Piedmont Flashcards

(57 cards)

0
Q

What is the max indicated airspeed a reciprocating engine powered airplane can operate within class B?

A

250 knots

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1
Q

Define V2

A

Takeoff safety speed

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2
Q

A pilot approaching to land a turbine powered airplane on a runway with VASI….

A

Maintain an attitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

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3
Q

Assuming that all ILS components are operating & the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon

A

Arrival at the DH on the glide slope

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4
Q

What action should be taken when a pilot is “cleared for the approach”, while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?

A

Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published segment

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5
Q

If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies “No Pt” the pilot should

A

Not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC

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6
Q

What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach?

A

Last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of an approach with altitudes

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7
Q

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?

A

At the DH the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or when visual reference is lost

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8
Q

After experiencing two way radio communication failure enroute, when can you descend for an instrument approach?

A

Upon arrival at the initial approach fix (but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC)

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9
Q

When can you descend for an instrument approach, when holding at the initial approach fix, after losing two way radio communication?

A

Flight plan ETA as amended by ATC

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10
Q

Under what conditions (may an air carrier) continue an instrument approach to the DH after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?

A

When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach

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11
Q

What are some characteristics of AFT CG?

A

Lower stall speed, high cruise speed, less stable

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12
Q

Blue radial line on airspeed indicator (light twin) indicates…

A

Max single engine rate of climb

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13
Q

What effect does altitude have on Vmc (unsupercooled engines)

A

Decreases with altitude

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14
Q

Definition of viscous hydro planing is where?

A

A film of moisture covers the painted or rubber coated portion of the runway

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15
Q

What is the advantage of the 3 bar VASI?

A

Normal glide angle for high or low cockpit

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16
Q

What type information is disseminated by NOTAM?

A

Status of navigation aids, ILS, radar service available

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17
Q

What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance provide when “cleared as filed”

A

Destination airport, enroute altitude SID

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18
Q

When is a “void time” specified in the clearance?

A

Uncontrolled airport

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19
Q

What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit, with no further clearance?

A

Start speed reduction to holding speed to prepare for holding

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20
Q

What report should the pilot make at the clearance limit?

A

Time & altitude, and arriving or leaving flight level

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21
Q

What does minimum fuel mean to ATC?

A

Emergency could occur if undue delay

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22
Q

Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?

A

Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound, and missed approach

23
Q

While being radar vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to the published Altitude?

A

Only when approach (ATC) says “cleared for the approach”

24
What should you do when visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach
Climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course
25
Which rule of thumb is used to estimate the 3 degree glide path rate of descent?
5 times ground speed in knots
26
When is the course deviation CDI full scale deflection?
When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full scale left or right
27
When cleared to execute a published side step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
Runway environment is in sight as soon as possible
28
When do you commence this maneuver when cleared to execute a published side step maneuver for a specific approach & landing on a parallel runway?
As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight
29
SDF versus ILS localizer
SDF 6 degrees or 12 wide vs ILS 3 to 6 degrees
30
How does the LDA differ from ILS localizer?
LDA offset from runway +3 vs ILS aligned with runway
31
What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave ?
Rotor cloud
32
Which type of clouds are very strong turbulence?
Standing lenticular
33
Characteristics of a ground based inversion?
Poor visibility
34
Temperature inversion characteristic
A stable layer of air
35
If a pilot forgets to set the altimeter on a descent from 29.92 at FL270 to 30.57 & field elevation is 650: it will indicate _____ on landing?
Sea level
36
Where is max hazard zone caused by windshear associated with a Thunderstorm?
On all sides & directly under the cell
37
What is the feature of supercooled water?
The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object
38
Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that
There is a warmer layer above
39
What type of service is expected from enroute flight advisory service?
Weather advisories, intended route of flight & altitude
40
METAR KMAF 1317562 02020KT 12SM BKN 025 OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44
Rain ended 16 minutes before the hour
41
The prevailing visibility in the METAR is....
Less than 1/4 statute mile
42
Isobars on the surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure
Reduced to sea level
43
A severe thunderstorm surface winds are
50 knots or greater & 3/4 inch hail in diameter
44
Windshear characteristic is
A wind shift or wind speed gradient at any level (altitude)
45
Windshear cockpit indications, when a headwind shears to a calm wind?
Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, altitude decreases
46
Which condition would initially cause the indicated airspeed & pitch to increase & sink rate to decrease?
Sudden increase in headwind component
47
What initial cockpit indications occur when constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?
Altitude, pitch, & indicated airspeed increase
48
Which flight controls of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?
Heavy, slow, gear & flaps up
49
What effect would a light crosswind have on wingtip vortices by a large jet that just took off?
Upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than downwind vortex
50
What effect does alcohol consumption have on the body?
Alcohol has an adverse effect as altitude increases
51
What type aircraft?
44 deHavilland DHC-8 turbo prop aircraft
52
Founded by
Richard Henson in 1931
53
Headquarters
Salisbury, Maryland
54
Employees
450 pilots 210 mechanics 240 flight attendants
55
Management: president/CEO, flight operations, customer relations, maintenance/ engineering
Stephen farrow, Michael scrobola, Eric Morgan, William Arndt
56
Routes & locations
``` Bangor, Maine Rochester, ny Akron, oh Ric, Orf, Newport News, Charlottesville, Roanoke Virginia Chattanooga & Knoxville tn Huntsville Alabama Tallahassee fl Harrisburg & Allentown, pa ```