picu board card Flashcards

(522 cards)

1
Q

<p>main effect of BK virus infection</p>

A

<p>renal failure</p>

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2
Q

<p>anacrotic limb signifies what</p>

A

<p>aortic valve opening and onset of LV ejection</p>

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3
Q

<p>hepatopulmonary syndrome</p>

A

<p>pathological dilation of pulm vessels causing increased intrapulmonary shunt, hypoxemia</p>

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4
Q

<p>carb overfeeding causes \_\_\_\_ RQ</p>

A

<p>higher</p>

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5
Q

<p>what happens in carbon monoxide poisoning pulse oximetry reading?</p>

A

<p>the oxygen saturation is overestimated because it interprets carboxyhemoglobin to be oxyhemoglobin, this also occurs in hemolysis</p>

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6
Q

V/Q =

A

((8.63 x R(CaO2-CmvO2))/PACO2

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7
Q

<p>hyperammonemia with acidosis, yes urine ketones</p>

A

<p>organic aciduria</p>

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8
Q

<p>low lipid solubility, high protein binding, decreased tissue binding produce a \_\_\_ volume of distribution</p>

A

<p>low</p>

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9
Q

<p>CaO2 = </p>

A

<p>1.36 (amount of oxygen in ml that a fully saturated Hb can carry) x Hb (g/dL) x %sat x 0.003 (solubility coefficient of oxygen in ml of oxygen per dL of blood)</p>

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10
Q

<p>it is difficult/easy to remove a drug with large Vd by dialysis</p>

A

<p>difficult</p>

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11
Q

<p>immunodeficiency of older kids, B cell defect, increased risk autoimmune disease</p>

A

<p>CVID</p>

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12
Q

<p>risk ratio is similar to odds ratio if events are \_\_</p>

A

<p>rare</p>

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13
Q

<p>do neonates have a larger or smaller relative volume of distriubtion</p>

A

<p>larger</p>

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14
Q

<p>this is in cryo</p>

A

<p>8, 13, vWF, fibrinogen; 1 unit increases fibrinogen by 50 mg/dL</p>

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15
Q

<p>what facilitates the interaction of actin and myosin</p>

A

<p>an increase in cytosolic calcium</p>

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16
Q

<p>which type of diuretic is likely to cause kidney stones, esp in premature infants</p>

A

<p>loop diuretics</p>

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17
Q

<p>EKG signs hypercalcemia</p>

A

<p>prolonged PR, short QT, wide QRS</p>

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18
Q

<p>normal pyruvate and elevated lactate to pyrvate ratio</p>

A

<p>mitochondrial disorder</p>

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19
Q

<p>x linked recessive failure of neutrophil oxidative burst, NADPH oxidase deficiency</p>

A

<p>CGD</p>

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20
Q

<p>Lasix and bumex quickly increase \_\_\_ leading to improvement in heart failure</p>

A

<p>venous capacitance</p>

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21
Q

<p>antidote for serotonin syndrome</p>

A

<p>cyproheptadine; antihistamine and serotonin antagonist</p>

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22
Q

<p>infection after liver transplant after 4 weeks</p>

A

<p>viral</p>

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23
Q

<p>when is risk ratio similar to odds ratio, when events are rare or when events are frequent</p>

A

<p>when events are rare</p>

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24
Q

<p>risk of catheter related infection is lowest for \_\_\_</p>

A

<p>subclavian, but highest risk mechanical complications</p>

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25

PAO2 =

((Patm-PH20) x FiO2) - PaCO2/RQ

26

how does NO cause vasodilation

activation of guanylate cyclase to increase cAMP

27

effect of ATII and endothelin on afferent arteriole

constriction

28

DO2 (ml/min) =

CaO2 x CO x 10 dL/L

29

which muscles are most resistant to neuromuscular blockade in children/adults

larynx, diaphragm

30

high fever, diarrhea, severe encephalopathy, 50% mortality

hemorrhagic shock encephalopathy syndrome

31

administration of ___ is contraindicated in children with MCAD deficiency

MCT oil

32

is inhaled NO helpful in lung transplant dysfunction

yes

33

what is treatment for NMS

benzos and dopaminergic agents

34

v wave

atrium filling with blood again

35

dicrotic notch signifies what

reflected waves back from arteries when measured peripherally

36

flexed upper extremities posturing is called

decorticate, comes before decerebrate

37

hallmark of community acquired MRSA

profound neutropenia

38

hyperammonemia without acidosis is the hallmark of the ___

urea cycle defects

39

this MRI mode uses the brownian movement of water molecules to identify acute and subacute edema, ischemic areas will be ___ on this method

DWI, bright

40

altered systemic ____ synthesis leads to decreaesd pulm clearance of ROS leading to ARDS in liver failure

glutathione

41

risk of infection with PICC is __ than CVL

same, time to infection is longer however

42

in what zone of lung does PA catheter need to be for best measurement

in area least effected by alveolar pressure, zone 3

43

hereditary hemochromastosis has low levels of ___, a regular or iron homeostasis

hepcidin

44

in massive transfusion for every 5 units blood give

4 units plt and 1 unit FFP

45

this is the crunching sound during systole that suggests air or fluid abutting the heart signifying mediastinitis

hamman sign

46

neonatal airways are ___ than adults when normalized to BSA

larger

47

this disease has elevated pyruvate but normal lactate to pyruvate ratio, hypoglycemia

glycogen storage

48

this disease has decreased number of Ach receptors to not have an effective contraction

myasthenia gravis

49

on which MRI is CSF dark

T1

50

all alcohols are metabolized to ___

oxalic acids

51

TCA mechanisms

alpha 2 antagonists, block Na channels

52

biotin deficiency will result in a secondary deficiency in what enzyme

pyruvate carboxylase

53

type II HIT

antibody to plt factor 4, issue is thrombosis not bleeding; type I HIT self resolves

54

this is from reactivation of latent EBV after transplant leading to B cell hyperplasia/lymphoma

PTLD

55

TTP pentad

fever, AMS, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, renal dysfunction, thrombocytopenia

56

EKG findings of propofol infusion syndrome

RBBB and ST elevations V1 to V3

57

person is awake but drowsy

alpha

58

symptoms of TRALI must appear within ___ hours of transfusion

6

59

do highly lipophilic oral meds absorb faster or slower

faster

60

this inhibits GABA release presynaptically

tetanus toxin

61

conditions where PAOP underestimates

LV non compliance, aortic regurg (mitral valve closes but retrograde flow continues and thus elevates LVEDP)

62

hyperammonenia with acidosis, no urine ketones

disorder of FA oxidation

63

anti inflammatory cytokines

IL-10, TGF-beta

64

how many half lives until steady state

4-5

65

this is a bath salt that causes seizures, hyperthermia, agitation, fever

mephedrone

66

higher gas flow at lower pressures is the ___ principle

bernoulli principele

67

K time long or shallow alpha angle in TEG

need plt, fibrinogen to help clot kinetics

68

side effect of cyclophosphamide

hemorrhagic cystitis

69

critical point of oxygen delivery

at this point tissues are supply dependent for oxygen delivery and consumption will fall with falling oxygen delivery

70

side effect of vincristine

peripheral neuropathy

71

location of phlebostatic axis

junction of 4th intercostal space and mid axillary line

72

this dopamine receptor is on renal tubules and mediates naturiesis

DA-1, also cause vasodilation postsynaptic

73

with decreasing GFR there is an ____ in Cr secretion

increase, thus further overestimating GFR

74

as the arterial pulse is transmitted distally the ___ peak increases, the ___ pressure decreases

systolic, diastolic

75

equation for renal plasma flow

RPF = (renal artery pressure-renal vein pressure)/RVR

76

pompes EKG

biventricular strain, short PR

77

this is the volume of plasma from which drug is removed over a period of time and equals k x Vd

clearance

78

combo of neutropenia, panc insufficiency, resp infection

schwachmann diamond

79

high spinal cord injury can cause autonomic ___

dysreflexia, episodes of hypertension

80

this metabolic disorder has cardiomyopathy, myopathy, myoglobinuria

fatty acid oxidation

81

plt adhesion is ____ in liver failure

increased

82

proximal RTA type II

decreased ability of proximal tubule to absorb bicarb, low urine pH

83

response of large pulm arteries to hypoxia

vasodilation

84

significant slowing on eeg

delta

85

this impairs release of Ach at NMJ

botulinum toxin

86

name of decreased and delayed arterial upstroke seen in aortic stenosis

pulsus parvus et tardus

87

infant chest wall has __ compliance, ___ elastance

increased, decreased

88

these are the most prevalent immune deficiences

antibody defects

89

the point where inhaled gas becomes 100% humidified in mechanical ventilated patients

isothermic saturation boundary

90

this medication inhibits acetylcholinesterase and improves muscle strength in MG in 1 min

edrophonium

91

most mineralocorticoid steroid

hydrocortisone

92

GFR plasma inulin formula

GFR x Pin = V x Uin

93

conditions where PAOP overestimates LVEDP

catheter in west zone 1 or 2, excessive positive mean airway pressure, mitral valve disease as only the high LA pressure is reflected not the actual LVEDP, increased PVR

94

whats the primary cytokine for macrophages

RANTES

95

infant lungs have ___ elastance

decreased

96

when focal vascular injury occurs due to the trauma the initial response is

vasoconstriction

97

anterior spinal cord is responsible for ...

pain, temperature

98

this elimination has constant amount eliminated per unit time

zero order

99

risk of clot in HIT persists for how long

weeks

100

fast component of nystagmus with warm water is away/toward the warm water

away

101

alkalinization of urine in TCA overdose does/does not effect excretion

does not, it increases the binding of free drug

102

milrinone half life is ___ in infants than children

longer

103

a wave

atrial contraction

104

in what phase of CPR does the RA pressure fall faster than aortic pressure allowing the coronaries to perfuse

decompression phase, need at least 15 mm Hg difference

105

what is the effect of hypothermia on cerebral blood flow

reduced, also decreases response to changes in CO2

106

triscupid valve stenosis, PS, PA, pulm htn, non complaint RV causes these waves

cannaon a waves

107

chemotaxis neutrophil failure, recurrent staph infection of lung, eczema, increased Ige

hyper IgE (job syndrome)

108

side effect of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite

methemoglobinemia

109

gold standard for HIT

C-serotonin assay

110

works through cGMP to activate Ca sensitive K channels, K goes into cell and Ca is inhibited resulting in relaxation

NO

111

which way does oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve go with increased 2,3 DPG, acidosis, increased temp, decreased pH

to the right

112

risk of significant LV dysfunction is minimized in duchennes patients who have received ___

steroids

113

this receptor activates adenylate cyclase to increase cAMP, increase protein kinase, increased cytosolic Ca

beta 1

114

this is a deficiency of acid alpha glucosidase, a lysosomal hydrolase responsible for degradation of a small amount of glycogen

pompes

115

decreased respiratory system elastance ___ closing volume

increases; volume in infants is above FRC so there is atelectasis in quiet breathing

116

this is a reflex where an increase in atrial volume causes an increase in HR and contractility

bainbridge

117

complication of silver sulfadizene

leukopenia due to neutrophils going to the site

118

anion gap acidosis with normal lactate and high ketones

disorder of ketolysis or aminoacidopathy like MSUD

119

infection after liver transplant common in first 4 weeks

bacterial

120

GFR using bedside Schwartz equation

GFR = (0.41 x height in cm)/Cr

121

positive and negative predictive value are influenced by the ___ of disease in the population

frequency

122

coronary steal

when coronary blood flow redistributes from endocardial to epicardial muscle

123

PVR =

(MPAP-PAOP)/CO x 80

124

absent dolls eye reflex

eyes turn with head and never deviate back to midline

125

channels between alveoli that allow for collateral ventilation

pores of kohn (not present until 3-4 years of age)

126

which is better for variceal bleeding, octreotide or vasopressin

octreotide

127

this drug inhibits PDE III

milrinone

128

which has a higher sat in normal conditions, Smv or Scv

Smv because its in PA and avoids coronary sinus blood

129

normal lysis at 30 min in teg is ____

less than 5%

130

whats the primary cytokine for neutrophils

IL-8

131

eczema, thrombocytopenia, immunodeficiency

wiskott aldrich

132

if there is no difference between therapies but investigators conclude there is

type I error, alpha

133

Qs=

VO2/Cao-Cpa

134

response of peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid and aorta to hypoxemia less than 60 mm Hg

increase minute ventilation, increase sympathetic tone

135

which waves become more prominent in tricuspid regurg

c and v

136

drugs with poor tissues penetration have a small/large Vd

small

137

this equals 0.693/k

T1/2

138

Reynolds number =

(2vrp/n); less than 2000 is laminar, over 4000 is turbulent

139

which curve is linear for elimination, first order or zero order

first order

140

anion gap acidosis with normal lactate and low ketones

disorder of fatty acid oxidation

141

elevated BUN and elevated bili can __ free fraction of drug

increase

142

color of full thickness burn

white or black

143

the area of the LV pressure volume curve represents ___

stroke work

144

closing capacity

the volume at which small airway closure occurs during expiration

145

reverse Fick VO2 =

(CaO2 - CmvO2) x CO

146

anacrotic limb

initial sharp upstroke of arterial waveform

147

where is v/q ratio highest

apex of lung

148

most immunosuppressive steroid

decadron

149

this is the neurotransmitter at all sympathetic ganglia, the post gang neurotransmitter is ___

ach, norepi

150

antidote for calcium channel blocker overdose

calcium, then insulin

151

what distinguishes PA waveform from RV waveform

PA waveform has a higher diastolic pressure

152

what is the response of the coronaries to acidosis

vasodilate

153

BNP acts via ___

cGMP

154

which type of cardiac muscle gets more blood flow, endocardial or epicardial ?

endocardial at ratio of 1.25:1

155

HIV diagnosis greater than 18 months

HIV ab

156

another word for accuracy ie close to the truth

validity

157

in hypervolemic (zone III) conditions an increase in abdominal pressure with diaphragm descent caused a ___ in venous return

increase (non splanchnic blood flow is not inhibited), splanchnic flow increases

158

symp pregang neurotransmitter is ___, post gang is ___

ach, norepi

159

this is equal to (total amount of drug in the body)/(concentration in the plasma)

volume of distribution

160

TLR3 recognizes ____

dsDNA viruses

161

highly protein bound drugs are/are not readily filtered

are not

162

Qpul =

VO2/Cpv-Cpa

163

antidote for ethylene glycol

fomepizole to inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase; dialysis to remove the oxalic acid

164

when is intraaortic balloon pump inflated

during diastole

165

c wave

tricuspid valve displacement toward atrium during isovolumic contraction

166

this toxic overdose blocks Na-K ATPase in myocardium

TCAs

167

what accounts for over 50% liver transplants

biliary atresia with failed kasai

168

auto recessive impaired neutrophil phagocytosis, neuropathy, albinism

chediak higashi

169

antidote for methanol toxicity

folinic acid

170

if there is a difference but investigators conclude there is not

type II, beta

171

fetal Hb has ___ O2 affinity, _____ p50

higher, lower

172

distal RTA type I

decreased urine proton excretion, high urine pH

173

anion gap acidosis with high lactate and normal pyruvate(elevated lactate to pyruvate ratio)

mitochondrial disorder

174

lymphomatous transformation when infected with EBV, see lymphadenopathy, hepatic/BM failure

X linked lymphoproliferative disease

175

flail chest

chest collapses with inspirations

176

drug is eliminated as a fixed amount over time

zero order

177

this elimination kinetic has rate of elimination directly proportional to concentration of drug

first order

178

wall tension T = ; aka law of LaPlace

(P x r)/2w

179

this inhibits IL-2, is nephrotoxic

calcineurin inhibitors like cyclosporin

180

this is the best load independent measure of contractility because it measures contractility at different preloads and afterloads

end systolic pressure volume relationship ie slope of the curve

181

need to rule out this disorder in nonaccidental trauma

glutaric aciduria type I, tx is L carnitine, retinal hemorrhages not seen

182

FeNa

(UnaxPna)/(UcrxPcr)

183

___ and ____ stimulate gastric empyting

ghrelin and motilin

184

SIRS criteria must include ___ or ___

abnormal temp or WBC count

185

to diagnose organophosphate toxicity measure this

RBC cholinesterase

186

clue that pt may develop malignant hyperthermia

sustained masseter muscle rigidity

187

myoglobin precipitates when it interacts with

tamm-horshall protein

188

the receptor activates adenylate cyclase to increase cAMP, increase protein kinase, decreased cytosolic Ca

beta 2

189

most common type of TEF

esophageal atresia plus distal fistula between esophagus and trachea getting air into stomach

190

this is a class III antiarrythmic that blocks K channels on the sarcolemma of cardiac myocytes

adenosine

191

sympathetic pregang neurons are located from ____ and release Ach

T1-L2, Ach

192

what is treatment for varicella exposure

varicella immune globulin up to 10 days after

193

term for the percentage of drug that reaches the systemic circulation after administration

bioavailability

194

in critical illness both protein synhesis and breakdown are increased but there is still net ___ protein balance

negative

195

phase 2 of myocardial depol

calcium enters cell via L type channels, triggers Ca release from SR via ryanodine receptors (ca induced ca release), Ca binds to Tn-C, allowing actin and myosin to interact

196

which factor during CPR correlates with return of spontaneous circulation

coronary perfusion

197

anion gap acidosis with high lactate and high pyruvate (ie normal lactate:pyruvate ratio) but hypoglycemia

glycogen storage I or disorder of gluconeogenesis

198

a wave

atrial contraction at the end of diastole

199

this receptor has adenylate cyclase inhibited pre synaptically to decrease cAMP and PKA and decrease norepi leading to vasodilation

alpha 2

200

time based billing codes are used for patients older than _

6 years

201

this is the neurotransmitter for parasymp

ach

202

pressures the define pulm htn

over 25 at rest, over 30 in exercise

203

which area has highest O2ER in body

coronary sinus (its about 0.6), so decreased ability to increase thus vulnerable to ischemia

204

this has low WBC count with low levels of T cell surface markers CD3, CD8, CD4 and gets infected with P jiroveccii

SCID

205

fast component of nystagmus with cold water is away/toward the ice water

toward

206

response of small pulm arteries to hypoxia

vasoconstriction

207

when Pra is less than 0 venous return is still limited by the collapse of ___

extrathoracic blood vessels

208

medication of choice for cocaine intoxication

benzos

209

this drug blocks Na channels

cocaine

210

cannon a waves are caused by what

atrial contraction against a closed tricuspid valve

211

high crit, excesssive FFP, severe acute rejection

risk factors for hepatic artery thrombosis

212

x linked, CD40L mutation, cryptosporidium diarrhea

hyper IgM

213

is higher number or lower number worse for abbreviated injury score

higher

214

excessive glycolysis and unchanged lactate to pyruvate ratio can cause an elevated lactate, which type of lactic acidosis is this

type B

215

these two treatments can be helpful in MMA

B12, carnitine

216

Th2 cells are pro or anti inflammatory?

anti

217

the BBB is permeable/impermeable to mannitol and 3%

impermeable

218

vasopressin V1 receptor leads to ___

vasoconstriction, via PLC

219

which spinal levels innervate the diaphragm

C3, C4, C5

220

____ inhibit gastric emptying

CCK, GLP-1, secretin

221

oxygen consumption equation

VO2 = DO2 x O2extraction

222

area of kidney most susceptible to ischemic damage

medulla; ie medullary thick ascending limb and S3 segment of proximal tubule

223

term for condunction velocity of heart

dromotropy

224

equation for flow using conservation of mass principle

Q = (amount of substance)/(average concentration of dye T1 to T2)

225

what does 10 mm Hg CO2 do to pH

decrease by 0.08

226

odds ratio is for ___ studies

case control

227

this inhibits release of GH, insulin, glucagon, and decreases portal venous blood flow

octreotide

228

risk of catheter related infection is highest for __

femoral, also highest risk DVT

229

first line for aspergillus

vori

230

elevated abdominal pressure increases chest wall ___

elastance

231

half life albumin

20

232

3 parts of ICP wave, P1, P2, P3

P1 is systolic pressure, P2 compliance, P3 venous pulsations

233

as p50 increases, O2 affinity ____

falls

234

what is the energy source of cardiac muscle

fatty acids

235

effect of hypercapnia on coronary blood flow

vasodilate

236

main side effect of mycophenolate

diarrhea

237

failure of t and b cell, adenosine deaminase deficiency, fungal/viral infections

SCID

238

which receptor does labetalol hit the most

B1 more than B2, alpha 1

239

what is respiratory quotient

ratio of amount of CO2 being produced to O2 being consumed

240

whats difference between neuronal NOS/endothelial NOS and iNOS

neuronal/endothelial NOS are Ca dependent and produce NO at low levels, iNOS is Ca independent and produces at high levels

241

ATII causes ____ greater than ____ constriction during times of reduced renal perfusion pressure

efferent greater than afferent

242

normal SVRi, PVRi

800-1600, 80-240

243

high thoracic or spinal cord injury can injure the ___

Sympathetic nervous system and cause spinal shock, baseline bronchoconstriction

244

this disease has elevated pyruvate but normal lactate to pyruvate ratio, normoglycemia

pyruvate carboxylase or dehydrogenase deficiency

245

MA in TEG is what

plt concentration and function

246

tx of neonatal iron storage disease

antioxidant cocktail

247

aspirated sea water leads to ___

pulm edema

248

where does botulism work

presynaptically, stopping release of ach

249

haldane effect

deoxygenated blood has increased ability to carry CO2 and oxygenated blood has decreased ability to carry CO2 and H, so in lungs where oxygen is abundant CO2 is easily unloaded

250

this mab blocks CD25, IL-2

basilixumab

251

most common cause heptaic failure infants

metabolic disease

252

cephalic phase of gastric emptying is mediated by

histamine H2 receptor

253

gradient of CO2 between alveoli and large airways, another mechanism of ventilation in HFOV

molecular diffusion

254

severe rash, immunodeficiency state, lactic acidosis, hyperammonemia

biotinidase deficiency, tx with biotin

255

chemo drug that causes cerebellar syndrome, myelopathy

cytarabine

256

in TEG this has a short R time, high alpha angle, short K time, quick fibrinolysis

DIC

257

what part of the brain does the blood brain barrier not cover

choroid plexus

258

critical point of oxygen delivery in ARDS

tissues remain supply dependent at much higher levels of oxygen delivery

259

this receptor uses PLC to hydrolyze PIP2 to DAG and IP3 to promote increased intracellular Ca

alpha 1

260

main lipid component of sufactant is

phosphatidylcholine

261

___ is the membrane reflection coefficient, the resistance of the membrane to protein passage

sigma; 0 is no resistance , 1 is full resistance

262

this inotrope causes renal splanchnic vasodilation at low dose

dopamine

263

biggest viral infection risk in liver failure

CMV, EBV

264

risk factors for secondary infection/death in immunoparalysis

lymphocyte apoptosis, lymphopenia

265

RQ of carbs

1

266

the dinamap method of blood pressure underestimates the ___ pressure

diastolic

267

this degrades cAMP, cGMP and is inhibited by milrinone

PDE-3

268

O2 extraction ratio =

(CaO2 - CvO2)/CaO2

269

lack of nicotinamide adenine nucleotide disphosphate is what disorder

CGD

270

mechanism of organophosphates

acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

271

what happens to afferent arteriole with high sodium delivery to macula densa

constriction

272

this drug is a highly selective B1 blocker metabolized by RBC esterases

esmolol

273

venom of elapidea snakes effects what system

neuro with descending paralysis

274

bohr effect

increased CO2, H+ reduce affinity of Hb for O2

275

what is the effect of hypoxia and hypercarbia on cerebral blood flow

cerebral vasodilation

276

parasymp pregang and post gang are___

ach

277

these vasopressin receptors are on vascular smooth muscle and cause contraction as well as selective pulm and cerebral vasodilation

V1a

278

beta lactams, vanc, macrolides are time dependent or concentration dependent for killling

time dependent

279

this antibiotic inhibits adrenal synthesis of steroids

ketoconazole

280

anion gap acidosis with high lactate and high pyruvate (ie normal lactate:pyruvate ratio) but normal glucose

pyruvate dehydrogenase or pyruvate carboxylase deficiency

281

vasopressin V2 receptor leads to ___

water retnetion via cAMP

282

if PCO2 increases by 10, pH will fall by ___

0.08

283

how is n. meningitidis transmited

oral secretions

284

even numbers are ___ side on EEG

right

285

3 ml/kg prbc increases Hb by ____

1 g/dL

286

what neurotransmitter inhibits the conversion of tyrosine to dopa

norepi

287

sensitivity/1-specificity

positive likelihood ratio

288

another word for precision ie close to each other

reliability

289

carbon dioxide bound to hemoglobin ____ as oxygen hemoglobin saturation increases

decreases (easy to unload CO2 in high oxygen environment)

290

is higher number or lower number worse for revised trauma score

lower; if less than 11 refer to trauma center

291

90% of CO2 in the blood is in the form of ___

bicarbonate ion

292

hyperammonemia with acidosis

organic acidemia

293

infant seizing, no acidosis or ketones

non ketotic hyperglycinemia

294

cox proportional hazards model assumes hazards are ___ throughout the course

proportional; if not proportional use grays

295

second most common cause of unintentional death in children

submersion injury

296

gold standard to diagnosis MH

in vitro contracture test to expose muscle to halothane, caffeine or both

297

where is kidney medullary blood flow greatest, outer or inner medulla

outer

298

major criteria rheumatic fever

carditis with mitral then aortic, arthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum

299

edrophonium, neostigmine

anticholinesterases that potentiate effect of Ach; can be given in myasthenia gravis

300

VCO2 in HFOV =

f x Tv^2

301

effect of mannitol on cerebral blood vessels

it decreases blood viscosity, blood flows easier, vessels then constrict

302

patients with cochlear implant are at risk for

S. pneumo meningitis

303

these vasopressin receptors are in kidney and have antidiuretic effect

V2

304

X linked dominant disorder thats most common urea cycle defec

ornithin transcarbamylase deficiency

305

CNS changes in pompes

anterior horn cells of spinal cord and brainstem nuclei

306

1 tailed test can be used when only one direction of association is ___

clinically relevant

307

increased cGMP and cAMP cause pulm constriction or dilation?

dilation via inhibiting Ca mobilization from SR

308

defect in CD18, lack of beta 2 integrins occurs in what disorder

leukocyte adhesion deficiency

309

this interacts with guanylate cyclase to increase cGMP to reduce cytosolic Ca

NO

310

tx for metHb

methylene blue to stimulate NADPH reductase

311

this is associated with reduced stroke in sickle cell

regular exchange transfusion

312

this is a 5-HT2a agonist that is a hallucinogen that causes increased CK, fever, death

N-BOME

313

formula for resistance

R = (8nl)/(pie r^4)

314

hypertonia, seizures, coma, no lactate, no ammonia, urine ppt with DNPH

MSUD

315

dose of vasopressin for hemodynamic effects

0.0003 to 0.002 mcg/kg/min

316

x descent

decline in atrial pressure during systole

317

anion gap acidosis with high lactate and abnormal organic acids

organic acidemia like MMA, Prop acidemia, isovaleric

318

immunoparalysis

reduction of HLA-DR expression on circulating monocytes and decreased ability to make TNF-alpha for five or more days

319

this type of RTA is lack of urinary acidifcation despite acidosis

type I (distal) RTA

320

linear regression is for ___ outcomes

continuous

321

RBBB and ST elevation in anterior leads

brugada syndrome

322

which factors mediate hypoxic vasodilation in brain

NO, adenosine, K channels

323

expiratory lung volume is the volume at which ___ begins

inspiration

324

tx for the ESCAPE organisms

aminoglycoside/quinolone

325

decreased arterial oxygen content causes ___ (inc or dec_ autoregulated coronary flow

increaesd

326

MAP =

diastolic pressure + 1/3 (pulse pressure) and CO x SVR

327

transient htn with dexmed is via ____

peripheral alpha 1 stimulation

328

Cardiac index =

CO/BSA

329

hyperammonemia without acidosis

urea cycle defect

330

SVR =

(MAP-CVP)/CO x 80

331

mechanism of cocaine

inhibits reuptake of norep, dopamine presynaptically

332

how does prostacycline cause vasodilation

increasing cAMP, activating K channels, increasing NO production

333

a 10 meq/L change in base excess means

0.15 unit change in pH

334

y descent

opening of tricuspid valve, emptying into ventricle

335

color of superficial partial thickness burn

pink

336

person is awake on eeg

beta wave |

337

this type of herniation leads to contralateral leg paralysis

subfalcine herniation

338

where are glomeruli located

renal cortex which gets 90% of blood flow

339

2,3 DPG production is increased by

hypoxemia, thus shifting curve to R making oxygen more available

340

Qp/Qs =

(Cao-Cra)/(Cpv-Cpa)

341

for each increase in bicarb by 10, pH increases by

0.15

342

which factor during CPR predicts cerebral blood flow

systolic blood pressure

343

VO2 indirect calorimetry

Vi(FiO2) - Ve(FeCO2); can be fraught with error if there are leaks

344

these changes will cause an increase in slope of the venous return curve without changes Pms

decrease in SVR, anemia because resistance is decreased

345

in hypovolemic (zone II) conditions an increase in abdominal pressure with diaphragm descent caused a ____ in venous return

decrease (non splanchnic blood flow is inhibited); splanchnic flow increases

346

what infection is associated with strep TSS

varicella

347

TLR4 recognizes ____

LPS

348

AA increased in MSUD

leucine, isoleucine, valine

349

aminoglycosides, flagyl, fluoroquinolones are time dependent/concentration dependent for killing

concentration dependent

350

what inhibits interaction of actin and myosin during relaxation

TnI and tropomyosin, until Ca rises causing conf change in TnI and tropomyosin to facilitate actin and myosin cross bridging

351

chelate lead if level is over ___

45

352

electrolyte effect of cisplatin

low mg

353

lesions of eye and optic nerve will show bilateral/unilateral lack of constriction when shone at effected eye

bilateral

354

sinopuulm infections with encapsulated bacteria, increased malignancy risk, low T and low Ab levels

ataxia teleangiectasia

355

when is fasciotomy indicated in compartment syndrome

when pressures are over 40

356

central cord syndrome

loss of pain and temp in cape like distribution, possible bowel and bladder

357

this drug blocks Na-K ATPase in sarcolemma leading to increased Ca intracellularly

digoxin

358

v wave

blood returning to LA/RA

359

half life transferrin

8

360

this med is anti CD20

rituximab

361

area of liver that participates in drug metabolism that is most vulnerable to hypoxic ischemic injury and drug toxicity

zone 3

362

pH goal in GI bleed

over 6

363

in uncal herniation is symp or parasymp innervation to ipsilateral pupil effected

parasymp

364

EKG signs hypocalcemia

prolonged QT

365

cardiac transplant leads to loss of ___ input of heart

vagal input

366

mechanism of class IV antiarrythmic

block Ca channels

367

risks of cerebral edema DKA

young, 1st episode, lower CO2, high BUN, got bicarb, got insulin bolus

368

equation for filtration fraction

FF = GFR/RPF

369

hyperammonemia without acidosis, orotic acid not elevated, citrulline not elevated

THAN

370

equation for venous return

(Pms-Pra)/Rv; Rv is resistance to venous return

371

ptosis/miosis/anhidrosis (horners) seen in high or low cerical injury

high

372

this replaces gent in renal insufficiency

aztreonam

373

alpha receptors on coronaries cause __

vasoconstriction, beta cause vasodilation

374

large v waves seen in

tricuspid regurg, ebsteins

375

drug is eliminated as a fixed percentage over time

first order

376

spinal cord injury with ischemia to anterior spinal artery can occur after ____ repair

coarct

377

aspirated fresh water leads to ___

atelectasis

378

parkland formula

4 ml x % burned x weight (kg)

379

prolonged R time in TEG

need clotting factors like FFP

380

how is CO determined with PA catheter

thermodilution, inversely related to AUC

381

FRC is the volume at which lung recoil inward is balanced by chest recoil ___

outward

382

this may be helpful in propionic acidemia

biotin

383

this drug inhibits PDE-5 which normally degrades cGMP

sildenafil

384

whats mechanism of glucocorticoid anti-inflammatory response

inhibition of NF-kB

385

which steroid has the highest antiinflammatory effects

dexamethasone first, solumedrol medium, hydrocortisone lowest, mineralocorticoid effects are the reverse

386

extended upper extremities posturing is called

decerebrate, comes after decorticate

387

this type of metabolic seizure d/o has spike and burst suppression pattern on EEG

pyridoxine dependent seizures

388

these provide the pacemaker activity of the gut

cells of cajal

389

pro inflammatory innate cytokines

Il-1B, TNF alpha

390

antidote for beta blocker overdose

glucagon; activates cAMP

391

most common bacteria causing pericarditis

S. aureus

392

what atrial wave becomes more prominent during a fib

c wave

393

this controls quality of saliva, this controls amount

symp, parsymp

394

AV valve regurg causes a large ___ wave

v

395

infection that occurs with C1, C2, C3, C4 defect

encapsulated organisms

396

logistic regression is for __ outcomes

dichotomous (yes/no)

397

th1 cell are pro or anti inflammatory

pro

398

order of CVP waveform waves

acxvy

399

normal values of O2ER

0.2 to 0.3

400

wall stress =

(pressure x radius)/wall thickness

401

can you administer ABO incompatible plt?

yes, plasma washed out

402

units of VO2

ml O2/min

403

definition of increased PVR in woods units

over 3

404

in malrotation the dudoenal-jejunal junction is to the ___ of the spine, 4th portion of duod doesnt cross midline

right

405

sensory innervation above vocal cords is ___ , below is ____

superior laryngeal, recurrent laryngeal

406

downregulation of HLA-DR less than 30% or less than 8000 molecules per cell with decreased TNF alpha production is definition of ____

immunoparalyzed monocyte

407

whats the difference between CIM and CIP

CIM has stretch reflexes and intact proprioception, vibration, sensation

408

c wave

bowing of AV valves from ventricular contraction

409

tx for children with multiple carboxylase deficiency

biotin

410

posterior spinal cord is responsible for...

proprioception, vibratory sensation

411

hydrostatic forces favor fluid flow OUT/IN to the interstium

IN

412

slowing wave on eeg

theta

413

gastric phase of emptying mediated by

gastrin on parietal cells of stomach antrum

414

imipenem has strong association with ____

seizures

415

how are beta lactam excreted

renal, except PCN/CTX

416

tx for C. albicans

fluconazole

417

this enzyme breaks down cAMP which decreases cytosolic Ca and decreases muscle contraction

PDE III

418

urine sodium is ___ in hepatorenal

low

419

drugs of choice for tetanus

benzos, tetanus immuno glob, PCN

420

when does GFR reach adult levels

age 2

421

this percentange of total airway resistance is found between the nose and larynx

40-50%

422

necrotizing arteritis seen post coaractectomy

mesenteric arteritis |

423

lower MAC means weaker/stronger anesthetic?>

stronger

424

saturation in metHb

will be 85% because it absorbs light equally at 660 and 940 (pulsatile blood and reference tissue)

425

units of CaO2

ml O2 per dL of blood

426

this is most common type of ASD

ostium secundum

427

brief upstroke followed by two systolic peaks seen in aortic regurg and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

pulsus bisfiriens

428

energy reverses/does not reverse metablic stress response

does not

429

ammonia scavengers to treat urea cycle defects

sodium benzoate, sodium phenylacetate

430

AA needed for gluconeogenesis

ala, glutamine

431

which has more CNS depression, more muscle rigidity, and is the only one that has bradykinesia, serotonin syndrome or NMS

NMS

432

infection with MAC defect

n men

433

anion gap metabolic acidosis from ketones, no hypoglycemia

disorder of ketolysis

434

brown sequard syndrome

loss of voluntary motor function and proprioception on ipsilateral side, loss of pain, temp, tactile sense on contralateral side

435

anesthetic agents with low blood gas partition coefficient (less soluble in blood) have faster/slower induction rates

faster

436

when focal vascular injury occurs from infection the initial response is

vasodilation

437

TLR2 recognizes ____

peptidoglycan of bacteria/viruses

438

half life prealbumin

2

439

this drug can uncouple hypoxic vasoconstriction leading to increased pulmonary shunting

nipride

440

high protein binding means low/high Vd

low

441

neonates have fewer ___ fibers in diaphragm (slow contracting, long sustaining fibers)

type I fibers

442

adenosine 1 receptors cause afferent ___ and adenosine 2 receptors cause efferent___

constriction, dilation

443

pro inflammatory Th cells

Th1

444

respiratory alkalosis leads to ___ ionized calcium

low

445

when cardiac output is decreased there is an increase in which west zone condition?

zone I where PA>Pa>Pv

446

what causes decreased vital capacity in duchennes

kyphoscoliosis

447

half life RBP

12 hours

448

diving reflex

apnea causes decreased HR and increased SVR to maintain perfusion and reducing oxygen consumption

449

sickle Hb has____ O2 affinity, ____ p50

lower, higher

450

afferent limb of gag reflex is CN _, afferent is CN _

9,10

451

hyperammonemia without acidosis, orotic acid not elevated, citrulline elevated

CPS or NAGS deficiency

452

drug is eliminated slower as levels rise

michaelis mentin or capacity limited elimination

453

tx for htn in PIGN

fluid restriction and diurects because htn is from Na and H2o overload

454

which factor mediates hypercapneic vasodilation in brain

NO

455

name and order of atrial waves

a,c,v

456

color of deep partial thickness burn

white

457

this drug is a calcium channel blocker that prevents Ca movement from SR to cytosol to produce arteriolar vasodilation

nicardipine

458

greatest infectious risk in blood transfusion

gram negative bacteria

459

thyroid studies in sick euthyroid

normal T4, low T3, normal TSH

460

which has a lower sat at baseline, SVC or IVC

SVC due to cerebral extraction

461

hyperammonemia without acidosis, orotic acid elevated

OTC deficiency

462

neuroleptics cause NMS via blockade of what receptor

D2

463

this occurs in 25% of patients with HIV and has clubbing, HSM, diffuse reticulonodular pattern on CXR

lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis

464

this is the antidote for Fe toxicity

deferoxamine, turns urine red

465

neonatal myocardium is dependent on Ca from ___

extracellular source, NOT SR

466

__ causes airway irritation, ___ causes hypotension/arrhythmias, ___ causes renal injury/hepatic injury (inhalational anesthetics)

iso, halo, sevo

467

lesions of eye and optic nerve will show bilateral/unilateral constriction when shone at unaffected eye

bilateral

468

whats the only agent that can be used to anticoagulated if there is HIT

argatroban (direct thrombin inhibitor)

469

mechanism of class I antiarrythmic

block Na channels

470

the recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates the entire larynx except the ___

cricothyroid muscle

471

random cortisol during stress less than ___ is consistent with adrenal insufficiency

18

472

does atropine reverse nicotinc or muscarinic effects

muscarininc

473

whats better for hyperammonemia, CRRT or HD

CRRT

474

antidote to calcineurin inhibitor toxicity

aminophylline (dilates afferent arteriole to counteract tacro constricting it)

475

diagnosis test for CGD

cytochrome c reductase or nitroblue tetrazolium test

476

which occurs faster, serotonin syndrome or NMS

serotonin

477

a 2 sided hypothesis states that an association exists but does not specify the ___ of the association

direction

478

organophosphates bind irreversibly with ___

acetylcholinesterase |

479

what is 1 cm H20 in mm Hg

1.36 mm Hg

480

lesions above ___ can cause spinal shock due to loss of sympathetic outflow

T6

481

Mean airway pressure =

((TixPIP) + (TexPEEP)/(Ti+Te)

482

calculated osmolarity

(na x 2) + (glucose/18) + (BUN/2.8)

483

which part of lung has more negative pressure during both spontaneous respiration and PPV?

the apex of the lung

484

early post op htn in coarct is ___, late is ____

systolic, diastolic

485

pro inflammatory adaptive cytokines

IL-2, IFN gamma

486

this metabolic disease has smell of sweaty feet

isovaleric aciduria

487

low serum Mg causes impairment of ___ leading to K leak out of cells and low K

Na-K ATPase

488

intestinal phase of empyting mediated by

somatostatin, CCK which decrease parietal cell secetion of acid, secretin, GLP-1

489

this drug stimulates guanylate cyclase to increase cGMP, protein kinase to decrease Ca influx and cause vasodilation

NO

490

this is a plateau wave that indicates cerebral non compliance

lundberg a waves

491

this starts process of DIC

tissue factor and extrinsic pathway

492

the flow of gas from alveoli with long time constants to those with short time constants at the end of exhalation; in inspiration it goes from short time constants to long

pendelluft movement

493

case control study is good for a ___ outcome

rare

494

hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, hepatomegaly, ketones in urine, normal ammonia

glycogen storage disease type I

495

tx for PTLD

reduce immunosuppresion

496

this is a severe congenital neutropenia with infections with S aureus, psuedomonas

kostmann syndrome

497

this is the best Cu chelator for wilsons disease

Zn

498

failure to make B cells, mutation in tyrosine kinase, recurrent sinopulm infections

x linked agammaglobulinemia

499

which increases faster from apex to base of lung, ventilation or perfusion

perfusion

500

this binds cytochrome oxidase and interferes with electron transport

CO

501

whats byproduct of conversion of arginine to citrulline

NO

502

which is more common in liver transplant, portal vein clot or hepatic artery clot

hepatic artery clot

503

these vasopressin receptors cause ACTH release

V1b

504

most common infectious cause hepatic failure children

hep A

505

greatest risk of infection in plt transfusion

gram positive bacteria

506

which type of TSS is more likely to have positive blood culture and has higher mortality

strep TSS

507

antidote to organophosphate poisoning

pralidoxime which causes reactivation of acetylcholinesterase, can also give atropine

508

this is essential for oxidation of fatty acids and disposes of toxic acyl-coa compounds

carnitine

509

initial therapy for stroke in sickle cell

exchange transfusion

510

tx of tyrosinemia type I

NTBC

511

HIV diagnosis less than 18 months

2 positive PCRs

512

this type of herniation leads to loss of upward gaze and pinpoint minimally reactive pupils from loss of sympathetic input

upward tentorial hernation

513

this is high amplitude and irregular waves and spikes on EKG

hypsarrythmia, seen in infantile spasm

514

risk of type I error

p value

515

what does a 2/3 change in base excess do to pH

change by 0.01 (so a pH change of 0.03 would have a base excess change of 2)

516

effect of sympathetic nervous system on insulin/glucagon

inhibits insulin release, stimulates glucagon

517
EKG in dilated cardiomyopathy shows what two changes
LAE, LVH
518
avoid rasburicase in what condition
G6PD
519
cyanide antidote
hydroxocobalamin which forms cyanocobalamin which is excreted in urine; also amyl nitrite and sodium nitrite which lead to formation of MetHb, sodium thiosulfate which converts CN to thiocyanate which can be excreted
520
transverse myelitis
fever, sensory level, bowel/bladder dysfunction
521
vasopressin does not constrict these circulations
coronary, pulmonary
522
most sensitive test for Fe deficiency
low ferritin