Physiology Mock Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following mechanisms best accounts for the release of adrenaline?

Release from the adrenal medulla in response to increased angiotensin 1 levels
Release from the zona fasiculata from the adrenal gland in response to increased sympathetic discharge
Release from the adrenal medulla in response to increased noradrenaline levels
Release from the adrenal medulla in response to sympathetic stimulation from the splanchnic nerves
None of the above

A

D
The adrenal gland releases adrenaline in response to increased sympathetic discharge from preganglionic sympathetic fibres of the splanchnic nerves. These cause the chromafin cells of the medulla to release adrenaline (which is preformed) by exocytosis.

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2
Q

A 73 year old lady is admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. During her pre-operative assessment it is noted that she is receiving furosemide for the treatment of hypertension. Where is the site of action of this diuretic?

Proximal convoluted tubule
Descending limb of the loop of Henle
Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
Distal convoluted tubule
Collecting ducts
A

C
Action of furosemide = ascending limb of the loop of Henle
Furosemide and bumetanide are loop diuretics that act by inhibiting the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, reducing the absorption of NaCl.

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3
Q

A 34 year old lady develops septic shock and features of the systemic inflammatory response syndrome as a complication of cholangitis. Which of the following is not a typical feature of this condition?

Body temperature less than 36o C or greater than 38oC
Respiratory rate >20
Lactate <4 mmol/L
High levels of tumour necrosis factor α
WCC >12,000 mm3
A

C
Septic shock will typically result in end organ hypoperfusion and as a result lactate levels will often be high. In the surviving sepsis campaign it is suggested that elevated lactate levels are an independent indicator for vasopressor support in patient with sepsis. The WCC may be paradoxically low in severe sepsis, although it is most often elevated.

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4
Q

Which main group of receptors does dobutamine bind to?

α-1
α-2
ß-1
ß-2
D-12
A

C
Dobutamine is a sympathomimetic with both alpha- and beta-agonist properties; it displays a considerable selectivity for beta1-cardiac receptors.

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5
Q

What is the substrate of renin?

Aldosterone
Angiotensinogen
Angiotensin converting enzyme
Angiotensin I
Angiotensin II
A

B

Renin hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I.

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6
Q

Which of the following statements is true of glucagon?

Glucagon is produced in response to hyperglycaemia
Released by beta cells
Inhibits gluconeogenesis
Produced in response to an increase of amino acids
Composed of 2 alpha polypeptide chains linked by hydrogen bonds

A

D
Glucagon is a protein comprised of a single polypeptide chain.
Produced by alpha cells of pancreatic islets of Langerhans in response to hypoglycaemia and amino acids.
It increases plasma glucose and ketones.

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7
Q

A 52 year old man develops septic shock following a Hartmans procedure for perforated diverticular disease. He is started on an adrenaline infusion. Which of the following is least likely to occur?

Peripheral vasoconstriction
Coronary artery vasospasm
Gluconeogenesis
Lipolysis
Tachycardia
A

B

It’s cardiac effects are mediated via β 1 receptors. The coronary arteries which have β 2 receptors are unaffected.

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8
Q

Which of the following statements relating to alveolar ventilation is untrue?

Anatomical dead space is measured by helium dilution
Physiological dead space is increased in PE
Alveolar ventilation is defined as the volume of fresh air entering the alveoli per minute
Anatomical dead space is increased by adrenaline
Type 2 pneumocytes in the alveoli secrete surfactant

A

A

Anatomical dead space is measured by Fowlers method.

A patient inhales 100% oxygen to empty the conducting zone gases of nitrogen and then exhales through a mouthpiece which analyses the nitrogen concentration at the mouth. Initially the exhaled gases contain no nitrogen as this is dead space gas; the nitrogen concentration will increase as the alveolar gases are exhaled. Nitrogen which is measured following the breath of 100% oxygen must then have come only from gas exchanging areas of the lung and not dead space.

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9
Q

A 74 year old male with colon cancer sustains an iatrogenic splenic injury during surgery. He is bleeding profusely. What is the most appropriate course of action?

Infusion of human prothrombin complex
Infusion of packed red cells
Infusion of blood from the cell saver salvaged during surgery
Infusion of factor VIII concentrate
Infusion of gelofusine
A

B
The cell saver is inappropriate because the cells will be contaminated with malignant cells and faecal matter from the open bowel.

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10
Q

What is the most likely electrolyte abnormality in a patient with diarrhoea and a soft mass felt on digital rectal examination?

Hyperkalaemia
Hypokalaemia
Hyponatraemia
Hypernatraemia
Hypocalcaemia
A

B
Large villous adenomas of the rectum may have marked secretory activity and result in the development of hypokalaemia as rectal secretions are rich in potassium.

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11
Q

A 25 year old man is undergoing respiratory spirometry. He takes a maximal inspiration and maximally exhales. Which of the following measurements will best illustrate this process?

Functional residual capacity
Vital capacity
Inspiratory capacity
Maximum voluntary ventilation
Tidal volume
A

B

The maximum voluntary ventilation is the maximal ventilation over the course of 1 minute.

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12
Q

A 25 year old man is undergoing respiratory spirometry. He takes a maximal inspiration and maximally exhales. Which of the following measurements will best illustrate this process?

Functional residual capacity
Vital capacity
Inspiratory capacity
Maximum voluntary ventilation
Tidal volume
A

B

The maximum voluntary ventilation is the maximal ventilation over the course of 1 minute.

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13
Q

The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left in:

With decreased 2,3-DPG in transfused red cells
Respiratory acidosis
Sudden move to high altitude
Pyrexia
Haemolytic anaemia
A
A
S shaped curve
The curve is shifted to the left when there is a decreased oxygen requirement by the tissue. This includes:
1. Hypothermia
2. Alkalosis
3. Reduced levels of DPG:
DPG is found in erythrocytes and is reduced in non exercising muscles, i.e. when there is reduced glycolysis. 
  1. Polycythaemia
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14
Q

Which of the following does not decrease the functional residual capacity?

Obesity8%
Pulmonary fibrosis8%
Muscle relaxants21%
Laparoscopic surgery7%
Upright position56%

I

A

E
ncreased FRC:

Erect position
Emphysema
Asthma

Decreased FRC:

    Pulmonary fibrosis
    Laparoscopic surgery
    Obesity
    Abdominal swelling
    Muscle relaxants

When the patient is upright the diaphragm and abdominal organs put less pressure on the lung bases, allowing for an increase in the functional residual capacity (FRC). Other causes of increased FRC include:

Emphysema
Asthma

In addition to those listed above, causes of reduced FRC include:

Abdominal swelling
Pulmonary oedema
Reduced muscle tone of the diaphragm
Age
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15
Q

Which of the following statements relating to cerebrospinal fluid is untrue?

The choroid plexus is only present in the lateral ventricles
Total CSF volume is 100-150ml
CSF pressure is usually 10-15mmHg
The cerebral aqueduct connects the third and fourth ventricles
The foramen of Luschka are paired and lie laterally in the fourth ventricle

A

A

The choroid plexus lies in all ventricles.

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16
Q

At which of the following sites is the most water absorbed?

Right colon
Left colon
Stomach
Jejunum
Duodenum
A

D
Water absorption in the gastrointestinal tract predominantly occurs in the small bowel (jejunum and ileum). The colon is an important site of water absorption, however, its overall contribution is relatively small. The importance of the colonic component to water absorption may increase following extensive small bowel resections.

17
Q

Which of the following substances related to thyroid function has its effects mediated by a nuclear receptor?

Triiodothyronine
Thyroxine
Thyroglobulin
Thyroid stimulating hormone
Thyroxin binding globulin
A

A

T3 binds to a receptor on chromatin to induce protein synthesis.

18
Q

Which of the following drugs is least likely to cause syndrome of inappropriate anti diuretic hormone release?

Haloperidol
Carbamazepine
Amitriptylline
Cyclophosphamide
5 Flurouracil
A

E
Drugs causing SIADH: ABCD

A nalgesics: opioids, NSAIDs
B arbiturates
C yclophosphamide/ Chlorpromazine/ Carbamazepine
D iuretic (thiazides)

19
Q

A person is diagnosed with Conns syndrome. If the parotid gland secretions were assayed, what change (if any) will be noted?

Decreased potassium
Decreased sodium
Increased sodium
Potassium levels unchanged, sodium levels increased
Potassium levels raised sodium levels unchanged

A

B
Aldosterone affects the parotid gland secretions and has the effect of conserving sodium (so salivary sodium reduced) and potassium secretion increased.

20
Q

A 63 year old man undergoes a laparotomy and small bowel resection. Twelve hours post operatively he is noted to have a decreased urine output. Which of the hormones listed below is most likely to be responsible?

Cortisol
Atrial natriuretic hormone
Vasopressin
Insulin
Glucagon
A

C
Vasopressin is released in increased quantities following most operative procedures and will tend to cause water retention. For this reason, excessive administration of intravenous fluids in an attempt to force a diuresis may cause fluid overload in post operative patients.

21
Q

A patient with tachycardia and hypotension is to receive vasopressors. Which of the following conditions are most likely to be treated with vasopressors?

Hypovolaemic shock
Septic shock
Neurogenic shock
Cardiogenic shock
None of the above
A

B
The term septic shock has a precise meaning and refers to refractory systemic arterial hypotension in spite of fluid resuscitation. Patients will therefore usually require vasopressors. Individuals suffering from neurogenic shock will usually receive intravenous fluids to achieve a mean arterial pressure of 90mmHg. If this target cannot be achieved then these patients will receive inotropes. Hypovolaemic shock requires fluids and the management of cardiogenic shock is multifactorial and includes inotropes, vasodilators and intra-aortic balloon pumps.

22
Q

A 33 year old female is admitted for varicose vein surgery. She is fit and well. After the procedure she is persistently bleeding. She is known to have menorrhagia. Investigations show a prolonged bleeding time and increased APTT. She has a normal PT and platelet count. What is the most likely cause?

Anti phospholipid syndrome
Haemophilia
Factor V Leiden deficiency
von Willebrands disease
Protein C and S deficiency
A

D
Bleeding post operatively, epistaxis and menorrhagia may indicate a diagnosis of vWD. Haemoarthroses are rare. The bleeding time is usually normal in haemophilia (X-linked) and vitamin K deficiency.

23
Q

Which of the arterial blood gas analyses shown below would most likely be seen with a patient who has a pulmonary embolus?

A

A combination of hypoxia and respiratory alkalosis should suggest a pulmonary embolus. The respiratory alkalosis is due to hyperventilation associated with the pulmonary embolism.

24
Q

A 55-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, bipolar disorder and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has bloods taken during a pre operative assessment of an inguinal hernia repair:

Na+	125 mmol/l
K+	3.8 mmol/l
Bicarbonate	24 mmol/l
Urea	3.7 mmol/l
Creatinine	92 µmol/l

Due to his smoking history a chest x-ray is ordered which is reported as normal. The Consultant asks you what is the most likely cause for the hyponatraemia?

Metformin
Lithium
Carbamazepine
Sodium valproate
Pioglitazone
A

C
SIADH - drug causes: carbamazepine, sulfonylureas, SSRIs, tricyclics
Lithium can cause diabetes insipidus but this is generally associated with a high sodium. Lithium only tends to cause raised antidiuretic hormone levels following a severe overdosage.

25
Q

Which of the following stimulates prolactin release or action?

Leutinising hormone
Dopamine
Thyrotropin releasing hormone
Oestrogen
Follicle stimulating hormone
A

C

TRH stimulates prolactin release. Dopamine suppresses the release of prolactin.

26
Q

Which of the following does not cause a normal anion gap acidosis?

Pancreatic fistula
Acetazolamide
Uraemia
Ureteric diversion
Renal tubular acidosis
A

C
Normal Gap Acidosis: HARDUP

H - Hyperalimentation/hyperventilation
A - Acetazolamide
R - Renal tubular acidosis
D - Diarrhoea
U - Ureteral diversion
P - Pancreatic fistula/parenteral saline
Uraemia will typically cause a high anion gap acidosis. It is one of the unmeasured anions.
27
Q

Which of the following features does not put a patient at risk of refeeding syndrome?

BMI < 16 kg/m2
Alcohol abuse
Thyrotoxicosis
Chemotherapy
Diuretics
A

C
Diuretics increase the risk of re-feeding syndrome through a process of increasing the risk of depletion of key electrolytes.