Pimp Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Who came up with the total contact cast, Where and for what disease

A

Brand, in India, for Hansen’s disease

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2
Q

4 rules for treating pilon fractures

A
  • Fibular reduction
  • Tibial plafond reduction
  • Fill void with cancellous bone
  • Stabilize medial tibia with a buttress plate
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3
Q

At what concentration do you consider there to be a bacterial load

A

10^6

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4
Q

What is gout of the first MPJ called

A

Pedagra

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5
Q

What procedures is use of a tourniquet contraindicated (4)

A

-Revascularization procedures, infection, sickle cell and open fractures

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6
Q

What antibiotic results in increased CPK levels

A

Daptomycin

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7
Q

What is the medical term for finding gas in the soft tissue

A

emphysema

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8
Q

What antibiotic is contraindicated in pts with CHF

A

Timentin

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9
Q

Who founded triple arthrodesis

A

Ryerson

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10
Q

Who founded arthroscopy

A

Tagaki

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11
Q

What is Fournier disease

A

gangrene of the penis

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12
Q

What is the origin of protamine sulfate

A

salmon sperm

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13
Q

What is another name for the lateral extensile excision

A

Berniski and Sangoren

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14
Q

What does HMPAO stand for

A

hexamethylpropylenamine oxime

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15
Q

What is May -Thurner syndrome

A

the left LE is swollen all the way to the thigh due to the left common external iliac artery compressing over the right common external iliac vein.

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16
Q

What is a locking plate and when is the best time to use it

A

A locking plate provides no compression of any sort

-great for osteoporosis, bone deficits and comminution

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17
Q

What is Coonrad bugg trapping

A

When the medial malleolus cannot be brought back into place due to the PTT

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18
Q

What are the components of triple antibiotic

A
  • Bacitracin
  • Polymyxin
  • Neomycin
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19
Q

What antibiotics should be used to treat MRSA

A
  • Clindamycin
  • Bactrim
  • Linezolid
  • Tetracycline
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20
Q

What antibiotics should be used to treat pseudomonas

A
  • Fortaz
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Timentin
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Imipenem
  • Atreonam
  • Zosyn
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21
Q

What sign is indicative of a unicameral bone cyst

A

fallen fragment sign

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22
Q

What does AO stand for

A

Arbeitgemeinschaft fur Osteosynthesefragen

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23
Q

What does TMP/SMX stand for

A

Trimethoprim/ Sulfamethoxazole

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24
Q

What sign presents to the medial calcaneus in flatfeet

A

Pizogenic sign which is fat papule herniations

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25
What is the ESR value to be expected with osteomyelitis
60-70
26
What are the 3 ways that a wound vac works
1) To get rid of stagnant bacteria 2) Promote new blood flow to the area with growth factors and neutrophils 3) Allows for even growth of the wound bed, and keeps callouses from forming
27
When is the Evans osteotomy contraindicated
with a z-foot, and met adductus
28
Why is the Evans osteotomy cut made where it is
Made 1.5 cm proximal of CC joint because this is the halfway point between the anterior articulating surface and middle articulating surface of the calcaneus
29
What is congential vertical talus known as
Known as Persian slipper
30
What test differentiates between FF and RF cavus foot
Coleman block test
31
What does TLS stand for and who invented it
Tiny little sucker Kalish
32
What is the medical terminology for pain out of proportion
allodynia
33
What is the angle formed by the metatarsal parabola
142 degrees
34
What procedure should be done for a flexible FF driven cavus
Jones Tenosuspension
35
What procedure should be done for a rigid FF driven cavus
DFWO
36
What procedure should be done for a flexible RF driven cavus
Dwyer osteotomy
37
What procedure should be done for a rigid RF driven cavus
Triple arthrodesis
38
What is the blair procedure and what should it be used for
When the body of the talus is removed, the foot is fused in 15 degrees dorsiflexion. This procedure is used for AVN of the talus
39
What oral meds are okay to give during Charcot Neuropathy
bisphosphonates
40
Why do you measure screw size beore tapping
Because you may get a false reading by engaging one of the threads instead of the far cortex
41
How long do you brace with the Ponsetti method?
recommended for 2-4 years
42
What do you do after bracing with the Ponsetti method
brace for 2 additional years with the Dennis-Browne bar
43
Define dive punch piece
- Triangular wedge of tibia that drives the rest of a pilon fracture
44
What does nitinol stand for
Nickel Titanium Naval Ordinance Laboratory
45
Why transect tendons proximally during amputations
- to prevent infection from tracking up tendons
46
What telltale descriptor is used to describe OM bony changes
cortical disruption
47
What is the medical term for seizures that occur with alcohol withdrawal?
delirium tresms
48
In a Senn retractor what is opposite the "rake side"
The vein side -great for holding back veins and other vascular structures
49
What layer of the nerve does a Morton's neuroma usually develop in
in the epineurium
50
What is the medical term for rolled edges along wound bed
epipilee
51
What is the term for congenitally missing fibula
fibular hemimelia
52
What does ABD stand for
Army battle dressings
53
Difference in shapes between medial and lateral OCD's of the talus
medial: cup (PIMP CUP) lateral: wafer
54
What 2 instruments can be used to get a bone biopsy
Jamshidi needle and Keith needle
55
What does the CAM in CAM boot stand for
controlled ankle motion
56
What bacteria is incorporated into Santyl
Chlostridium histolytica
57
What is the Historical name for arthroplasty procedures and when was it founded
"post procedure" founded in 1882
58
What skin sign is seen in calciphylaxis
Tram track sign
59
What is the depth of 1st met-cuneiform joint
3.23 cm
60
What 3 products are used exclusively in the OR to prevent excessive bleeding
Surgicell Gelfoam Arista
61
What is the telltale histological difference between exostosis and tumor
Exostosis contain hyaline cartilage around the periphery Tumor contains fibrocartilage around the periphery
62
What is the difference in PSI versus pulse lavage and bulb lavage
Pulse lavage: 12-15psi Bulb lavage: 3-5 psi
63
What is the MRI classification system for PT tendon pathology
conti
64
What is the intra-op classification system for PT tendon pathology
funk
65
What are the side effects of steroid use
- Leukocytosis - increased wound healing time - hyperglycemia - hypopigmentation
66
What are the names of the 5 neuromas in the foot, and their location
- Joplins neuroma: medial to 1st MPJ - Hooters neuroma: between 1st,2nd MPJ - Hauser's neuroma: between 2nd and 3rd MPJ - Morton's neuroma: between 3rd and 4th MPJ - Iselin's neuroma: between 4th and 5th MPJ
67
What are the most common etiologies for Brachymetatarsia
- Turner's syndrome | - Down's syndrome