PID Exam 2 Flashcards
(121 cards)
1
Q
What type of virus infects multiple organs or tissues?
A
Systemic virus
2
Q
What’s the difference between national, reference, and sentinel labs?
A
National labs: handle highly infectious agents and highlight specific strains
Reference labs: Detect and confirm the detecion of a threat and ensure timely response
Sentinel labs: Direct contact with patients i.e. on the frontline
3
Q
What are the two main viruses that affect the gastrointestinal tract by destroying the microvilli?
A
Rotavirus and parvovirus
4
Q
The mechanism of disease development is called __________.
A
Pathogenesis
5
Q
Which committee is responsible for maintaining a universal virus taxonomy?
A
International committee on taxonomy and viruses
6
Q
What are the three levels of infectious disease prevention?
A
- Primary: avoid occurance
- Secondary: minimize damage
- Tertiary: rehabilitation
7
Q
What are the 6 steps in viral pathogenesis?
A
- Entry and replication
- Spread/infection
- Virus cell interactions
- Injury
- Shedding
- Trophy (increase in numbers)
8
Q
If an infection spreads beyond it primary site it is a _______ infection
A
Disseminated
9
Q
What type of peptide can be found on all nucleated cells?
A
MHC I
10
Q
What two structures can a virus be?
A
Polyhedral
and
helical
11
Q
What are chemical germicides formulated to use on inanimate objects called?
A
Disinfectants
12
Q
What kind of viruses can cause cancer?
A
Oncoviruses
13
Q
What are the four ways we can break the chain of infection?
A
- Reservoir neutralization
- Reduce contact potential through isolation and quarantine
- Protection of portals of entry (i.e. PPE)
- Increase host resistance through chemoprophylaxis and immunization
14
Q
What type of parasites are viruses?
A
Obligate intracellular
15
Q
If a virus is avirulent, it is _____ to the host.
A
Not harmful
16
Q
What is a capsid made up of?
A
Capsomeres
17
Q
What are the 5 methods of sterilization?
A
- Moist heat
- Dry heat
- Chemical methods
- Radiation
- Filtration
18
Q
When the Th1 response increases and the Th2 reponse decreases, what kind of phenotype are we dealing with?
A
Resistant phenotype
19
Q
If a virus wanted to escape the adaptive immune system, what could it do?
What if the virus wanted to avoid it?
A
Escape:
- Antigen drift- Point mutation
- Antigen shift-
a. Reassortment of genome
b. Recombination of genome
Avoid:
- Block presentation to MHC I
- Locate to a safe spot
- Apotosis of lymphocytes through secretion of immunosuppressive proteins
20
Q
What are 4 ways in which viruses can be prevented/controlled?
A
Biological control
Chemical control
Quarantine
Culling
21
Q
What do teratogenic viruses cause?
A
Developmental defects of embryo or fetus after utero ejection
22
Q
What is crucial to the maintenance and transmittance of a virus to continue causing infection?
A
Shedding of virus from host
23
Q
Whats the most important way to prevent the spread of infection?
When should this be done?
A
Hand hygeine
Before/After:
Each patient
Eating/Drinking/Smoking/Bathroom
Entering/leaving room
Taking off gloves
24
Q
What is Herd Health Management?
A
Method to optimize health, welfare, and production in animal population through analysis of data and regular objective observations of animals and environment, such that, informed timely decisions are made to adjust/improve herd management over time.
25
Endogenous antigens bind to ________ and present on cell surface, while exogenous antigens bind to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
MCH I (MHC I Restriction)
MCH II (MHC II Restriction)
26
How can viruses be detected?
Which tests can be utilized?
Gross Evaluation ( clinical signs, necropsy, histopathology)
Cultivation of in culture/ Innoculation in Egg
Electron microscopy
Serology ( ELISA, Fluorescent antigen and immunohistochemical staining)
PCR
Genome Sequencing
27
What is sentinel surveillance?
Using animals to monitor presence of vector-borne disease
28
What are the 5 ways bacteria can evade the innate immune response?
1. Evade antimicrobial peptides
2. Impairment tracheal clearance (coughing)
3. Adhesion/penetration of epithelial barriers
4. Evade phagocytosis
5. Evade complement
29
What are the 5 innate immune responses to a pathogen?
1. Constitutional factors
2. Natural barriers
3. Cytokines/ interferons
4. Phagocytosis
5. Complement
30
What is a latent period?
Period where a microbe is replicating in host, but not enough for the host to be infectious.
31
What are the 5 essential components of a surveillance system?
1. Disease reporting
2. Laboratory investigation
3. Analysis/communication
4. Information management
5. Data and sample collection
32
What type of prevention relies on early diagnosis prompt treatment and control?
Secondary
33
Decontamination
Term used to describe a process or treatment to describe that renders a medical device, instrument or surface safe to handle
34
Airborne infections are considered direct or indirect?
Direct
35
Whats does GLEWS mean and which organizations collaberate with it?
Global early warning system for major animal disease including zoonoses
In collaberation with the FAO, OIE and WHO
36
The ability of a virus to cause disease in a host is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Pathogenicity
37
What does all-in or all-out mean?
Between batches of animals the areas are cleaned and disinfected
38
Whats the difference between naked viruses and enveloped viruses?
Naked viruses have no lipid layer enclosing the protein capsid and the nucleic acid
39
What type of cells are APCs? Which peptide must present them?
Macrophages, dendritic cells and B cells
MHC II
40
What's the difference between an infectious disease and an infestation?
Infectious disease is caused by an infestation and an infestation is an invasion but not multiplication of an organism
41
What are the three ways to treat a virus?
Antiviral drugs
Immune system stimulation
Administration of natural serum/ antibodies
42
What are the four determinants of the emergence of a disease?
1. **Pathogen:** Type of agent; mutation/change
2. **Reservoir:** phylogenetic distance
3. **Host:** Susceptibility
4. **Transmission:** reservoir size; pathogen prevalence; contact frequency
43
What class of peptide presents antigens to CD4 T helper cells?
MHC II
44
If a known disease suddenly appears in a new population it's known as a(n) ________ disease
Emerging
45
What is the order that PPE equipment should be put on and taken off?
**_Putting on:_**
Gown
Mask
Eye wear
Gloves
**_Removing:_**
Gloves
Eyewear
Gown
Mask
46
What are the complications due to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Damage to blood vessel wall
Clots in blood vessels
Major organs not getting blood supply
Failing organs
Hemorrhaging
47
**True or False**: Infection = disease = infectivity
False; ill animals, which are probably infectious, act as reservoirs but some asymptomatic animals also act as reservoirs
48
What are the six steps in virus replication?
1. Attachment
2. Penetration
3. Uncoating
4. Synthesis of viral nucleic acid and protein
5. Assembly and maturation
6. Release in large numbers
49
What are the three steps in which a disease can be controlled?
1. Quarantine
2. Disinfection
3. Culling of host
50
In order to measure the lethal dose of a virulence but what percentage of animals must be killed?
50%
51
What's the definition of pleomorphism?
The ability of some viruses to alter their shape or size
52
What does virulence mean?
Quantitaive or relative measure of the degree of the affecting virus
53
Which three questions must you answer yes to when classifying a reservoir?
1. Is it naturally infected with the pathogen?
2. Can it maintain the pathogen over time?
3. Can the source transmit the disease to a new susceptible host?
54
Intensive shedding would cause an _______ infection; whereas, a nonintensive shedding would cause a _______ infection.
Acute; persistent
55
What are some of the deadliest diseases that have caused epidemics?
Which is the only disease that has been eradicated?
Plague
**Rinderpest**
Rabies
FIP
Blue tongue
56
What are the five things HHM optimizes?
Health Status
Quality/safety of products
Productivity
Profitability
Animal welfare
57
What is the function of class I MHC peptides?
Presents antigen to cytotoxic CD8 T cells
58
What happens to the Th1 and the Th2 response in a suscpetible phenotype?
Th2 response increases
Th1 response decreases
59
Label the following image:
**A.** Free areas
**B.** Vaccination zone
**C.** Infected premises
**D.** Infected zone
**E.** Buffer
**F.** Control area (infected zone + buffer zone)
**G.** Surveillance zone
60
What are the 6 ways viruses can damage the CNS?
1. Lytic infections of neurons
2. Neuronal necrosis
3. Neuronalphagia
4. Perivascular cuffing
5. Progessive demylenation
6. Neuronal vaculation
61
How can bacteria evade phagocyte function? (3 ways)
Paralysis
Playing hard to get - capsule
Diversion to non-productive use - cleave C3b
62
Are CD4 T cells MHC I or MHC II restricted?
MHC II
63
What do immunodeficiency viruses do?
Cause immunosuppression by infecting and destroying different but specific cells of the immune system
64
What are the 7 ways a bacterium can evade adaptive immunity?
Antigenic variation
Apoptosis and lysis of lymphocytes
Inhibit lymphocyte proliferation
Superantigens
Effects on cytokine expression
Subversion of T regulatory cells
Degredation of immunoglobulins
65
What are the four characteristics that make vaccination useful?
1. Its role
2. Quality
3. Delivery
4. Sufficient quantity
66
What do we call the time elapsed between infection and when clinical symptoms first appear?
Incubation period
67
Herd Health Management is _______ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Preventative; holistic
68
What leads to the control of a disease?
Breaking the chain of infection at any point
69
What causes disease transmission?
Interaction of the host, agent, or environment
70
What are we doing if we are inhibiting the introduction or establishment of a disease into a herd, individual, or area?
Preventing infectious disease
71
What surface do glycoproteins appear on as spikes?
An envelope
72
What are the three types of decontamination and what are their definitions?
1. Sterilization: all or nothing
2. Disinfection: Kills everything except bacterial spores on inanimate objects
3. Antisepsis: destroys microorganisms on living tissue
73
A disease transmitted from one organism to another via a direct or airborne route is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Contagious disease
74
**True or False:** Viruses cannot make energy or proteins by themselves
True
75
A neurotopic virus can infect which type of cell?
Neuro cells
76
What are the 4 factors related to host susceptibility to pathogen?
Species
Immunity
Physiological state
Fever
77
If a resevoir host passes a pathogen onto it's offspring, this is know as _________ transmission. If a resevoir host passes a pathogen onto a new host, this is called ________ transmission.
Vertical
Horizonal
78
What are the four 'W's of immunization?
1. **Where:** Population in endemic areas
2. **When:** Seasonal diseases
3. **Who:** Population at risk
4. **Why:** por que
79
What are the 5 ways bacteria can evade complement killing?
1. Activate masking substances
2. Inhibit activation to surface
3. Cover up target of membrane attack complex (MAC)
4. Inactivate complement chemotaxin C5a
5. Activate surface of plasminogen to plasmin and cleave C3b
80
If a disease was previously unknown and suddenly appears in a population it is called a _________ disease
Emerging
81
Label each fill in the blank:
A. Major epizootics "listed" diseases
B. Other major diseases and zoonoses
C. Endemic diseases
D. Eradication
E. Control
F. Prevention
82
What is the definition of viremia?
Presence of virus in the blood
83
What are the factors that the virulence of a virus depends upon?
Its genetic variation
Route of entry
Affinity to host
Dose
Immunoevasion
84
If a virus can replicate in multiple organs of the host its called a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Pantropic virus
85
**Define:** Tropism
The specificty/affinity of a virus for a particular host tissue
86
Whats the protein coat surrounding viruses called?
Capsid
87
What type of cell serves as a critical bridge between innate and adaptive immune responses?
Dendritic cells
88
A virus that enters the central nervous system after infecting a peripheral site is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A neuroinvasive virus
89
What are the three ways a vector can be controlled?
1. Chemical
2. Biological
3. Source reduction
90
What are three ways a reservoir can be neutralized?
1. Remove infected individuals
2. Mass therapy
3. Environmental manipulation
91
How big should the perimeter be for each of the following zones?
A. Infected zone
B. Buffer zone
C. Control area
D. Surveillance zone
A. 3km
B. 7km
C. 10km
D. 10km
92
What are the three ways a virus can escape the adaptive immune system?
1. Antigenic drift: Point mutation
2. Antigenic shift: Reassortment
3. Antigenic shift: Recombination
93
How is cell lysis and apoptosis different?
**Cell lysis:** viral replication is complete and lysis of cells releases virions
**Apoptosis:** cell suicide and does not release virions
94
What is a virus wrapped with?
Protein
95
**True or False:** Viruses possess mitochondria, chloroplasts, golgi, and endoplasmic reticulum
False
96
After being phagocytized,what can bacteria do to evade the phagocytes function? (5)
Murder it
Resist it's lysozomal enzymes
Inhibit phagosome-lysozome fusion
Inhibit oxidative killing
Escape from phagosome into cytoplasm
97
What is a fomite?
Object that can be contaminated and can transmit disease on a limited scale
98
Humoral and cell mediated are what types of immune responses?
Adaptive
99
Viruses that cause disease of nervous tissue are called ________ viruses
neurovirulent
100
What does DIVA stand for?
Differentiating infected from vaccinated animals
101
What type of MHC is only found on APCs?
MHC II
102
What causes communicable diseases?
Caused by an agent capable of transmission by direct airborne indirect biological or inanimate reservoirs
103
A capside + a virus nucleic acid = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Nucleocapsid
104
What are the three types of vaccines?
Vaccines produced by recombinant DNA
Non-replicating virus vaccines
Live-attenuated virus vaccines
105
What are the three reasons why studying veterinary virology is important?
1. Zoonotic diseases
2. Financial loss
3. High rates of mortility
106
What are the 11 OIE guidelines in establishing animal disease control program?
1. Rationale for establishing a program
2. Setting up goals/objectives
3. Program planning
4. Implementation
5. Diagnostic capability
6. Vaccination and other control measures
7. Traceability
8. Regional cooperation
9. Social participation
10. Role of research in support of disease control program
11. Training and capacity building
107
What is it called when pathogens cause chronic infections with minimal symptoms?
Balance pathogenicity
108
When would we use the word **control** when talking about disease?
If an infectious disease is already present, the containment of that disease is called **control.**
109
All the measures a farmer takes to minimize the risk of introduction and spread of disease is know as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Which two types are there?
Farm Biosecurity
External and Internal
110
What are the four impacts a virus can have on a host cell?
Cell death
Malignant cell
Fuse cells
No apparent changes (aka chronic infection)
111
If a pathogen is replicating in a host, but the host is not symptomatic yet, what period is this?
Incubation period
112
How are viruses classified?
Morphology
Replication strategies
Nature of genome
113
If a significant amount of the herd has been vaccinated and provides a lower chance of the unvaccinated animals becoming infected, this is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Herd immunity
114
What is the definition of a re-emerging disease?
**Known** disease **previously on the decline** that is **becoming more common** and will continue to do so
115
What are the 6 components of chain of infection?
What can we do in the chain of infection to stop disease?
1. Pathogenic Microorganism
2. Reservoir
3. Means of Escape through sneeze/cough/feces/urine
4. Mode of Transmission
5. Exposure of host
6. Susceptibility of host
Interrupt the chain of infection at any point
116
Which cells are included in ADCC?
NK cells
macrophages
neutrophils
eosinophils
117
Can asymptomatic animals act as resevoirs?
Are all sick animals resevoirs?
YES=carriers
NO
118
What are the different subgroups of horizonal pathogen transmission?
**Direct:**
Projection
Contact
**Indirect**:
Vechicle
Vector
119
If the chemical composition of virus nucleic acids is DNA and RNA, which types of DNA and RNA?
Single and double stranded
120
A bacterium, virus, or other microorganism that can cause disease is called a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Pathogen
121
Initial entry of a virus into blood through subepithelial tissue/lymphatics or direct injection is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. When the virus starts replicating in multiple organs and then entered the blood again, _______ is occuring.
Primary Viremia
Secondary Viremia
