Pilot's Cafe Flashcards
(101 cards)
1
Q
When is an instrument rating required?
A
- When acting as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions less than VFR. (61.3)
- When carrying passengers for compensation or hire on xc flights in excess of 50 NM or at night. (61.133)
- For flight in Class A airspace (90.135)
- For special VRF between sunset and sunrise (91.157)
2
Q
To act as PIC, when is a flight review required?
A
A flight review is required since the beginning of the 24 calendar months before the month of the flight in an aircraft for which the pilot is rated. Consists of minimum 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour of ground training. Conducted by an authorized instructor.
The flight review can be substituted for:
- A proficiency check or practical pilot test for a pilot certificate, rating or operating privilege (conducted by an approved examiner, pilot check airman, or US Armed Force).
- A practical test, conducted by an examiner, for flight instructor certificate, additional rating, renewal or reinstatement.
- Completion of one or more phases of the FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency award program (WINGS).
- Flight instructor renewal under part 61.197 exempts the pilot from the ground portion of the flight review.
3
Q
When may a pilot log instrument time? When may an instructor log instrument time?
A
A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.
An authorized instructor my log instrument time when conducting instrument flight instruction in actual instrument flight conditions.
4
Q
To carry passengers as PIC, a pilot must have
A
- 3 takeoffs and landings in category, class and type in the last 90 days.
- at periods between 1 hr after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise: 3 takeoffs and landings to full stop within 1 hr after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise
5
Q
To act as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums for VFR
A
6HITS - within 6 calendar months preceding the month of flight:
- 6 instrument approaches
- Holding procedures & tasks.
- Intercepting and Tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems.
6
Q
No “6 HITS” logged looking back six months?
A
You have an additional 6 months to regain currency by performing the 6HITS with a safety pilot (under simulated conditions), an instructor or examiner.
7
Q
What are the requirements of the safety pilot?
A
The safety pilot
- holds at least a private pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class.
- Have adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft.
- Aircraft must have a dual control system.
8
Q
More than 6 months since IFR current?
A
- An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) is required. Administered by a CFII, examiner, or other approved person.
- Some IPC tasks, but not all, can be conducted in a FTD or ATD.
9
Q
Personal Docs required for flight
A
- Pilot Certificate
- Medical certificate
- Gov’t issued photo ID
- Restricted Radiotelephpne operator permit (outside US)
10
Q
Aircraft docs required
A
A- Airworthiness certificate R- Registration Certificate R- Radio station license (outside US) O- Operating limitations (in AFM) W- Weight and balance data
11
Q
Preflight self-assessment (IM SAFE)
A
I - Illness M - Medication S - Stress A - Alcohol F - Fatigue E - Emotion
(alcohol - no more than 0.04% alcohol in the blood)
12
Q
Risk management and personal minimums (PAVE)
A
P - Pilot
A - Aircraft
V - EnVironment
E - External Pressures
Pilot - general health, physical/mental/emotional state, proficiency, currency;
Aircraft - airworthiness, equipment, performance;
Environment - weather, hazards, terrain, airports/runways to be used & other conditions;
External pressures - meetings, people waiting at destination, etc.
13
Q
Decision making (DECIDE)
A
D - Detect that a change has occurred
E - Estimate the need to counter the change
C - Choose a desirable outcome
I - Identify solutions
D - Do the necessary actions
E - Evaluate the effects of the actions
14
Q
Passenger Briefing (SAFETY)
A
S - Seat belts fastened for taxi, takeoff & landing; Shoulder harness fastened for TOLs; Seat position adjusted and locked
A - Air vents location & operation; All environmental controls discussed; Action in case of any passenger discomfort
F - Fire extinguisher location and operation
E - Exit doors (how to secure; how to open); Emergency evacuation plan; Emergency/ survival kit
T - Traffic scanning, spotting & notifying pilot; Talking (sterile cockpit, flight deck expectations)
Y - Your questions?
15
Q
Aircraft Mx inspections required for IFR:
A
A - ADs
V - VOR (30 days)
I - Inspections (100 hr & Annual)
A - Altimeter, & static system (24 calendar months)
T - Transponder (24 calendar months)
E - ELT (every 12 months)
S - Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) required inspections
16
Q
Preflight info required for IFR:
A
NW KRAFT
N - NOTAMs W - Weather reports & forecasts K - Known traffic delays R - Runway lengths if intended use A - Alternatives available F - Fuel requirements T - TOL performance data
17
Q
What are 4 ways to file and IFR flight plan?
A
1) FSS (phone 1-800-WX-BRIEF; Radio GCO/RCO; In person)
2) Online 1800wxbrief.com; www.fltplan.com
3) EFT (e.g. Foreflight)
4) With ATC (i.e., pop-up IFR)
18
Q
How long before estimated departure should you file your IFR flight plan?
A
at least 30 minutes before
19
Q
How can flight plans be cancelled?
A
- Towered airports - automatically cancelled by ATC upon landing.
- Non-towered airports - Pilot must contact ATC / FSS to cancel (by radio or phone)
- Can cancel anytime in flight if out of IMC and out of class A airspace.
20
Q
What are IFR minimum fuel requirements?
A
Fuel from departure to destination airport + Fuel from destination to most distant alternate + 45 min calculated at normal cruise
21
Q
Need a destination alternate?
A
123 Rule
A destination alternate is always required, unless:
An instrument approach is published and available for the destination AND,
-For at least 1 hr before to one hr after ETA,
Ceiling will be at least 2000’ above airport elevation; and
Visibility will be at least 3 SM.
22
Q
What are the minimum wx conditions required at an airport to list it as an alternate?
A
The alternate airport minima published in the procedure charts, or, if none:
- Precision approach: 600’ ceiling and 2SM visibility
- Non-precision approach - 800’ ceiling and 2 SM visibility.
No IAP available at the alternate:
-Ceiling and visibility must allow descent from MEA, approach and landing under VFR.
23
Q
What are the IFR cruising altitudes?
A
Uncontrolled airspace:
(Based on magnetic course)
Below FL 290:
0-179 ODD thousands
180-359 EVEN thousands
Controlled airspace:
Assigned by ATC
24
Q
What are the IFR T/O minumums?
A
- No T/O min for part 91
- 1-2 engines - 1 SM visibility
- > 2 engines - 1/2 SM visibility
25
What are two types of DPs (Departure Procedures)?
1) Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs)
| 2) Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
26
What is a Standard Terminal Arrival Rout (STAR)?
- Serves as a transition between the en route structure adn a point from which an approach to landing can be made.
- Transition routes connect en route fixes to the basic STAR procedure.
- Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure begins.
- As with a SID, you can state "No STARs" in the remarks section of a flight plan to avoid getting a clearance containing a STAR
27
Define Decision Altitude (DA)
DA is the altitude (MSL) / Height above runway threshold on an IAP at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or go around.
28
MCA
Minimum Crossing Altitude
29
Define MDA
Minimum Decent Altitude / Height (MDA) is the lowest altitude MSL / Height above the runway threshold to which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until the pilot sees the visual references required for landing.
30
Define MEA
Minimum En-route Altitude is the lowest published altitude between radio fixes with assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements. An MEA gap establishes an area of loss in navigational coverage and annotated "MEA GAP" on IFR charts.
31
Define MOCA
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude provides obstacle clearance and navigation coverage only up to 22 NM of the VOR
-If both an MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a particular route segment, a person may operate an aircraft lower than the MEA down to, but not below the MOCA, provided the applicable navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, this applies only when the aircraft is within 22 NM of the VOR.
32
Define MORA
Minimum Off Route Altitude
- Route MORA provides obstruction clearance within 10NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10NM radius at the ends of airways.
- Grid MORA provide obstruction clearance within a latitude/longitude grid block.
33
What is MRA
Minimum Reception Altitude
34
Define MTA
Minimum Turning Altitude provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over certain fixes. Annotated with the MCA X icon and a note describing the restriction.
35
Define MVA
Minimum Vectoring Altitude is the lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures and missed approaches. MVAs may be lower than the minimum altitudes depicted on aeronautical charts, such as MEAs or MOCAs.
36
Define OROCA
Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain and a 2,000 ft buffer in mountainous terrain. OROCA may not provide navigation or communication signal coverage.
On charts:
16,000 -> MEA
1700G -> GPS MEA
*11000 -> MOCA
37
Describe the gyroscopic flight instrument:
Attitude indicator
The attitude indicator
- operates on the principal of rigidity in space.
- Shows bank and pitch information.
- Older AIs may have a tumble limit.
- Should show correct attitude w/in 5 minutes of starting the engine.
- Normally vacuum driven in GA Aircraft, may be electrical in others.
- May have small acceleration/deceleration errors and roll-out errors.
38
Describe the gyroscopic flight instrument:
Heading indicator
The Heading Indicator
- operates on the principle of rigidity in space.
- It only reflects changes in heading, but cannot measure the heading directly. You have to calibrate it with a magnetic compass in order for it to indicate correctly. HIs may be slaved to a magnetic heading source such as a flux gate, and sync automatically to the present heading.
- Normally powered by the vacuum system in a GA aircraft.
39
Describe the gyroscopic instrument:
Turn indicator
Turn indicators
- operate on the principle of precession
- show rate of turn and rate of roll
- turn-and-slip indicators show rate-of-turn only.
40
Describe the pitot-static instrument:
Altimeter
- An aneroid barometer that shows the height above a given pressure level, based on standard pressure lapse rate of 1000' per inch of mercury.
- A stack of sealed aneroid wafers expand and contract with changes in atmospheric pressure to an altitude indication.
- An altimeter setting knob (on a "sensitive altimeter" which are most aircraft altimeters) allows the pilot to adjust the current pressure to the current altimeter setting published locally.
- The pressure setting is displayed in the "Kollsman Window" in mb and/or Hg.
- In the US, when operating below 18,000' MSL, regularly set the altimeter to a station within 100 NM. Above 18,000' MSL, the altimeter should be set to the standard sea level pressure 29.92 Hg, and operate in Flight Levels (FL).
- High to Low - Watch Out Below: Use caution when flying from high pressure to low pressure areas. If altimeter setting is not updated, altitude with indicate higher, causing the pilot to fly lower than desired. Flying from hot to cold areas results in the same error.
41
What does "High to Low, Watch Out Below" mean?
-High to Low - Watch Out Below: Use caution when flying from high pressure to low pressure areas. If altimeter setting is not updated, altitude with indicate higher, causing the pilot to fly lower than desired. Flying from hot to cold areas results in the same error.
42
Define Indicated Altitude
Uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial when set to local pressure setting.
43
Define Pressure Altitude
Pressure altitude is the altitude above the standard 29.92 Hg. plane. Used when flying above the transition altitude (18,000' in US).
44
Define Density Altitude
Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature. Used for performance calculations.
45
Define True Altitude
True Altitude is the actual altitude above MSL.
46
Define Absolute Altitude
Absolute Altitude is the height above airport elevation.
47
Define Indicated Airspeed (IAS)
Indicated airspeed is the speed indicated on the airspeed indicator.
48
Define Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)
CAS is IAS corrected for instrument & position errors.
49
Define True Airspeed (TAS)
TAS is the actual speed through the air.
50
Define Ground Speed (GS)
GS is the actual speed over the ground. TAS corrected for wind conditions.
51
What happens if the static port gets blocked?
Airspeed indicator:
- is only correct at the blockage altitude.
- higher altitudes - airspeed indicates lower than it should
- lower altitudes - indicates higher than it should.
Altimeter:
- VSI freezes on zero (after verifying a blockage in the static port, you should use an alternate static source or break the VSI window - in which case, expect reverse VSI information.
- When using the alternate static source (a lower static pressure is measured)
* Airspeed indicator will indicate a faster speed than it should
* Altimeter will indicate higher than it should
* VSI will momentarily show a climb
52
What happens if the pitot tube gets blocked?
If the pitot tube gets blocked the only affected instrument is the Airspeed indicator.
If the RAM air inlet is clogged but the drain hole is still open, the airspeed drops to zero.
If the RAM and drain hole are clogged, the AI will act as an altimeter, and will no longer be reliable.
When suspecting a pitot tube blockage, consider the use of pitot heat to melt ice that may have formed in or on the pitot tube.
53
Describe the instrument taxi check`
- Airspeed - 0
- Turn Coordinator - ball centered and wings level when not turning. On turns: shows turn in correct direction, ball goes to opposite direction of the turn.
- Attitude - correct pitch attitude and bank angle +/- 5 degrees within 5 minutes of engine start (if vacuum).
- Heading Indicator - Set and shows correct headings.
- Altimeter - Set to local altimeter settings or to airport elevation. Shows surveyed elevation +/- 75'.
- VSI = 0
- Magnetic compass - swings freely, full of fluid, shows known headings and deviation card is installed. Marker beacons tested.
- NAV & Comm - Set
- GPS - checked and set
54
What are the magnetic compass errors & limitations? (DV MONA)
```
D - Deviation
V - Variation
M - Magnetic Dip
O - Oscillation
N - North/south turn errors: UNOS
A - Acceleration errors: ANDS
```
55
Describe the electronic flight instrument:
Attitude Heading Reference Systems (AHRS)
Attitude Heading Reference Systems (AHRS) - Provides more accurate and reliable attitude and heading data than traditional separate gyro systems. The first AHRS units were very expensive and relied on laser gyros and flux valves. Today they are based on solid state technologies (no moving parts) and are cheaper, smaller and easier to maintain.
56
Describe the electronic flight instrument:
Air Data Computer (ADC)
The Air Data Computer replaces the mechanical pitot-static instruments. The ADC receives inputs from the pitot, static and outside temperature ports and computes airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed and altitude.
57
Describe the electronic flight instrument:
Flight Director (FD)
The flight director computes and displays command bars over the attitude indicator to assist the pilot in flying selected heading, course or vertical speed.
58
Describe the electronic flight instrument:
Flight Management System (FMS)
The Flight Management System receives inputs from various sensors and provides guidance to the autopilot and flight director throughout the flight. The FMS also automatically monitors and selects the most appropriate navigation source for accurate positioning. (GPS, VOR/DME, INS, etc.)
59
Describe the electronic flight instrument:
Primary Flight Display (PFD)
The primary flight display displays flight data such as attitude, altitude, airspeed, VSI and heading as well as rate tapes.
60
Describe the electronic flight instrument:
Multi-Function Display (MFD)
The multi-function display displays a variety of information such as moving maps, aircraft system status, weather and traffic. It may also be used as a backup for other displays, such as the PFD or EICAS.
61
What is the minimum equipment required for VFR day flight?
A TOMATO FLAMES
A - Altimeter
T - Tachometer for each engine
O - Oil temperature indicator for each engine.
M - Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine.
A - Airspeed indicator
T - Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine.
O - Oil pressure gauge for each engine.
```
F - Fuel quantity gauge for each tank.
L - Landing gear position lights
A - Anti-collision lights
M - Magnetic direction indicator
E - ELT, if required by 91.207
S - Safety belt/shoulder harness
```
62
What is the minimum equipment required for VFR night flight?
FLAPS
```
F - Fuses (spare set)
L - Landing light (if for hire)
A - Anti-collision lights
P - Position lights (navigation lights)
S - Source of electrical power (i.e., battery)
```
63
What is the minimum equipment required for IFR day flight?
All VFR day equipment (A TOMATO FLAMES) + GRABCARD
```
G - Generator / alternator
R - Radios
A - Altimeter
B - Ball
C - Clock
A - Attitude indicator
R - Rate-of-turn indicator
D - Directional gyro
```
64
What is the minimum equipment required for IFR night flight?
All VFR day (A TOMATO FLAMES) + VFR night (FLAPS) +(GRABCARD)
65
What error is allowed on a VOR receiver check over a
1) VOT?
2) VOR ground checkpoint?
3) VOR airborne checkpoint?
4) Dual VOR cross-check?
1) VOT = +/- 4 degrees
2) VOR ground checkpoint = +/- 4 degrees
3) VOR airborne checkpoint = +/- 6 degrees
4) Dual VOR cross-check = +/- 4 degrees
66
What items are required for a VOR check signoff?
SPED
S - Signature
P - Place
E - Error (bearing error)
D - Date
67
What are the Standard VOR Service Volumes For:
1) Terminal (T)?
2) Low (VL)?
3) High (VH)?
1) Terminal (T) = 25 NM; 1000-12,000'
2) Low (VL) = 40 NM; 1,000-18,000'
3) High (VH) = 130 NM at widest part; 1,000-60,000'
* helpful to look at pictures for this
68
Describe the Localizer
Localizer:
- Provides lateral course guidance.
- Frequencies 108.1-111.95
- 90 & 150 Hz signals are carried over the VHF frequency and used by the receiver to interpret the aircraft's lateral position.
- between 3-6 degrees in width so that the width at the threshold would be 700'.
- Usually 5 degrees total width (2.5 full deflection to each side, 4x more sensitive than a VOR)
- Coverage range: 35 degrees to each side of the centerline for the first 10NM and 10 degrees up to 18NM from the antenna and up to an altitude of 4,500'.
69
Describe the Glide Slope
Glide Slope:
- Provides vertical course guidance;
- Frequencies: 329.3-335MHz (UHF), automatically tuned with the localizer.
- Vertical position is interpreted by the intensity of 90 and 150 Hz signals carried over the UHF freq adn directed above and under the slope.
- Width: 1.4 degrees (full deflection is 0.7 degrees either direction).
- Range: typically up to 10NM
- Slope: typically 3 degrees
- Errors: False glide slope above normal glide slope.
70
Describe the Marker Beacons
- Provide range information over specific points along the approach. Transmits at 75 MHz
- Outer marker: 4-7 miles out. Indicate the position at which the aircraft should intercept the GS at the appropriate interception altitude +/- 50 ft. Blue "- - - "
- Middle marker: ~ 350' from the runway. Indicates the approximate point where the GS meets the decision height. Usually 200' above the touchdown zone elevation. Amber ". - . -"
- Inner marker: between the MM and runway threshold. Indicates the point where the glide slope meets the DH on a CAT II ILS approach. White ". . ."
- Back course marker: Indicates the FAF on selected back course approaches. White ".. .."
71
What is GPS?
Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) operated by the US.
- The constellation consists of a minimum of 24 satellites (with some spares) orbiting above the earth at 10,900 NM. The system is designed so that at least 5 satellites are in view at any given location on earth.
- At least 3 satellites are required for a 2D position (lat & long); at least 4 satellites are required for 3D position (lat, long & altitude)
72
What is RAIM?
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is a function of GPS receivers that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals.
- RAIM (fault detection) requires a minimum of 5 satellites, or 4, satellites + an altimeter input (baro-aided RAIM)
73
What is WAAS?
Wide Area Augmentation System:
Ground stations (Wide-area Reference Stations and Wide-area Master Stations) measure GPS errors and produce correction signals. These corrections are broadcasted back to the satellite segment from which they are bounced back to aircraft GPS WAAS receivers to improve accuracy, integrity and availability monitoring for GPS navigation.
74
Define RNP
RNP (Required Navigation Performance) is:
- A statement of navigation equipment and service performance.
- RNAV with navigation monitoring and alerting.
All RNAV approaches are RNP approaches
-Most US RNP approaches are titled "RNAV (GPS)"
RNP approach minimas and equipment:
- LP MDA or LPV DA minimas require RNP achieved by WAAS.
- LNAV MDA - achieved by a basic, unaugmented IFR-approved GPS
75
Define RNAV
```
Area Navigation (RNAV)
-is a system that enables navigation between any two points without the need to overfly ground-based stations.
```
76
Define GNSS
Global Navigation Satellite System is a broad term for satellite-based RNAV systems
77
Define PBN
Performance Based Navigation is a general basis for navigation equipment standards, in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability and functionality for specific operation contexts (e.g., final approach, enroute, missed approach).
78
Describe the characteristics of RNP
Required Navigation Performance (RNP)
- RNP is a specific statement of Performance Based Navigation (PBN) for the flight segment and aircraft capability.
- RNP is also defined as RNAV + navigation monitoring and alerting functionality. (RAIM or built-in monitoring in WAAS provide this capability)
- Enroute - RNP 2.0 (2NM accuracy 95% of the flight time)
- Terminal & Departure - RNP 1.0 (1NM accuracy 95% of the flight time)
- Final Approach - RNP 0.3 (0.3 NM accuracy 95% of the flight time)
79
What is the Primary and Supporting Method of Attitude Instrument Flying?
Primary and Supporting Method is a method of Attitude Instrument Flying that divides the cockpit panel by Pitch, Bank and Power Instruments
- Pitch instruments - Attitude Indicator, Altimeter, Airspeed Indicator and VSI
- Bank Instruments - Attitude Indicator, Heading Indicator, Magnetic Compass & Turn Coordinator
- Power Instruments - Airspeed, Tachometer, Manifold pressure
80
What are the mandatory reporting points under IFR?
MARVELOUS VFR C500
M - Missed approach
A - Airspeed +/- 10knots / 5% change of filed TAS (whichever is greater)
R - Reaching a holding fix (report time & altitude)
V - VFR on top when an altitude change will be made
E - ETA changed +/- 2 min, or +/- 3 min in North Atlantic *
L - Leaving a holding fix/point
O - Outer marker (or fix in lieu of it) *
U - Un-forecasted weather
S - Safety of flight
V - Vacating an altitude / FL
F - Final Approach fix *
R - Radio/Nav/approach equipment failure
C - Compulsory reporting points *
500 - unable to climb/descend 500fpm
*Required only in non-radar environment (including ATC radar failure)
81
Define the three holding entries.
Direct - Upon crossing the fix turn to follow the holding pattern
Parallel - Upon crossing the fix, turn to a heading parallel to the holding course outbound for 1 minute. Then turn into the hold pattern to intercept the inbound course.
Teardrop - Upon crossing the fix, turn outbound to a heading of 30 degrees into the pattern. Fly it for 1 minute, then turn in the direction of the hold turns to intercept the inbound course.
82
Describe Lost Communications Procedure.
Route:
A - Assigned route, if none:
V - Vectored (fly to fix/route/airway last vectored to), if none:
E - Expected (last expected route by ATC), if none:
F - Filed route
Altitude:
M - Minimum altitude prescribed for IFR
E - Expected (as in: "Expect 5000 10 min after departure")
A - Assigned. Last altitude assigned by ATC
83
Describe / Name Precision Instrument Approach types.
Lateral + Vertical guidance to a DA
ILS - Instrument Landing System
84
Describe / Name Non-Precision Instrument Approach types
Lateral guidance only. Flown to MDA.
VOR
RNAV
LOC - Localizer
LDA - Localizer Type Directional Aid
85
When can you descend to the next instrument approach segment?
When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of a published approach or route.
86
When do you execute a missed approach?
Execute a missed approach when:
- Arrival at MAP or DH with insufficient visual reference to runway environment.
- A safe approach is not possible
- Instructed to do so by ATC
87
When can you descend below MDA/DA?
1. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made ata normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers.
2. The flight visibility (or the enhanced flight visibility, if equipped) is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used.
3. At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: (except for CAT II and III approaches)
a. The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
b. The threshold
c. The threshold markings
d. The threshold lights
e. The runway end identifier lights
f. The visual glideslope indicator
g. The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings
h. The touchdown zone lights
i. The runway or runway markings
j. The runway lights
88
Define VDP
Visual Descent Point (VDP) is the point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin, provided adequate visual reference is established.
89
What is the rate of descent for a 3 degree glide path?
VS (fpm) = Ground Speed x 5
90
How far should you start a descent for a 3 degree glide path?
TOD = Altitude to lose (ft) / 300
Ex. 1200' to lose:
1200/300 = 4 NM (start descent 4 NM from the runway threshold)
91
Define Airmet (T)
Airmet Tango describes moderate turbulence, stained surface winds of 30 knots or greater, and /or non-convective low-level wind shear.
92
Define Airmet (Z)
Airmet Zulu describes moderate icing and provides freezing level heights.
93
Define Airmet (S)
Airmet Sierra describes IFR conditions and / or extensive mountain obscurations.
94
Define SIGMET
A SIGMET is a non-scheduled inflight advisory with a maximum forecast period of 4 hours. Advises of non-convective weather potentially hazardous to all types of aircraft. A SIGMET is issued when the following is expected to occur:
- Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms
- Severe or extreme turbulence or Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms
- Dust storms, sandstorms lowering surface visibility below 3 miles.
95
Define Convective SIGMET
A Convective SIGMET is an inflight advisory of convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft.
- Issued hourly at 55 min past the hour for the western, eastern and central USA
- Valid for 2 hours
-Issued for any of the following:
>Severe thunderstorms due to
** Surface winds greater or equal to 50 knots
**Hail at the surface greater than 3/4 inch in diameter
>Tornadoes
>Embedded thunderstorms
>A line of thunderstorms at least 60 miles long with thunderstorms affecting at least 40% of its length
96
Define METAR
Aviation Routine Weather Report - show surface weather observations in a standard international format.
- Scheduled METARs are published every hour.
- Non-scheduled METARs (SPECI) are issued when there is a significant change in one or more reported element since the last scheduled METAR.
97
Define TAF
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast. - Weather forecast for 5 SM radius area around the station. Issued 4 times a day every 6 hours and normally covers a 24 or 30 hour forecast period.
98
What are the characteristics (color, ceiling & visibility) of LIFR?
Low IFR:
>Magenta
>Less than 500' ceiling
>Less than 1 SM visibility
99
What are the characteristics (color, ceiling & visibility) of IFR?
IFR (Instrument Flight Rules):
>Red
>500' to below 1,000' AGL
>1 SM to less than 3 SM
100
What are the characteristics (color, ceiling & visibility) of MVFR?
Marginal VFR:
>Blue
>1,000' - 3,000' AGL
>3-5 SM visibility
101
What are the characteristics (color, ceiling & visibility) of VFR?
Visual Flight Rules:
>Green
>Greater than 3,000' AGL ceiling
>Greater than 5 SM visibility
