Pituitary, Thyroid, Adrenal Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

Most common cause of hyperthyroidism

A

Grave’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the mechanism of Grave’s Disease

A

Autoimmune → circulating Thyroid Stimulating Immunoglobulins (TSI) → binds to TSH receptor on thyroid → makes lots of thyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F: Grave’s Disease presents as diffuse asymmetric goiter.

A

False: symmetric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Exophthalmus and infiltrative dermopathy are specific to which disease?

A

Grave’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name the diseases (2)
• Focal and/or diffuse hyperplasia of thyroid follicular cells
• Activating somatic mutations of genes for TSH receptor

A

Toxic Adenoma

Toxic Multinodular Goiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name the disease:

Inflammation/destruction of thyroid gland

A

Thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

High fT4, low TSH suggests:

A

Thyroid origin of hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

High fT4, high TSH suggests:

A

Pituitary origin of hyperthyroidism
(Central hyperthyroidism)

High TSH due to oversecretion by tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If central hyperthyroidism, next diagnostic step is:

A

Pituitary MRI to find tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If thyroiditis, next diagnostic step is:

A

Check ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If Grave’s disease, next diagnostic step is:

A

Check TSI antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The best test for diagnosis of type of hyperthyroidism is:

A

Radioactive thyroid imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Inflamed thyroid (thyroiditis), damaged membrane show ____ radioiodine uptake.

A

None/ ~0-2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Over-functioning thyroid show ____ radioiodine uptake.

A

> 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Treatment for thyroiditis

A

Beta blocker ONLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Drug of choice for treating pregnancy and lactation patients with hyperthyroidism

A

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name 2 drugs that inhibit synthesis of thyroid hormone

A

Methimazole

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T/F: Surgery is one of the recommendations for treating hyperthyroidism

A

False. Not recommended since it can be treated non surgically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Treatment regimen for pregnant patient with hyperthyroidism

A

PTU for 1st trimester → then methimazole

Methimazole has teratogenic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Primary adrenal insufficiency is caused by:

Deficiency in:

A

Destruction of adrenal cortex

glucocorticoid
minderalocorticoid
adrenal androgen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
All of the following are causes of Primary adrenal insufficiency EXCEPT:
A. Polyglandular failure syndromes
B. Tuberculosis/histoplasmosis
C. Sarcoma 
D. Hemorrhage
A

C. Lung/breast carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused by:

A

Deficient ACTH release from pituitary
or
Deficient hypothalamic release of CRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the expected levels in primary adrenal insufficiency:
Cortisol:
Aldosterone:
ACTH:

A

Cortisol: low
Aldosterone: low
ACTH: high

24
Q

Describe the expected levels in secondary adrenal insufficiency:
Cortisol:
Aldosterone:
ACTH:

A

Cortisol: low
Aldosterone: normal
ACTH: low

25
Primary OR secondary adrenal insufficiency: | Hyperkalemia
Primary
26
Primary OR secondary adrenal insufficiency: | Fluid depletion
Primary
27
Primary OR secondary adrenal insufficiency: | Hyperpigmentation
Primary
28
Failure to suppress low dose (1 mg) overnight dexamethasone suppression test suggests:
Cushing's (ACTH-dependent)
29
Increased ACTH suggests (2)
Pituitary tumor | Ectopic
30
Decreased ACTH suggests (2)
Adrenal tumor | Exogenous
31
>50% suppression in high dose DST suggests
Pituitary Cushing's
32
No suppression in high dose DST suggests
ectopic Cushing's
33
T/F: Primary hypothyroidism is less common than secondary hypothyroidism.
False. 95% are primary.
34
``` All of the following are causes of primary hypothyroidism EXCEPT: A. Autoimmune B. Destructive C. Hypothalamic disorder D. Drug induced E. Hereditary ```
C. This is secondary hypothyroidism cause. Also pituitary disorder.
35
``` All of the following are symptoms of hypothyroidism EXCEPT: A. Cold intolerance B. Weight loss C. Dry skin D. Edema ```
B. Weight gain
36
Most common form of hypothyroidism
Hashimoto's Thyroidism
37
Thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPO) are found in what disease?
Hashimoto's
38
Low fT4, high TSH suggests
Primary hypothyroidism: thyroid origin
39
Low fT4, low TSH suggests
Secondary hypothyroidism
40
Preferred therapy for hypothyroidism
Levothyroxine (T4)
41
Goal of therapy for primary hypothyroidism
Achieve normal TSH
42
Goal of therapy for secondary hypothyroidism
Achieve normal fT4 TSH will always be low
43
T/F: Most thyroid nodules are malignant.
False. 95% are benign adnenomas or cysts | Only 5% are malignant
44
``` Which of the following is NOT a cause of prolactin elevation? A. Pregnancy B. Secondary hypothyroidism C. Antipsychotics, metoclopramide D. Renal failure ```
B. Primary hypothyroidism: elevated TRH stimulates lactotrophs --> pituitary enlargement Also: prolactin secreting pituitary tumor
45
Name the 2 dopamine agonists used to treat elevated prolactin
Bromocriptine | Cabegoline
46
T/F: Nausea is a worse in Bromocriptine than Cabegoline
True Minimize effect by increasing dose slowly
47
T/F: The most effective treatment for elevated prolactin is surgery to remove the prolactinoma.
False. DA agonist therapy is VERY effective. • Surgery NOT uniformly effective o High rate of recurrence o Risk of damaging healthy pituitary • Prolactinomas are the only pituitary tumors treated medically
48
GnRH is secreted from ____ and stimulates ____ to secrete ___.
hypothalamus anterior pituitary LH, FSH
49
Expected lab values in primary hypogonadism Testosterone: LH/FSH:
Testosterone: low | LH/FSH: high
50
Expected lab values in secondary hypogonadism Testosterone: LH/FSH:
Testosterone: low | LH/FSH: low or low-normal
51
T/F: 90% of pituitary masses are cystic lesions.
False. Pituitary adenoma
52
What test assess for acromegaly?
IGF-1 produced in liver GHRH (hypothalamus) --> GH (pituitary) --> IGF-1 (liver) GH is too pulsatile and unpredictable to be accurate.
53
What would expect IGF-1 to be in acromegaly?
Elevated Low IGF-1 would indicate no GH to stimulate IGF-1 production --> no acromegaly
54
Compression of pituitary stalk by a tumor would cause ___
high prolactin due to interrupting flow of DA from hypothalamus that normally inhibit prolactin secretion.
55
Primary adrenal insufficiency treated with:
glucocorticoid AND mineralocorticoid
56
Secondary adrenal insufficiency treated with:
glucocorticoid only
57
Stress dosing: Dose of glucocorticoid should be ____ when patient is sick or under increased physical stress.
doubled/tripled