, what type of food would be a better choice to have with your drink and why: a high-carb snack of pretzels or a high-fat snack of nacho cheese and chips?
Why would a female have a higher blood alcohol level than a male?
High-fat snack.
Fats take more time in gastric emptying.
Alcohol has more time to be converted into non-alcohol.
Less alcohol reaches bloodstream.
Dehydrogenase isn't as prevalent in females as in males, so they break down alcohol slower.
44
The final stages of digestion of carbohydrates or proteins , as well as the production of some B vitamins as well as vitamin K ,that take place in the large intestine are accomplished by what process?
Bacteria gathering on undigested carbs and proteins
45
How may soluble fiber, which dissolves in water and is found in such foods as beans, broccoli, citrus fruits and prunes among others, play a role in helping lower cholesterol?
S F binds to bile salts to prevent reabsorption.
Liver makes bile salts by taking cholesterol out of the blood to replace what's lost in feces.
Blood cholesterol level is lowered.
46
Why would a doctor prescribe an antibiotic and a proton pump inhibitor to a patient suffering from peptic ulcer disease?
PPI: Blocks secretion of H+ from parietal cells preventing irritation of ulcer.
Antibiotic: Kills Bacteria so ulcer doesn't flare up again later on.
47
Which has the more severe symptoms and potential for permanent damage to the GI tract, irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) or irritable bowel disease (IBD)?
IBD
48
How do widely prescribed class of cholesterol-lowering drugs known as “statins” basically work , and how does this lower blood cholesterol levels in the blood?
HMG –CoA reductase enzyme is blocked by Statins.
Liver can't create cholesterol w/o this enzyme.
So it pulls cholesterol from the blood.
This lowers blood cholesterol levels.
49
Certain bacteria, not part of the normal bacterial flora in the jejunum section of the small intestine, can be a major source of endotoxins. What medical consequences have been hypothesized as being linked to this situation?
Alcohol abuse allows bacteria to live on/damage intestinal wall.
Damaged intestinal wall allows endotoxins to make their way to the liver.
Result: Liver Cirrosis
50
Provide an example of flu “symptom”
Itchy throat
51
Provide an example of flu “sign”
Sneezing
52
What is the effect of a catalyst, such as an enzyme on “activation energy” needed to initiate a chemical reaction?
A catalyst allows the chemical reaction to initiate quicker by lowering the amount of activation energy required to initiate it.
53
Define Osmosis.
Process that utilizes semipermeable membrane to move water from an area of high water/low solute concentration to an area of low water/high solute concentration.
54
What do you call a 0.9% solution of distilled water and NaCl, and is this solution hypotonic, isotonic, or hypertonic to the ICF within a red blood cell?
Normal saline solution; Isotonic
55
Name four basic types of tissue that comprise of the human body.
Muscular
Epithelial
Nervous
Connective
56
List two effects of the Kidneys triggered by parathyroid hormone (PTH).
Kidney’s release stored Calcitriol to be absorbed into the GI Tract.
Kidney's reabsorb Calcium from the urine.
57
Explain why a drug that works as neostigmine does might be prescribed to help someone with myasthenia gravis?
Neostigmine inhibits acetylcholinesterase temporarily from breaking down ACh.
This allows ACh to stay around and the few ACh receptors to be stimulated.
Result: Muscle activity.
58
What system is referred to as the “fight-or-flight” system.
Sympathetic
59
What system is referred to as the “rest-and-digest” system.
Parasympathetic
60
Parkinson’s disease is primarily caused by a significant decrease in the production of the neurotransmitter ___________ in the brain.
Dopamine
61
A drug that competes with the body’s natural neurotransmitter at the receptor but blocks the receptor is called an __________.
Agonist
62
Phenylephrine is a cold and allergy treatment, that acts as an a1 adrenergic agonist. What is the result of its actions after stimulating a1 adrenergic receptors that explains why it is used in cold medicines?
Phenylephrine = a1 adrenergic agonist = vasoconstriction of blood vessels in nasal cavity.
Used in cold medicines to stop leakage of fluid out of nose.
63
The concept of “free fraction” is an important one for lipid-soluable hormones. What does “free-fraction” mean?
The lipid-soluable hormone is free/active b/c it's not being carried by its’ protein carrier.
No transporter in the first place b/c they're not water soluble.
64
The steroid hormones such as __________, __________, and __________ are all derived from the basic starter molecule ___________.
Estrogen, Testosterone, and Calcitriol;
| Cholesterol
65
What is Hyperglycemia and what is the impact of it on Glucagon/Insulin and Why:
A) Glucagon production
B) Insulin production
Hyperglycemia : high blood sugar (higher than normal averages of sugar in the blood)
A) It decreases (Goal: decrease amt. of sugar in blood)
B) It increases (Goal: decrease sugar in blood. B/C it has liver cell receptors, so it moves sugar to them to turn on glucose transporters)
66
What disease is: Hyposecretion of Insulin or down-regulation of insulin receptors
Diabetes Mellitus
67
What disease is: Hypersecretion of hGH before closure of epiphyseal plates
Giantism
68
What disease is: Hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and aldosterone
Addison's Disease
69
What disease is: Hyposecretion of ADH
Diabetes Insipidus
70
Correlate the following EEG electrical events with the corresponding heart activity and what is the heart muscle doing:
A) the QRS Complex
B) the T Wave
A) Ventricular Depolarization (Heart muscle: Contracting, Systolic)
B) Ventricular Repolarization (Heart muscle: Resting, Diastolic)
71
What is the primary effect on blood pressure of the cardiovascular condition known as shock?
BP significantly decreases.
72
Main differences between anaphylactic shock and septic shock?
Septic shock: Overwhelming Infection
| Anaphylactic shock: Allergic shock
73
A deficiency in alveoli-produces surfactant in premature infants causes their alveoli to _____________________ and leads to a condition called respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Why?
Collapse during exhalation.
Water in body is sticking to water on alveoli and pulls the alveoli tight, not allowing them to open.
74
Explain how carbon monoxide is able to occupy so many hemoglobin molecules at such low overall concentrations in the air compared to oxygen?
Carbon monoxide's bind to hemoglobin is 200 times stronger than oxygen's bind to hemoglobin.
75
Name two chemicals commonly found in the blood that can make chemoreceptors in the body fire nerve impulses that increase activity in the inspiratory area of the medulla oblongata, resulting in an increased breathing rate.
Hydrogen ions = H+
Carbon Dioxide = CO2
76
The kidneys have excellent reserve capacity due to the ability to increase the _____ of the individual nephrons through hypertrophy, such that if a person gives up a kidney as part of a kidney donation the remaining kidney can eventually perform at ______% capacity of the two previous kidneys combined.
Size; 80
77
What substances in particular of blood plasma aren’t normally found in lymph in as great a concentration as they are in the blood (because they normally are not filtered out of the blood to any appreciable degree into the interstitial fluid)?
Protein
78
Which of these two divisions, the Primary or Secondary Lymphatic Organs, is the site of most lymph system pluripotent stem cells?
Primary Lymphatic
79
Which of these two groups, primary or secondary Lymphatic Organs, is the site of origin of B lymphoctyes (i.e. B cells) and T lymphocytes (i.e. T cells) ?
Primary Lymphatic
80
In which group, Primary or Secondary Lymphatic Organs, do most of the immune responses occur?
Secondary Lymphatic (think swollen lymph glands)
81
List two palpable changes that a lymph node might undergo if it were a site of cancer growth compared to if it were merely helping the body fight off a minor infection:
A) Cancerous = fixed to a structure / Minor Infection: movable
B) Cancerous = non-tender / Minor Infection: tender
82
How does “sebum” or oil from our skin’s oil glands help protect the body from microbes?
Unsaturated fatty acids in sebum inhibit growth of certain pathogenic bacterial fungi.
83
What is the protective role of an enzyme found in tears (also found in other body areas such as nasal secretions and perspiration) called lysozyme?
Breaks down bacterial cell walls, dilutes microbes and keeps them from settling on the surface of our eyeballs.
84
What is the difference between innate and adaptive immune responses?
Adaptive Immune = response adapted to recognize antigens from pathogens that enter the body.
Innate Immune = First response to pathogens
inflammation response to tissue damage.
85
What is the impact of histamine on respiratory bronchiole smooth muscles?
Contraction which constricts airways.
86
Other substances released at the site of inflammation include chemicals that aid in chemotaxis of phagocytic cells. What is chemotaxis?
Single cells moving in response to chemical signals in their environment.
87
Define Antigen and Epitope.
Antigen: Anti-body generator
Epitope: Portion of antigen molecule that generates it's own unique anti-body reaction.
88
What is the important difference in immune system impact between a vaccination, such as against the polio virus, that produces “active immunity” , versus the protection offered by “passive immunity”-- such as obtained by injections for tetanus , or injections of an antivenin after being bitten by a poisonous snake or spider?
Active Immunity: Vaccines allow body to use dormant memory cells to become activated and make anti-bodies when a person re-encounters an antigen to counteract it.
Passive Immunity: Injections allow body to utilize a given set of antibodies to counteract an illness, but no memory cells are created for future use against that antigen.
89
List one mechanism of action for each of the following drugs used to treat AIDs: A) reverse transcriptase inhibitors; B) protease inhibitors.
A) Interferes with this enzyme's action, which virus uses to convert it's RNA into a DNA copy.
B) Interferes with action of this enzyme that cuts proteins into pieces to create a protein coat of HIV particles.
90
Do vaccines work on the principal of enhancing the “primary” or the “secondary” response to serious pathogens?
Secondary
91
Which immunoglobin class is the most abundant and is also the only class that crosses the placenta from mother to fetus?
IgG
92
This class is not only the first antibody type to be secreted by plasma cells after an initial antigen encounter, it also provides the anti-A and anti-B antibodies that react with their respective antigens in the ABO blood groups. Which class is it?
IgM
93
Which class has been seen to decrease in blood levels during times of high stress, providing evidence that over time stress can lower one’s immune capabilities? Incidentally, this class is also transmitted in the milk of nursing mothers, and helps provide immune protection within the nursing infant.
IgA
94
Which class, though somewhat of a mystery in immunology, plays a role in the activation of B cells, helping B cells become ready to take part in the immune system defense of the body?
IgD
95
Which class of immunoglobins plays an essential role in allergic, also called hypersensitivity , reactions, for example, allergic asthma, most types of sinusitis, allergic rhinitis, food allergies such as peanut allergies, as well as anaphylactic reactions to certain drugs (e.g. penicillin) and bees stings? (This immunoglobin class, though the least common of all the immunoglobins, can offer protection against many parasitic worms and triggers the most powerful inflammatory responses of any class of Igs.)
IgE
96
Why do individuals such as those hypersensitive to bee stings or latex, carry “epi-pens”, which are devices to directly inject epinephrine into the body? What is the name of the physiological type of “shock” these individuals must guard against?
Epinephrine dilates airways, constricts arterioles which strengthens heartbeat and increases BP; Anaphylactic shock.
97
This autoimmune disorder , over 10x more common in females than males, shows significant evidence of autoantibodies formed against the individual’s own DNA and includes facial eruptions that some have characterized as similar in appearance to those left by the bite of a wolf spider.
SLE or Lupus
98
This autoimmune disorder results in the total loss of insulin-producing cells in the pancreatic islets, and usually occurs during childhood.
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
99
Regulation of blood pH: List the two key ions that play a key role in regulating blood pH.
H+ and HCO3-
100
Maintenance of blood osmolarity: By separately regulating the loss of water and the loss of __________ the kidneys maintain the osmolarity of the blood at approximately 300 milliosmoles/liter.
Solutes
101
Basically how does reabsorption in the renal tubules differ from absorption in the GI tract.
Reabsorption (in the kidneys) puts nutrients back into the blood that have already passed through the GI Tract.
102
Production of hormones: The kidneys produce two hormones, __________, which stimulates the production of RBC's and __________, which helps regulate calcium homeostasis (and is the active physiologic form of Vitamin D)
Erythropoietin; Calcitriol
103
Loop of Henle: a descending limb followed by a thin ascending limb that turns into the ______ ascending limb.
Thick
104
Each nephron also has a specialized group of cells, called the macula dense and the juxtaglomerular cells, which combine to form the juxtaglomerular apparatus, that helps the nephrons regulate ________ ___________.
Blood Pressure
105
The principal cells serve as receptors for both Antidiuretic Hormone and _____________, which regulate the principal cel's function for fluid balance and blood pressure.
Aldosterone
106
Also found in the distal convoluted tubule are the specialized intercalated cells, which play a role in maintaining the ____ homeostasis of the blood.
pH
107
Basically how does reabsorption in the renal tubules differ from the absorption in the GI Tract?
Reabsorption puts something back into the blood that was already there.
108
What can happen in the body if:
A) GFR is too high possibly due to hypertension?
B) GFR is too low, possibly due to a weakened heart unable to maintain normal BP?
A) More urine excreted, damage of nephrons.
B) Less urine excreted, blood becomes more toxic.
109
As proteins are lost in the urine, what happens the overall BCOP throughout the body?
It decreases.
110
Would this change in BCOP in the peripheral blood vessels promote the movement of water into/out of the interstitial fluid surrounding the "leaking" blood vessels?
Into.
111
What happens to the glucose transporter molecules in the nephrons when the blood glucose levels reach more than 200 mg glucose/dl of blood plasma, as occurs in Diabetes Mellitus?
Transport maximum has been reached for glucose carriers.
Excess is excreted through urine.
Urine tastes sweet.
112
What is the resulting condition of significant levels of glucose in the urine called?
Glucose Urea
113
________________ is released in response to a decrease in blood levels of Ca++ ions, and stimulates the early distal convoluted tubules to reabsorb more Ca++.
Parathyroid Hormone
114
___________________ is one of the most potent vasoconstrictor substances in the body, including causing vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles with the subsequent decrease in GFR.
Angiotensin II
115
The hormone ________________________can inhibit reabsorption of Na+ and water, eventually leading to an increase in urine output and a decrease in blood volume and blood pressure.
Atrial Natruretic Hormone
116
The presence of the hormone _______________________________ causes the principal cells to insert water channel molecules into the principal cell membranes, increasing their ability to reabsorb water. Without this hormone, the water channels are not inserted and this part of the distal convoluted tubule is almost impermeable to water molecules. This hormone is released by the hypothalamus when there is as little as a1% decrease in water concentration of the blood plasma or interstitial fluid (i.e. the fluid outside the cells in the surrounding tissue).
Antidiuretic Hormone
117
_____________ is a hormone that stimulates the principal cells in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct to reabsorb more Na+ ions and water, while secreting more K+ ions, leading to an overall increase in blood volume and blood pressure.
Aldosterone
118
Why can't someone at sea who has used all available fresh water drink seawater since it's content is mostly water?
Kidneys use water from the body's own internal fluids.
Body loses 2L of water to excrete solutes per 1L of seawater water consumed.
Body experiences severe dehydration.
119
What are some possible medical problems that could result in the following urinalysis results: Albuminuria
Protein lost through urine due to high BP (poorly managed) that has damaged the kidneys.
Unmanaged chronic Diabetes Mellitus.
120
What are some possible medical problems that could result in the following urinalysis results: Ketonuria
Sign of poorly managed Type 1 Diabetes.
121
What are some possible medical problems that could result in the following urinalysis results: Candida albicans organisms
Possible yeast infection.
122
What is the role of erythropoietin in the body?
Stimulate production of RBC's.
123
Why are anticoagulant drugs such as Heparin added to the patient’s blood circulating through the hemodialyzer?
Anticoagulants stop clotting and enable blood flow through circulation. Keeps things running smooth.
