Pilots Cafe

Question 1

When is an instrument rating required?

Answer 1

• When acting as PIC under IFR or in weather
  conditions less than prescribed for VFR.
• When carrying passengers for compensation
  or hire on cross-country flights in excess of
  50 NM or at night.
• For flight in Class A airspace
• For Special VFR between sunset and sunrise

Question 2

What is the minimum aeronautical experience required for the instrument rating?

Answer 2

• 50 hours X-Country PIC time
• 40 hours actual or simulated instrument time
  ▷ Of which, 15 hours with CFII.
  □ Including one X-Country flight of:
  □ 250 NM along airways or by directed ATC
  routing.
  □ An instrument approach at each airport.
  □ 3 different kinds of approaches using
  navigation systems.
  □ With a filed IFR flight plan.
  □ 3 hours instrument flight training in last 2 calendar
  months prior to practical test
• Use of approved full flight simulator or FTD, if trained by
  authorized instructor:
  ▷ Max. 30 hours if instrument time completed under part
  142
  ▷ Max 20 hours if not completed under 142
• Use of FAA approved Aviation Training Device, if trained
  by an authorized instructor:
  ▷ Max 10 hours of instrument time if basic ATD
  ▷ Max 20 hours of instrument time if advanced ATD
• No more than 20 hours of total instrument time can be
  credited in a full flight simulator, FTD or ATD, except the
  30 hours exception under part 142 mentioned above.

Question 3

What is the VFR recency of experience required?

Answer 3

• Flight review every 24 months
• 3 TOLs in the previous 90 days
• If carrying passengers at night, those TOLs must be from a period of 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise to a full stop
  (The takeoffs and landings may be accomplished in a
  FFS or FTD if it is approved for landings and used in a
  part 142 training center.)

Question 4

What is the recency of experience requirements? (under IFR in weather conditions less than VFR)

Answer 4

“6 HITS”
Within 6 calendar months preceding the month of
flight:
■ 6 instrument approaches.
■ Holding procedures & tasks.
■ Intercepting & Tracking courses through the use of
navigational electronic systems.
■ The above can be completed in a FFS, ATD, or FTD
provided the device represents the category of
aircraft for the instrument rating privileges to be
maintained and the pilot performs the tasks and
iterations in simulated instrument conditions. A flight
instructor is not needed.

Question 5

No “6 HITS” logged looking back six months?
a. Safety pilot requirements?
b. Reg?

Answer 5

You have an additional 6 months to regain currency by
performing the “6 HITS” with a safety pilot (under
simulated conditions), an instructor or examiner.

a. Holds at least a private pilot certificate with the
appropriate category and class.
▷ Have adequate vision forward and to each side of
the aircraft.
▷ Aircraft must have a dual control system.

b. 61.57(c)

Question 6

More than 6 months since IFR current?

Answer 6

An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) is required.
Administered by a CFII, examiner, or other approved
person. Guidelines are in the ACS.
■ Some IPC tasks, but not all, can be conducted in a FTD
or ATD. (See ACS)
- To meet recent instrument experience requirements, the
following information must be recorded in the person’s
logbook:
■ Location & type of each instrument approach
accomplished, and
■ The name of the safety pilot, if required.

Question 7

Is there an IFR recency of experience exemption?

Answer 7

Yes, a PIC who is actively employed by a part 121 or 135 operator is exempt from the IFR recency of experience requirements of part 61.57 when operating under part 91, 121 or 135 (as applicable) for that operator as long as he complies with recency of experience requirements applicable for that operation.

Question 8

What are the requirements of use of full flight sim, FTD, or ATD for acquiring instrument aeronautical experience?

Answer 8

For training towards a certificate or rating, an authorized instructor is present to observe and signs the person’s logbook to verify the time and content of the session.
■ For IFR recency requirements, log:
▷ Training device, time and content

Question 9

What are the requirements of logging instrument approach procedures?

Answer 9

1. You must operate the aircraft, FFS, ATD or FTD solely by reference to instruments.
   ▷ A flight instructor may log an IAP conducted by the student in actual IMC.
2. Be established on each required segment of the IAP down to its published minimums.
   ▷ The initial (starting at the IAF), intermediate and final approach segments are required for logging the approach, unless:
   ▷ When radar vectored to final by ATC. (In simulated IMC, vectors from the safety pilot are also accepted).
3. If conducted in simulated IMC in an aircraft, or in a FFS, ATD or FTD, simulated conditions must continue down to MDA or DA.
4. In an aircraft, flight must be in actual or simulated IMC.
5. In an aircraft, if conditions change from actual IMC to VMC during the final approach segment, you can still log the approach.

Question 10

What is the “DECIDE” model for decision making?

Answer 10

■ D - Detect that a change has occurred.
■ E - Estimate the need to counter the change.
■ C - Choose a desirable outcome.
■ I - Identify solutions.
■ D - Do the necessary actions.
■ E - Evaluate the effects of the actions

Question 11

Taxi Briefing?

Answer 11

■ A - Assigned / planned runway.
■ R - Route.
■ C - Crossings and hold short instructions.
■ H - Hot spots & hazards (e.g., NOTAMs, closed
taxiways/runways, surface condition).

Question 12

What are the requirements of an IFR flight plan?

Answer 12

■ No person may operate an aircraft in controlled
airspace under IFR unless that person has:
▷ Filed an IFR flight plan; and
▷ Received an appropriate ATC clearance.
■ It is legal to fly IFR in uncontrolled airspace (class G)
without a flight plan or clearance. However, once airborne,
you must remain in uncontrolled airspace until you file a
flight plan and get an ATC clearance to enter the controlled
airspace.

Question 13

How to file an IFR flight plan?

Answer 13

▷ FSS
□ by phone (1-800-WX-BRIEF)
□ over the radio (GCO/RCO)
□ In person.
▷ Online
□ www.1800wxbrief.com (Leido)
□ www.fltplan.com (Garmin)
▷ EFB (e.g., Foreflight)
▷ With ATC (over radio, or phone if no other means available)
□ Pop-up IFR clearances let pilots transition from VFR to
IFR, even without a previously filed flight plan
(required by §91.173(a)), under ATC authorization.
□ While filing a flight plan (with FSS) is preferred, pop-ups
allow to quickly get the flight into the system. (i.e, when
weather is deteriorating fast during VFR). They are
subject to ATC workload and not guaranteed.
□ You must be at or above the minimum IFR altitude, or
climb to it under VFR.

Question 14

How long in advance do you need to file an IFR flight plan?

Answer 14

File at least 30 minutes prior to estimated departure. Nonscheduled flights above FL230 should be filed at least 4 hours before est. departure time.

Question 15

How do you cancel an IFR flight plan?

Answer 15

▷ Towered airports - automatically canceled by ATC upon
landing.
▷ Non-towered airports - Pilot must contact ATC / FSS to
cancel (by radio or phone)
▷ Can cancel anytime in flight if out of IMC and out of
class A airspace

Question 16

What are the IFR minimum fuel requirements?

Answer 16

Enough fuel to the destination airport, plus:
- To the most distant alternate, plus:
- 45 min at normal cruise speed

Question 17

When is a destination alternate required?

Answer 17

0-1-2-3 rule
- There are 0 IAPs available at the destination, or
- For at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA:
- Ceiling is forecasted to be less than 2000’ above airport
elevation; and
- Visibility is forecasted to be less than 3 SM.

Question 18

What are the minimum weather conditions required at an airport to list it as an alternate?

Answer 18

The alternate airport minima published in the
procedure charts, or, if none:
■ Precision approach:
600 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.
■ Non-precision approach:
800 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.
■ No instrument approach available at the
alternate?
- Ceiling & visibility must allow descent from MEA,
approach and landing under VFR.

Question 19

What are some GPS considerations for filing an alternate?

Answer 19

• Equipped with a non-WAAS GPS? You can flight
  plan based on GPS approaches at either the
  destination or the alternate, but not at both.
• WAAS Without baro-VNAV? May base the flight
  plan on use of LNAV approaches at both the
  destination and alternate.
• WAAS with baro-VNAV? May base the flight plan
  on use of LNAV/VNAV or RNP 0.3 at both the
  destination and the alternate.

Question 20

IFR CRUISING ALTITUDES

Answer 20

– In uncontrolled airspace
Based on magnetic course:
- Below FL290
0º-179º ODD thousands (below 18,000’)
or Flight Levels (at or above FL180)
180º-359º EVEN thousands (below 18,000’) or Flight
Levels (at or above FL180)
- Above FL290 (in non-RVSM)
0º-179º Flight Levels at 4,000’ increments starting at
FL290 (e.g., FL 290, 330, 370)
180º-359º Flight Levels at 4,000’ increments starting at
FL310 (e.g., FL 310, 350, 390)
- Above FL290-FL410 (in RVSM)
0º-179º Odd Flight Levels at 2,000’ intervals starting at
FL290 (e.g., FL 290, 310, 330)
180º-359º Even Flight Levels at 2,000’ intervals starting
at FL300 (e.g., FL 300, 320, 340)

– In controlled airspace
IFR Cruising altitudes are as assigned by ATC.

Question 21

IFR TAKEOFF MINIMUMS

Answer 21

No T/O minimums mandated for part 91 operations.

Part
121, 125, 129, 135:
■ Prescribed T/O minimums for the runway, or, if none:
■ 1-2 engines airplanes: 1 SM visibility
■ More than 2 engines: ½ SM visibility
- Upside down triangle with T inside: Non-Standard TO mins / Departure Procedures.
- Triangle with A inside: Non-Standard IFR alternate minimums exist.
- Triangle with A inside + NA: Alternate minimums not authorized due to
unmonitored facility or the absence of weather
reporting service.

Question 22

Departure procedures (DP) ensure obstacle clearance, provided:
a. FPNM to Feet-Per-Minute conversion:

Answer 22

The airplane crossed the departure end of the
runway at least 35 ft AGL,
▷ reaches 400 ft AGL before turning, AND
▷ climbs at least 200 Feet per NM (FPNM), or as
published otherwise on the chart.

a. FPM = FPNM X Groundspeed / 60

Question 23

What are two types of DPs?

Answer 23

1. Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)
   □ Provides only obstacle clearance.
   □ Printed either textually or graphically.
   □ Graphic ODPs are titled “(OBSTACLE).”
2. Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
   □ In addition to obstacle clearance it reduces
   pilot and controller workload by simplifying
   ATC clearances and minimizing radio
   communications.
   □ May depict special radio failure procedures.
   □ SIDs are always printed graphically.

Question 24

What are the types of DPs, depending on equipment required:
a. Are you required to accept a SID?

Answer 24

Non-RNAV DP - for use by aircraft equipped with
ground-based navigation (i.e., VOR, DME, NDB).
▷ RNAV DP - for aircraft equipped with RNAV
equipment (e.g., GPS, VOR/DME, DME/DME).
Require at least RNAV 1 performance. Identified with
the word “RNAV” in the title.
▷ RADAR DP - ATC radar vectors to an ATS route,
NAVAID, or fix are used after departure. RADAR
DPs are annotated “RADAR REQUIRED.”

a. No, but you must remark “No SIDs” in flight plan

Question 25

What is a transition route?

Answer 25

Connects a SID to the enroute structure

Question 26

What are diverse departure procedures?

Answer 26

■ All US airports with a published IAP but with no published DP meet the Diverse Airport criteria ■ This criteria requires that an airport has been evaluated for no obstacles within 200 ft altitude/NM up to a minimum IFR altitude. ■ Diverse Airport Departures provide obstacle clearance when a DP is not published. ■ Turns are allowed only after reaching 400 ft AGL. ■ A Diverse Vector Area (DVA) allows ATC to provide radar vectors instead of an ODP, while meeting the diverse departure criteria. DVA information is found in the US terminal procedures publication. It includes a statement that initial headings are provided by ATC and any applicable climb gradients.

Question 27

What is a visual climb over airport (VCOA)?

Answer 27

■ A departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC. ■ The pilot visually conducts climbing turns over the airport up to the published "climb to" altitude, from which he proceeds to the instrument portion of the departure. ■ Designed to avoid obstacles beyond 3 SM from the departure end of the runway (DER), as an alternative to complying with climb gradients greater than the standard 200 ft/NM. ■ Advise ATC as early as possible prior to departure of the intent to fly a VCOA. ■ Published in the “Take-Off Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures” section of the TP. ■ May appear as an option on graphic ODPs

Question 28

What is a CRAFT clearance?

Answer 28

- Clearance limit - Route - Altitude - Frequency - Transponder

Question 29

What is a standard terminal arrival (STAR)? a. Must you accept a STAR?

Answer 29

Serves as a transition between the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made. ■ Transition routes connect enroute fixes to the basic STAR procedure. ■ Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure begins. a. As with a SID, you can state “NO STARs” in the remarks section of the flight plan, to avoid getting a clearance containing a STAR. ■ RNAV STARs require RNAV 1 performance.

Question 30

Minimum IFR altitudes: Except for takeoff or landing, or otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below:

Answer 30

▷ Minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment, or if none: ▷ Mountainous areas: 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course. ▷ Non-mountainous areas: 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course.

Question 31

IFR Altitude Definitions: ■ DA / H ■ MAA ■ MCA ■ MDA / H ■ MEA ■ MOCA ■ MORA ■ MRA ■ MTA ■ MVA ■ OROCA

Answer 31

■ DA / H - Decision Altitude / Height: the Altitude (MSL) / Height (above runway threshold), on an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or go around. ■ MAA - Maximum Authorized Altitude. Annotated “MAA-17000” (17,000ft as an example) on IFR charts. ■ MCA - Minimum Crossing Altitude. The lowest altitude at certain fixes that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA. ■ MDA / H - Minimum Descent Altitude / Height: The lowest Altitude (MSL) / Height (above runway threshold) to which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until the pilot sees the visual references required for landing. ■ MEA - Minimum Enroute Altitude: The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements. An MEA gap establishes an area of loss in navigational coverage and annotated “MEA GAP” on IFR charts. ■ MOCA - Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude: Provides obstacle clearance and navigation coverage only up to 22 NM of the VOR. ▷ If both an MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a particular route segment, a person may operate an aircraft lower than the MEA down to, but not below the MOCA, provided the applicable navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, this applies only when the aircraft is within 22 NM of the VOR. ■ MORA - Minimum Off Route Altitude (Jeppesen): ▷ Route MORA provides obstruction clearance within 10NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10NM radius at the ends of airways. ▷ Grid MORA provide obstruction clearance within a latitude / longitude grid block. ■ MRA - Minimum Reception Altitude. The lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersection can be determined using radio navigational aids. ■ MTA - Minimum Turning Altitude: Provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over certain fixes. Annotated with the MCA X icon and a note describing the restriction. ■ MVA - Minimum Vectoring Altitude: The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. MVAs may be lower than the minimum altitudes depicted on aeronautical charts, such as MEAs or MOCAs. ■ OROCA - Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude: Provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2,000 ft in mountainous areas. OROCA may not provide navigation or communication signal coverage.

Question 32

Pitot blockages b. Ram air inlet clogged and drain hole open? c. Both air inlet and drain hole are clogged?

Answer 32

a. Airspeed drops to zero. b. The airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter, and will no longer be reliable.

Question 33

Static port blockages a. Airspeed indicator b. Altimeter c. VSI d. Alternate Static Source

Answer 33

a. Indicates correctly only at the blockage altitude. ▷ Higher altitudes → airspeed indicates lower than it should. ▷ Lower altitudes → Indicates higher than it should. b. Will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked. c. Freezes on zero d. A lower static pressure is measured ▷ Airspeed indicator – indicate a faster speed than it should. ▷ Altimeter – indicate higher than it should. ▷ VSI – momentarily show a climb.

Question 34

MINIMUM EQUIPMENT REQUIRED FOR FLIGHT What is the minimum equipment required for flight in IFR?

Answer 34

For IFR day: all VFR day equipment + GRABCARD For IFR night: all VFR day + VFR night + GRABCARD “GRAB CARD” – G - Generator / alternator. R - Radios. Two-way radio communication & navigational equipment suitable for the route to be flown. A - Altimeter (sensitive, adjustable for barometric pressure) B - Ball (slip-skid indicator). C - Clock. Shows hours, minutes and seconds with sweep-second pointer or digital representation. Installed as part of aircraft equipment. A - Attitude indicator. R - Rate-of-turn indicator. D - Directional gyro (heading indicator).

Question 35

What is the process for operating with inoperative items?

Answer 35

- If aircraft has an MEL, follow it. If not: - VFR day/night, IFR day/night required? KOEL or manufacturer equipment list? AD? - If none of the above, Flying is permitted, provided: ■ Inoperative equipment is removed (affecting weight & balance), or ■ deactivated and placarded “Inoperative.” ■ Pilot/mechanic determines no hazard from inop. item - If on one of the above, flight is not permitted without a special flight permit.

Question 36

What are the maximum errors for VOR Receiver Checks for each type of check? ▷ VOT ▷ Repair Station ▷ VOR ground checkpoint ▷ VOR airborne checkpoint ▷ Dual VOR cross-check ▷ Above a prominent ground landmark on a selected radial at least 20 NM from a VOR, flying at a “reasonable low altitude”

Answer 36

▷ VOT ±4º ▷ Repair Station ±4º ▷ VOR ground checkpoint ±4º ▷ VOR airborne checkpoint ±6º ▷ Dual VOR cross-check ±4º ▷ Above a prominent ground landmark ±6º

Question 37

What must be required on a VOR check sign-off?

Answer 37

DEPS - - Date - Error - Place - Signature

Question 38

What are some VOR limitations?

Answer 38

■ Cone of confusion ■ Reverse sensing (if used incorrectly) ■ Requires line-of-sight between aircraft and station.

Question 39

What are the standard VOR service volumes?

Answer 39

Terminal - 1000-12000ft within 25 NM Low - 1000-18000ft within 40 NM High - 1000-14500ft within 40 NM - 14500-18000ft within 100 NM - 18000-45000ft within 130 NM - 45000-60000ft within 100 NM

Question 40

How does a DME work?

Answer 40

Normally tuned automatically with a paired VHF station (VOR/LOC). ■ The Airborne DME unit transmits an interrogation signal. ■ The ground DME facility receives and replies to the interrogation. ■ Airborne unit calculates the slant range distance to the station based on the reply time. ■ Due to slant range error, when flying overhead the station, DME indicates greater than zero. ■ Slant range error is negligible at 1 NM DME station per every 1000ft height. For example, at 5000 ft, slant range error is negligible when further than 5 NM of the station

Question 41

DME service volumes?

Answer 41

DME low (DL) - 12900-18000ft within 130 NM DME high (DH) - 12900-45000ft within 130 NM - 14500-60000ft within 100 NM *ATH - above transmitter height

Question 42

What is an NDB? a. What is a compass locator?

Answer 42

- Non directional beacon - Low to medium frequency band. ■ ADF (Automatic Direction Finder) in aircraft points towards the NDB. ■ Magnetic Bearing = Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing a. A low-powered NDB (at least 25 Watts and 15NM range) installed at the OM or the MM on some ILS approaches.

Question 43

What are NDB service volume ranges?

Answer 43

Compass Locator 15 NM Medium High (MH) 25 NM High (H) 50 NM (or less, see NOTAM or Chart Supplement) High High (HH) 75 NM

Question 44

Localizer frequency, width and coverage range?

Answer 44

- 90 (left) and 150 Hz (right) signals are carried over the VHF frequency and used by the receiver to interpret the aircraft’s lateral position. ■ Width: Between 3°-6° so that the width at the threshold would be 700 feet. Usually 5° total width. (2.5 full deflection to each side, 4 times more sensitive than a VOR). ■ Coverage range: 35° to each side of the centerline for the first 10NM and 10° up to 18NM from the antenna and up to an altitude of 4500'.

Question 45

Glide slope ■ Frequencies ■ Width ■ Range ■ Slope ■ Errors

Answer 45

■ Frequencies: 90 and 150 Hz signals carried over the UHF frequency and directed above and under the slope. ■ Width: 1.4º (full deflection is 0.7º either direction). ■ Range: typically up to 10 NM. ■ Slope: typically 3°. ■ Errors: False glide slope above normal glide slope

Question 46

Marker beacons - Outer marker - Middle marker - Inner marker - Back course marker

Answer 46

■ Outer marker: 4-7 miles out. Indicate the position at which the aircraft should intercept the GS at the appropriate interception altitude ±50ft. BLUE. “- - -“ ■ Middle marker: ~3500ft from the runway. Indicates the approximate point where the GS meets the decision height. Usually 200ft above the touchdown zone elevation. AMBER. “. - . -” ■ Inner marker: between the MM and runway threshold. Indicates the point where the glide slope meets the DH on a CAT II ILS approach. WHITE. “. . .” ■ Back course marker: Indicates the FAF on selected back course approaches. Not part of the ILS approach. WHITE. “.. ..”

Question 47

What is the purpose of approach lighting systems (ALS)? ■ ALS extends from the landing threshold into the approach area up to:

Answer 47

■ Provides basic visible means to transition between instrument-guided flight into a visual approach. ▷ 2,400-3,000 feet for precision instrument runways, and ▷ 1,400-1,500 feet for non-precision instrument runways.

Question 48

ILS Categories, Lowest Visibilities and Lowest DH

Answer 48

CAT I - 2,400’ or 1,800’ - 200’ CAT II - 1,200’ - 100’ CAT IIIa - >700’ - <100’ or no DH CAT IIIb 1- 50’-700’ - <50’ or no DH CAT IIIc - 0’ - No DH

Question 49

What is RNAV? a. What are some different types? b. What are two different RNAV routes based on altitude? c. What is MRB?

Answer 49

A method of navigation allowing straight line navigation along the desired route, rather than overflying ground-based waypoints. a. Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS AKA GPS), VOR/DME, DME/DME, RNAV VNAV, BARO-VNAV b. RNAV Q (FL180-FL450), RNAV T (1200 AGL-18000 MSL) and are designated as RNAV 2 unless otherwise charted as RNAV 1. c. Magnetic Relative Bearing - the published bearing between two waypoints on an RNAV route.

Question 50

How many GPS satellites are required for 2D position? 3D? For RAIM? a. What is RAIM? b. What kind of navigation does GPS use?

Answer 50

3 satellites for 2D, 4 for 3D, 5 for RAIM (Or 4 + an altimeter input - baro-aided RAIM), 6 for eliminating a corrupt satellite signal (Or 5 + altimeter input) a. Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring - a function of GPS that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals. b. Great circle navigation

Question 51

Can a GPS substitute for an ADF on an NDB approach with "GPS" in the title? a. Can it in other types of approaches?

Answer 51

No, if it has GPS in the title, a GPS can't substitute for an ADF a. Yes, in other approaches it can.

Question 52

What do differential GPS (DGPS) systems do? a. What are 2 types of DGPS?

Answer 52

They improve the accuracy of GPS by measuring errors received by reference stations at known geographical locations and then broadcasting those errors to supported GPS receivers. a. Satellite based Augmentation System (SBAS) and Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS)

Question 53

What specifically do we call SBAS? a. How does it work?

Answer 53

Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) a. Ground stations (Wide area reference stations and wide area master stations) measure GPS errors and produce correction signals. These corrections are then broadcasted back to the satellite segment from which they are bounced to aircraft GPS WAAS receivers to improve accuracy, integrity, and availability monitoring for GPS navigation.

Question 54

What is GBAS (formally called LAAS)? a. What kind of approaches does it allow for?

Answer 54

Errors are broadcasted via VHF to GBAS enabled receivers. More accurate than WAAS, but covers a smaller geographical area. a. Allows for category 1 approaches and above to GLS (GBAS landing system) minimums.

Question 55

What is RNP? a. What does it mean when the title of the approach has RNAV (RNP)?

Answer 55

Required Navigation Performance. It is a statement of navigation equipment and service performance. It is RNAV with navigation monitoring and alerting. a. They require special FAA authorization for the crew, aircraft and operation.

Question 56

What are some RNP approach minima and equipment?

Answer 56

- GLS DA minima using GBAS - LP MDA or LPV DA minima require RNP achieved by WAAS - LNAV / VNAV DA achieved by VNAV-approved WAAS, or baro-VNAV systems - LNAV MDA achieved by a basic, unaugmented IFR approved GPS

Question 57

What is PBN? a. What is the difference between PBN and RNP? b. What are the different flight segment contexts of RNP?

Answer 57

Performance based navigation. It is a general basis for equipment standards in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability, and functionality for specific operation contexts (final approach, enroute, missed approach) a. RNP is a statement of PBN for the flight segment and aircraft capability. RAIM and WAAS provide this capability. b. 1) Enroute - RNP 2.0 - 2 NM accuracy 95% of the flight time 2) Terminal and Departure - RNP 1.0 - 1 NM accuracy 95% of the flight time 3) Final Approach - RNP 0.3 - 0.3 NM accuracy 95% of the flight time 4) Advanced RNP (A-RNP) - a higher RNP standard mandatory for RNP AR

Question 58

What are the basic attitude instrument flying skills? a. What are the common errors?

Answer 58

- Cross check - Instrument interpretation - Aircraft control a. Fixation - Omission - Emphasis

Question 59

What are 2 methods of attitude instrument flying?

Answer 59

Control and Performance Method and Primary and Supporting Method

Question 60

Describe the Control and Performance method of attitude instrument flying.

Answer 60

Divides the cockpit panel into control instruments and performance instruments. First, set the control instruments, then monitor the performance instruments. Control - Power - tachometer or manifold pressure gauge - Attitude - attitude indicator Performance - Pitch - altimeter, VSI, ASI - Bank - heading indicator, turn coordinator, magnetic compass

Question 61

Describe the Primary and Supporting method of attitude instrument flying?

Answer 61

It divides the cockpit panel into pitch, bank, and power instruments. For a given maneuver, primary instruments provide the most essential information for pitch, bank, and power while supporting instruments back up and supplement the information presented by the primary instruments. Pitch - Attitude indicator, altimeter, ASI, VSI Bank - Attitude indicator, heading indicator, magnetic compass, turn coordinator Power - ASI, tachometer/manifold pressure gauge

Question 62

What are the required reports under IFR? a. Reg?

Answer 62

MARVELOUS VFR C500 - Missed approach - Airspeed change +-10 knots, or >5% of filed TAS, whichever is greater - Reaching a holding fix (report time and altitude) - VFR on top when an altitude change will be made - ETA change +-2 min from filed (+-3 min in North Atlantic) - Leaving a holding fix inbound - Outer marker (or fix in lieu of it) - non radar environments only - Unforecasted weather (91.183) - Safety of flight (91.183) - Vacating an altitude - Final approach fix - non radar environment only - Radio/nav/approach equipment failure - Compulsory reporting points (filled in points on IFR charts) - 500 - unable to climb/descend 500 FPM a. 91.183 and AIM 5-3-2 and 5-3-3

Question 63

What are the required position report items in a non radar environment?

Answer 63

IPTANES - ID - Position - Time - Altitude - Next fix - ETA of next fix - Supplemental info

Question 64

What are the uncharted holding clearance items? a. The charted holding clearance items?

Answer 64

- Direction of hold (N, W, S, E, etc.) - Holding fix - Radial, course, airway, route on which to hold - Leg length in miles or minutes - Direction of turns - EFC time a. Holding fix - Direction of hold - EFC

Question 65

How far ahead of the holding fix should you start the speed reduction? a. What are the 5 T's of holds? b. All hold turns should be...?

Answer 65

3 minutes a. 1) Turn 2) Twist 3) Time 4) Throttle 5) Talk b. Standard rate (3 degrees/sec), 30 degree bank, 25 degree bank if using a flight director - whichever uses the least bank angle.

Question 66

Is hold timing based on the inbound leg or outbound leg? a. Based on holding altitude, what is the mandatory time/distance of the hold leg? b. What are the holding speed restrictions based on holding altitude? c. What do you need to report to ATC when crossing the holding fix?

Answer 66

Inbound leg a. At or below 14500 MSL - 1 minute Above 14500 MSL - 1.5 minutes The outbound leg should be the specified distance from the fix b. 6000 MSL or below - 200 kn 6001 - 14000 - 230 kn 14001 and above - 265 kn *May be limited to 175 kn on some instrument approaches c. Callsign, over fix at altitude and time

Question 67

What procedure should be followed with lost comms in VFR? a. In IFR?

Answer 67

Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. a. Select the route and altitude based on AVE F MEA. - Assigned route - Vectored (fly to fix, route, airway being vectored to) - Expected - Filed - Minimum IFR altitude* - Expected ("Expect 6000 10 min after departure)* - Assigned* * fly the highest of the 3

Question 68

What is the procedure for leaving the clearance limit under lost comms?

Answer 68

- If the clearance limit is a fix for which an IAP begins - start descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC or ETA. - If it isn't a fix for which an IAP begins - at EFC or clearance limit, proceed to a fix from which an IAP begins and start the approach.

Question 69

What is the purpose of a procedure turn? a. What is the max speed? b. When should you NOT fly a procedure turn?

Answer 69

Course reversal, descent from IAF, inbound course interception a. 200 kn b. SHARP TT - Straight in clearance - Holding in lieu of a PT - Arc (DME) - Radar vectors to final - no PT on chart - Timed approach from a holding fix - Teardrop course reversal

Question 70

What are the precision approach types?

Answer 70

ILS - Instrument Landing System GLS - GBAS Landing System MLS - Microwave Landing System PAR - Precision Approach Radar TLS - Transponder Landing System

Question 71

What are the non precision approach types?

Answer 71

VOR NDB - Non Directional Beacon RNAV / RNP to LNAV or LP minimums LOC - Localizer LDA - Localizer type Directional Aid - identical to a localizer, but not aligned with the runway SDF - Simplified Directional Facility - Similar to a LOC, but with a 6 or 12 degree width. May or may not be aligned with the runway ASR - Approach Surveillance Radar

Question 72

What are the precision-like approaches?

Answer 72

- RNAV / GNSS (LNAV+VNAV and LPV minimums) - LDA with glide slope

Question 73

When can you descend to the next instrument approach segment?

Answer 73

When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of the published approach or route.

Question 74

What is a contact approach?

Answer 74

- Same as a visual approach, but you don’t need the airport in sight - It is requested by the pilot in lieu of an IAP. ATC cannot initiate these. - Must have at least 1SM visibility and remain clear of clouds until landing - Only at airports with IAPs - Pilot assumes responsibility of obstruction clearance

Question 75

What is a visual approach?

Answer 75

- It can be initiated by the pilot or ATC - Requires 1000' ceilings and 3SM visibility - Pilot must have airport in sight or preceding traffic, in which the pilot is responsible for maintaining visual separation.

Question 76

When would you initiate a missed approach?

Answer 76

- When you arrive at MAP or DA with insufficient visual reference to the runway environment (91.175) - When a safe approach is not possible - When instructed to do so by ATC

Question 77

When can you descend from MDA/DA?

Answer 77

- The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descend to landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal descent rate using normal maneuvers. - The flight visibility (or the enhanced flight visibility, if equipped) is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used. - At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: - Approach lighting system's red terminating bars or red side row bars - VASI/PAPI - REIL - Runway, runway lights, runway markings - Threshold, threshold lights, threshold markings - Touchdown zone, touchdown zone lights, touchdown zone markings

Question 78

What is a visual descent point (VDP)?

Answer 78

A defined point on the final approach course of a non precision straight in approach from which a normal descent from MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin, provided adequate visual reference is established. - Identified by a V on the descent profile - You cannot descent below MDA prior to reaching the VDP

Question 79

How do you calculate VDP?

Answer 79

In distance: VDP (in NM from threshold) = MDH / 300 Example: MDH = 600' VDP = 600 / 300 = 2 NM from threshold In time: VDP (in seconds to subtract from the time between the FAF and MAP) = MDH / 10 Example: MDH = 500' FAF to MAP = 4 min VDP = 500 / 10 = 50 sec to subtract from FAF to MAP VDP = 4 min - 50 sec = 3:10 from FAF

Question 80

What is visual descent angle?

Answer 80

A computed glide path from the FAF to the runway's TCH published for non precision approaches. Typically 3 degrees. - Does not provide obstacle clearance below MDA in the visual segment - VDAs are advisory only, pilots must still comply with all published altitudes on the procedure.

Question 81

How do you find out the descent rate for a 3 degree glide path?

Answer 81

Ground speed * 10 / 2 Example: Ground speed = 80 knots Vertical speed (FPM) = 80 * 10 = 800 / 2 = 400 FPM

Question 82

How do you calculate descent gradient? a. How do you calculate vertical speed via descent gradient? b. How do you calculate top of descent via descent angle?

Answer 82

Descent gradient (%) = tan(descent angle) * 100 Example: - 2 degrees descent angle = 3.5% gradient - 3 degrees descent angle = 5.2% gradient - 4 degrees descent angle = 7% gradient - 5 degrees descent angle = 8.7% gradient a. VS = GS * descent gradient (%) Example: GS = 380 knots Pilot selects 4 degree slope VS = 380 * 7 = 2660 FPM b. TOD = altitude to lose / (descent angle * 100) Example: Altitude to lose = 11000' Descent angle = 4 degrees TOD = 11000 / (4 * 100) = 11000 / 400 = 27.5 NM

Question 83

Other areas to study from private: - Airspace - Special Use Airspace - VFR weather minimums - Airspeed restrictions - Weather - Aeromedical factors - SVFR - LIFR/IFR/MVFR/VFR weather minimums (box) - IMSAFE, PAVE - Personal docs required - Aircraft required docs - Aircraft required inspections - NWKRAFT - Flight instruments - Types of altitude and airspeed - V-speeds - Magnetic compass errors - VDMONA - LRUs - Systems - ATOMATOFLAMES, FLAPS

Question 84

How do you calculate angle of bank for a standard rate turn?

Answer 84

Knots (TAS) / 10 * 1.5 Example: 100 KTAS Bank angle = 100 / 10 * 1.5 = 10 * 1.5 = 15 degrees

Question 85

What are the aircraft approach category speeds? a. How do you calculate what approach category your plane is in?

Answer 85

Category A = <90 knots Category B = 91-120 knots Category C = 121-140 knots Category D = 141-165 knots Category E = >165 knots a. 1.3 * stall speed in landing configuration

Question 86

What are the RVR (ft) to visibility (SM) conversions?

Answer 86

1600' = 1/4 SM 2400' = 1/2 SM 3200' = 5/8 SM 4000' = 3/4 SM 4500' = 7/8 SM 5000' = 1 SM 6000' = 1 1/4 SM

Question 87

What are the components of the ILS system?

Answer 87

GLAM - Glideslope - Localizer - Approach lighting system - Marker beacons

Question 88

What is required in an instrument proficiency check (IPC)?

Answer 88

- Air traffic clearances and procedures - Flight by reference to instruments - Navigation systems - Instrument approach procedures - Emergency operations - Post flight procedures - In an airplane or flight sim appropriate for the category and class of aircraft to be flown - By an examiner, CFII, or company check pilot

Question 89

What climb gradient is required when crossing a fix which has a higher MEA on the next route segment if no MCA is listed?

Answer 89

- Below 5000’ - 150ft/nm - 5000-10000 - 120 ft/nm - 10000 and above - 100 ft/nm