PJM Flashcards
(44 cards)
An architect has received a site survey for a ground-up building located in an area that was previously marshland. The site survey has documented large amounts of groundwater which may cause hydrostatic pressure to build up against the foundation of the building when it’s set in place. Furthermore, septic lines and other utilities exist at the location where the architect had planned to have structural pilings. The building structure will need to be redesigned to account for these findings.
To help resolve these issues, which type of engineer should be engaged by the design team?
a. foundations engineer
b. plumbing engineer
c. civil engineer
d. hydraulic engineer
A
_____
a. foundations engineer
Correct. Foundations engineers, a subtype of structural engineers, are used for particularly difficult or complex problems relating to the foundation of a building. These engineers specialize in designing around subsurface conditions such as septic lines and groundwater.
b. plumbing engineer
Incorrect. Plumbing engineers are engaged when services relating to water supply and waste disposal are required.
c. civil engineer
Incorrect. Civil engineers are engaged to help design infrastructure such as roads and bridges. They may review and design foundations for such structures, but they would not design a building foundation.
d. hydraulic engineer
Incorrect. Hydraulic engineers are responsible for construction of dams and general movement of large bodies of water. The presence of groundwater at a site would not be a reason to consult a hydraulic engineer.
Which of the following should be included in the firm’s performance management process? Check the four that apply.
a. grievance reports
b. project specific feedback
c. self-evaluation
d. supervisor appraisal
e. performance coaching
f. goal setting
C, D, E, F
_______
a. grievance reports
Incorrect. Grievances can be further discussed during reviews if necessary, but employee grievances should be aired if and when they arise and not kept until a performance review.
b. project specific feedback
Incorrect. Employee reviews should paint a holistic picture of an employee’s performance and should not focus on a particular project or event. Projects and events can be used to show success or weakness, but specific project-related issues should be discussed at the time of occurrence or directly after the project is complete.
c. self-evaluation
Correct. Self-evaluations allow the employee to identify the areas in which they feel they are strong as well as where they feel they could improve. This self-evaluation can provide insight for the employer into how the employee feels they are performing; it should be compared to the supervisor’s evaluation.
d. supervisor appraisal
Correct. The supervisor should always include their own evaluation of the employee’s performance and provide constructive feedback for them. This allows the employee to have clearly defined goals for improvement.
e. performance coaching
Correct. The supervisor should provide insight and coaching into ways they feel the employee can improve. This coaching can be done at the review as well as throughout the year to ensure continuous improvement.
f. goal setting
Correct. Setting goals during an employee review allows for the employee to establish milestones to strive for. The list of goals can be utilized as a benchmark at the next review period.
In a CMc project delivery approach, what is the most critical factor that must be agreed upon by all parties?
a. project design
b. team roles
c. construction cost
d. project schedule
B
____
a. project design
Incorrect. The project design is provided by the architect for review and coordination with the owner and CMc. However, these roles and responsibilities must first be established in the contracts.
b. team roles
Correct. The architect and the CMc are each in separate contracts with the owner, but not with each other. To avoid potential conflicts, team roles and responsibilities must be clearly defined with the owner and coordinated in each separate contract.
c. construction cost
Incorrect. The construction cost is established by the CMc in coordination with the architectural drawings and approval by the owner. However, these roles and responsibilities must first be established in the contracts.
d. project schedule
Incorrect. The project schedule is established by the CMc in coordination with the architect and the owner. However, these roles and responsibilities must first be established in the contracts.
An architecture firm is selecting consultants to include in their response to a request for proposals (RFP) for a high-profile and sustainable hospital project. The firm has a few small hospital projects in their portfolio, but they are looking to boost their resume with the help of their consultants.
Which of the following factors should the architect consider when selecting consultants for this project? Check the four that apply.
a. firm size
b. previous working relationship
c. design process
d. consultant fee
e. office location
f. project expertise
A, B, C, F
___________
a. firm size
Correct. It is important to make sure the consultant and their team can complete the potential project workload. If it is a large project, the consultant needs to have the staff available to complete the work.
b. previous working relationship
Correct. A good working relationship with a consultant is typically one of the most important considerations when choosing a team, as it can have major benefits for the efficiency of the project.
c. design process
Correct. The consultant’s design process is an important factor when putting together a design team. The architect and consultant need to have similar design processes or processes that work well together to ensure the best outcome and working relationship.
d. consultant fee
Incorrect. Though fee is an important factor in selecting a consultant, often a better consultant for a project may come with a higher price. It is important to weigh fees against the potential boost they can give to a resume.
e. office location
Incorrect. With current technology, it is not a top priority to have the consultants nearby unless the owner is requesting several visits by the consultants. Many project meetings can be held remotely or discussed via phone call, making the location of the consultant not of high importance.
f. project expertise
Correct. A consultant may be added to the team to provide a critical missing piece of knowledge that the other members of the design team can’t provide. Choosing a consultant who is an expert in a particular field can boost an architect’s credentials in areas where they lack experience.
A project manager in a 65-person architecture firm is evaluating the 10% cost overruns that the firm has incurred during the design development process for a dental office building project. There have been no owner revisions to the project.
What is the first thing that the firm should consider to address the budget problem?
a. revising the fee
b. restaffing the project
c. revising the schedule
d. reducing scope of work
B
____
a. revising the fee
Incorrect. The fee for the project is established in the contract with the owner. An attempt to increase the fee to cover the architect’s cost overruns would probably not be acceptable to the owner.
b. restaffing the project
Correct. A change to the design team may be the best corrective action that the firm can take. Reevaluation of staff production costs and experience may allow the firm to rebalance staffing for the project and make up the overruns.
c. revising the schedule
Incorrect. Revising the established schedule with the owner may not help the budget and could negatively affect the firm’s relationship with the owner.
d. reducing scope of work
Incorrect. The scope of work is established in the contract with the owner. A reduction in scope would probably impact the quality and completeness of the overall project and would require owner approval.
Which of the following items help the design team understand and meet deliverables? Check the three that apply.
a. responsibility matrices
b. client requirements
c. subconsultant schedules
d. project schedule
e. permit submittal requirements
f. construction schedule
A, B, D
______
a. responsibility matrices
Correct. This helps the project team understand which team member is responsible for which portion(s) of the deliverable.
b. client requirements
Correct. This will typically include the project scope and inform the overall deliverables for the project. This helps inform what type of work needs to be done, and how much.
c. subconsultant schedules
Incorrect. While it is important for the design team to be aware of consultant schedules, subconsultants are the responsibility of the consultants. If a deadline cannot be met by a subconsultant, the consultant is responsible for finding a solution.
d. project schedule
Correct. Knowledge of the project schedule is crucial to ensuring that deadlines and milestones are met.
e. permit submittal requirements
Incorrect. The scenario mentions that the services for which the team is contracted are only schematic design and design development. Permit submittal requirements from the jurisdiction do not need to be considered at these stages.
f. construction schedule
Incorrect. Because the project is only for schematic design and design development, a construction timeline would not necessarily offer pertinent information to help the design team understand and meet the deliverables.
Why would a post-occupancy evaluation be advantageous for this type of project? Check the three that apply.
a. to identify building system and operational issues
b. to gain information for future projects
c. to verify completion of the work by the contractor
d. to analyze the contractor’s performance
e. to assess owner/user satisfaction
f. to reduce the owner’s insurance costs
A, B, E
______
a. to identify building system and operational issues
Correct. A post-occupancy evaluation can identify problems that may be easily corrected to improve building performance and use.
b. to gain information for future projects
Correct. A post-occupancy evaluation can assess how a building has met the design goals of a project and provide valuable information for future project development.
c. to verify completion of the work by the contractor
Incorrect. Completion of the work is established before closeout of the construction phase of the project.
d. to analyze the contractor’s performance
Incorrect. A post-occupancy evaluation assesses how the building performs and is used. It does not address contractor performance issues.
e. to assess owner/user satisfaction
Correct. Surveys of stakeholders and users can evaluate satisfaction with the building design, function, management, and comfort. This is helpful to address areas of concern as well as for future new building development.
f. to reduce the owner’s insurance costs
Incorrect. Although the owner’s insurance costs may be reduced based on some design or fire protection features, this would not be a reason to perform a post-occupancy evaluation.
Which of the following should the architect include in the site visit report? Check the three that apply.
a. Floor 1 construction appears approx. 80% complete
b. tile is being installed using an alternate method of installation
c. the observed plumbing rough-ins were 36 inches on center
d. the observed casework drawer slides were not parallel to the floor
e. material storage on the site appears improper and may cause damage
f. unsafe conditions are present on floor 3
A, C, D
___________
a. Floor 1 construction appears approx. 80% complete
Correct. The purpose of site visits is to observe construction progress, the overall quality of work, and general conformance to design documents.
b. tile is being installed using an alternate method of installation
Incorrect. This is means and methods.
c. the observed plumbing rough-ins were 36 inches on center
Correct. The purpose of site visits is to observe construction progress, the overall quality of work, and general conformance to design documents. This would be an appropriate statement to include as it potentially speaks to conformance with the design documents, and it also speaks to the construction progress.
d. the observed casework drawer slides were not parallel to the floor
Correct. The purpose of site visits is to observe construction progress, the overall quality of work, and general conformance to design documents. This would be an appropriate statement to include as it speaks to the quality of work.
e. material storage on the site appears improper and may cause damage
Incorrect. The contractor is responsible for materials storage. The architect should not make comments on storage or potential detriments to materials caused by the contractor’s actions. If the architect is concerned about the materials, they should inspect the materials once installed.
f. unsafe conditions are present on floor 3
Incorrect. It is not within the architect’s roles and responsibilities to determine site safety. If the architect believes something is unsafe, they should speak with the site superintendent. This does not need to be written in a report.
An architect is working on a proposal for a new regional coffee shop with a drive-through window on the site of an old gas station. They would like to develop a working relationship with the owner/developer, who is planning to build five of these coffee shops on a tight schedule in the next two years.
Which of the following risk factors should the architect also consider when determining their fees? Check the three that apply.
a. owner
b. permit costs
c. additional services
d. site
e. schedule
f. reimbursable expenses
A, D, E
_________
a. owner
Correct. Working with a new owner can be a great source of risk to the architect if the expectations and level of scope and service are not agreed upon. There is also a risk in the owner’s ability or willingness to pay the architect.
b. permit costs
Incorrect. The general contractor is typically responsible to pay for permit costs within their fees or as a reimbursable expense to the owner. This is typically not an additional risk for the architect to consider in their fees.
c. additional services
Incorrect. Reimbursement for additional services is typically provided for in the owner/architect agreement, separate from the base fee. Any risk for non-payment is a consideration that would fall under the owner risk factor.
d. site
Correct. Specific site conditions are a project-specific risk to the architect. There may be unknown underground site contamination from the previous gas station that would need remediation. This could result in extra time and fees for coordination and delays.
e. schedule
Correct. A tight schedule can be risky as it can be difficult for the architect to ensure that all aspects of the project are fully coordinated within the allocated time. The architect should consider an increased fee to provide accelerated services.
f. reimbursable expenses
Incorrect. Reimbursable expenses are typically provided for in the owner/architect agreement, separate from the base fee. Any risk for non-payment is a consideration that would fall under the owner risk factor.
Developing a project design schedule on a DBB project
- First distribute your design fee across the project phases
Start with the gross fee agreed upon in the owner-architect agreement
Then subtract out consultant fees and direct expenses (site travel) to see how much architectural fee you’re left with
- With the remaining architectural fee, divide the project into phases and allocate a dollar amount per phase
SD 15% (perhaps that’s 50k of the total budget)
DD 20%
CD 45%
CA 20%
- Review the project milestones in the B101 and make sure your design schedule meets these dates
- One you know each phases duration and the fee allocated to that phase, evaluate your staff member’s billing rates utilization rates, and knowledge to correctly staff the project
What can you do if time spent and labor costs exceed the projections in the work plan?
Adjust staffing
Reduce time spent on other tasks
Take money from the contingency
What’s a zoning variance?
They can be granted by the AHJ when a particular hardship exists for the project that makes it impossible to comply with an aspect of the zoning ordinance
Ie. an irregularly shaped lot means that complying with lot coverage requirements would yield an inefficient floor plate
Variances typically happen early on, such as in SD
A complex project is under construction. The owner has contracted with two general contractors, referred to as General Contractor 1 and General Contractor 2, each with their own subcontractors. The owner also retains interior design and security consultants under separate contracts. The architect retains agreements with all engineering disciplines, although the mechanical, electrical, and plumbing (MEP) engineer works for the same company as the security consultant retained by the owner.
Which of the following scenarios represent correct information exchange protocols? Check the three that apply.
a. Security consultant coordinates work directly with MEP engineer, since they work for the same company
b. General Contractor 1 coordinates work directly with the structural engineer
c. General Contractor 1 coordinates work with the MEP engineer through the architect and owner
d. Architect coordinates tile delivery directly with the general contractor’s supplier
e. General Contractor 1 coordinates work with General Contractor 2 through the owner
f. General Contractor 1’s subcontractors coordinate work with the architect through General Contractor 1
C, E, F
_____________
a. Security consultant coordinates work directly with MEP engineer, since they work for the same company
Incorrect. Although they work for the same company, these consultants should still abide by proper communication channels, which would flow through the parties to which they are each contracted – the owner and architect, respectively.
b. General Contractor 1 coordinates work directly with the structural engineer
Incorrect. Since all engineering consultants are retained by the architect, all communications with these disciplines should occur through the architect, unless otherwise authorized by the Contract Documents.
c. General Contractor 1 coordinates work with the MEP engineer through the architect and owner
Correct. Coordination of the architect’s consultants must occur through the architect unless otherwise specified in the Contract Documents.
d. Architect coordinates tile delivery directly with the general contractor’s supplier
Incorrect. Any communication with subcontractors and suppliers retained by the general contractor should occur through the general contractor themselves.
e. General Contractor 1 coordinates work with General Contractor 2 through the owner
Correct. Coordination between the general contractors should occur through the owner, unless otherwise specified in the contract documents.
f. General Contractor 1’s subcontractors coordinate work with the architect through General Contractor 1
Correct. Subcontractors should coordinate their work through the general contractor to which they are contractually obligated.
An architect is reviewing material lead times and prices for a design-build project. Due to a steel shortage, the architect has decided to change the construction type from II-A to V-A to keep the project feasible.
Which of the following design elements will the architect need to review as a result of the change in construction type? Check the three that apply.
a. Maximum floor-area-ratio (FAR)
b. allowable building height
c. maximum floor area
d. number of exits required
e. allowable occupancies
f. structural spans
B, C, F
______
a. Maximum floor-area-ratio (FAR)
Incorrect. FAR is determined by land-use/zoning ordinances and is typically dependent on density, not construction type.
b. allowable building height
Correct. Maximum building height is dictated by building codes based on construction type. This is covered in Chapter 5 of the 2018 International Building Code.
c. maximum floor area
Correct. Floor areas are dictated by building codes based on construction type. This is covered in Chapter 5 of the 2018 International Building Code.
d. number of exits required
Incorrect. The number of exits required is based on distances to the exits and occupancy counts, not construction type.
e. allowable occupancies
Incorrect. All occupancies are allowed in buildings of all construction types. However, fire ratings and allowable floor areas may be affected, along with requirements for a sprinkler system.
f. structural spans
Correct. Steel can typically span larger distances than wood-framed construction. The change from steel to wood will likely affect the structural layout and decrease the span distance between columns and bearing walls.
When establishing a communication strategy and protocol… what is the most frequently cited cause of communication claims by an owner that the architect should consider?
a. lack of documentation for changes in project scope
b. lack of procedures to identify conflicts, errors, omissions
c. not explaining the scope of services to the owner
d. not handling project issues and disputes correctly
B
___
a. lack of documentation for changes in project scope
Incorrect. Lack of documentation and communication about changes in scope of work only accounts for approximately 10% of claims.
b. lack of procedures to identify conflicts, errors, omissions
Correct. More than half of all claims for poor communication are due to the architect not establishing procedures to identify and communicate conflicts, errors and omissions on a project.
c. not explaining the scope of services to the owner
Incorrect. Poor communication with the owner about scope of services only accounts for approximately 15% of claims.
d. not handling project issues and disputes correctly
Incorrect. An architect’s inadequate handling of project issues and disputes accounts for less than 20% of communications claims.
The architect for a 55-unit condominium building is developing their schedule for the completion of architectural services. They are coordinating the schedule with the owner to make sure everyone’s expectations are in alignment.
Which of the following items should be factored into the schedule? Check the four that apply.
a. contractor’s schedule
b. time for owner’s consultants to complete their work
c. changes in scope
d. project milestones
e. time for owner review
f. review times for authorities having jurisdiction
B, D, E, F
______
a. contractor’s schedule
Incorrect. This schedule is for the completion of the architect’s services, not those of the contractor.
b. time for owner’s consultants to complete their work
Correct. Time in the schedule should be allocated for completion of services by the owner’s consultants.
c. changes in scope
Incorrect. Unlike allowances for owner revisions, changes in scope are typically unforeseen and are not included in the schedule. However, if necessary, the schedule may be adjusted for scope changes with the owner’s approval.
d. project milestones
Correct. The schedule should include project milestones for each phase of the project, required reviews, meetings, etc.
e. time for owner review
Correct. The schedule should include allowances of time for required owner review at designated intervals.
f. review times for authorities having jurisdiction
Correct. Times should be scheduled for the review and approval of submittals to the authorities having jurisdiction over the project. Besides the standard permit procurement process, this could include reviews for submittals like zoning, landmarks, landscaping, and storm water management.
Outside of the project budget, which of the following factors should can a manager monitor to maintain compliance with the established construction document milestones and make sure a project finishes construction on time?
a. percent complete
b. break-even
c. work-in-place
d. estimate to complete
A
____
a. percent complete
Correct. Percent complete is a subjective evaluation of the current work in place for the project and is not based on the percentage of labor hours or dollar amounts that have been spent. The percentage of work completed can be used to see if work is progressing in line with the established milestone percentages.
b. break-even
Incorrect. Break-even is a multiplier factoring in direct labor costs and overhead for the project.
c. work-in-place
Incorrect. Work in place refers to billable time and expenses that have not yet been invoiced.
d. estimate to complete
Incorrect. Estimate to complete refers to the estimated labor hours and dollar amount required to complete the project from the current date. It does not give the specific percentage of work completed to date.
What period of time is considered during a life cycle analysis?
a. final completion through a building’s useful lifetime
b. design through the building’s lifetime
c. from the start of construction through substantial completion
d. from purchase through the building’s warranty period
A
___
a. final completion through a building’s useful lifetime
Correct. A life cycle analysis reviews costs or energy usage of a building over its “useful lifetime,” or the period of time in which “it can be reasonably expected to carry out its intended function.”
b. design through the building’s lifetime
Incorrect. The life cycle analysis process considers the building’s “useful lifetime,” in which it can be used for its intended purpose, to be the life cycle of the building. Thus, the life cycle period would exclude design services and begin upon completion of the building.
c. from the start of construction through substantial completion
Incorrect. This is the “construction” phase of a building.
d. from purchase through the building’s warranty period
Incorrect. The life cycle analysis extends past warranty periods and through the building’s useful lifetime.
What are the benefits of using CPM to schedule a project? Check the three that apply.
a. identifying critical tasks that affect the project schedule
b. highlighting dependencies of related construction activities
c. determining float time
d. accounting for resource allocation
e. planning is easier for large-scale, complex projects than with traditional methods
f. depicts the construction schedule in a one-page overview format
A, B, C
____
a. identifying critical tasks that affect the project schedule
Correct. Identifying critical tasks that affect the project schedule is one of the primary benefits of CPM.
b. highlighting dependencies of related construction activities
Correct. Highlighting dependencies of related construction activities is one of the benefits of CPM, which allows graphical representation of task dependencies as they affect scheduling.
c. determining float time
Correct. Using CPM can help graphically determine float time for non-critical path construction activities.
d. accounting for resource allocation
Incorrect. One of the disadvantages of CPM is that it does not account for manpower required to do the task, only the time allocated.
e. planning is easier for large-scale, complex projects than with traditional methods
Incorrect. On the contrary, large-scale planning can be more difficult to integrate with CPM.
f. depicts the construction schedule in a one-page overview format
Incorrect. The length of the schedule is not a function of the type of scheduling method used, but relates to the amount of tasks that the schedule includes.
At their site visit, the architect was asked if the outlet height could be changed to accommodate a new desk. The architect noticed that the flooring in the bank manager’s office was installed in an incorrect pattern. The remainder of the bank flooring material was on site but not yet installed.
Which of the following items should be included in the field report? Check the four that apply.
a. manager’s office flooring
b. material not installed
c. date of visit
d. outlet height revision
e. total site visits the architect will provide
f. report number
A, B, C, F
_____
a. manager’s office flooring
Correct. The architect should note any nonconforming work in the field report to allow it to be tracked and reviewed until resolution.
b. material not installed
Correct. Field reports should note any material that is stored on the project site. This allows a record of that stored material to be kept and compared when pay applications are submitted or for insurance purposes.
c. date of visit
Correct. Field reports reflect the observations made by the architect at the time of the site visit and not at any other time; they also do not include items not observed at the visit. The date and time of the visit should be noted for tracking.
d. outlet height revision
Incorrect. Project changes should be submitted through addenda, an RFI, or a bulletin for tracking. Making project changes in a field report runs the risk that the change will not be properly communicated and documented.
e. total site visits the architect will provide
Incorrect. The total number of site visits is not typically listed in a field report. This information would be found in the agreement between the owner and architect.
f. report number
Correct. The field reports should be sequentially numbered to help track progress from one visit to another. This also can help identify which report contains information on nonconforming work.
A project team consisting of an owner, architect, and contractor want to use the integrated project delivery (IPD) approach for their next project, a senior center. The three want to have one agreement amongst them that will include incentive clauses for performance and early completion. They will not create a separate legal entity for the project.
Which IPD contractual approach is most appropriate for the project team?
a. multi-party agreement
b. single-purpose entity
c. transitional
A
___
a. multi-party agreement
Correct. Using a multi-party agreement allows the project team to use one contract amongst the three of them, and does not create a separate legal entity.
b. single-purpose entity
Incorrect. Since the owner, architect, and contractor don’t want to create a separate legal entity for this project, a single-purpose entity is not an appropriate approach.
c. transitional
Incorrect. Transitional IPD project delivery uses separate owner-architect and owner-contractor agreements. Since the three want to use one agreement, this is not the correct approach.
If the MEP consultant takes a long time to respond to an RFI, is the consultant or architect responsible?
Since RFIs and submittal responses are your/the architect’s responsibility according to the B101, you’re responsible for those delays, even if they are the result of your consultant’s delay
Which of the following is true of the consultant’s services? Check the four that apply.
a. they will maintain the copyright to their portion of the design
b. they will provide the same services as the architect
c. they must maintain insurance
d. they will provide cost of work estimates for their portion of the work
e. they must act within the same standard of care as the architect
f. their insurance limits will be the same as those noted in the prime agreement
A, C, D, E
________
a. they will maintain the copyright to their portion of the design
Correct. According to C401 article 7, the consultant maintains the copyright to their portion of the design, just like the architect does.
b. they will provide the same services as the architect
Incorrect. While the consultant will provide the same scope of services for their portion of the work that the architect will, they won’t provide the same exact services. C401, article 1.2, allows the team to fill in the consultant’s portion of the work - in this case, they’d probably write ‘structural engineering’.
c. they must maintain insurance
Correct. C401, Article 2.8, notes that the consultant must maintain insurance at limits that can be filled in before signing the agreement.
d. they will provide cost of work estimates for their portion of the work
Correct. C401, article 6, notes that the consultant will provide cost of work estimates for their portion of the work. This helps the architect be accurate when preparing a cost of work for the project, because they can incorporate the costs that each consultant provides into their cost of work estimate.
e. they must act within the same standard of care as the architect
Correct. C401, article 2.1, notes the standard of care that the consultant must meet. It’s the same standard of care found in the B101 agreement between the owner and the architect. It’s important to the architect, from a liability perspective, that their consultants have agreed to the same standard of care that they have.
f. their insurance limits will be the same as those noted in the prime agreement
Incorrect. AIA C401, article 2.8, allows the architect and consultant to set insurance limits that are appropriate for the scope of work of the consultant. A structural engineer for a supertall skyscraper will require higher insurance limits than the landscape designer on the same project, because the risk of their respective services leading to a claim are different based on their scopes of work.
An architect is working with an inexperienced client at the beginning of a project, where the team is trying to determine which delivery method is most appropriate for the project. The owner has a preference for only having one contract between them and another party on the project team.
Which of the following delivery methods is appropriate? Check the two that apply.
a. Design Negotiate Build (DNB)
b. Design Build (DB)
c. Design-Bid-Build (DBB)
d. Transitional Integrated Project Delivery (IPD)
e. CM as Agent (CM-A)
f. CM as Constructor (CMc)
B & E
_______
a. Design Negotiate Build (DNB)
Incorrect. On DBB projects, the owner has a separate contract with the architect and contractor.
b. Design Build (DB)
Correct. In design-build projects, the owner signs one contract with the design-build entity. Sometimes, in contractor-led DB, the owner sings an agreement with the contractor, who hires the architect. Still, the owner has just one contract.
c. Design-Bid-Build (DBB)
Incorrect. On DBB projects, the owner has a separate contract with the architect and contractor.
d. Transitional Integrated Project Delivery (IPD)
Incorrect. Transitional IPD agreements include separate agreements for the owner-architect and owner-contractor relationships.
e. CM as Agent (CM-A)
Correct. When the owner hires a CM as an agent, the CM hires the architect and contractor directly on behalf of the owner.
f. CM as Constructor (CMc)
Incorrect. On CMc projects, the owner has a separate contract with the architect and construction manager as constructor.
