PLABABLE FOR PA QUESTIONS

Question 1

Out of the following, which one is not a complication of Eczema?

1) Impetigo
2) Molluscum
3) Sleep disturbance
4) Eczema herpeticum
4) Arthritis
6) Depression
7) Behavioural problems

Answer 1

Arthritis

Question 2

Arthritis is a complication of what skin condition?

Answer 2

Psoriasis

Question 3

What imaging is offered to a patient presenting with ureteric calculi?

Answer 3

Non-contrast CT KUB

Question 4

What imaging is offered to a pregnant patient with a kidney stone?

Answer 4

US KUB

Question 5

What is the most common causative bacteria of pyelonephritis?

Answer 5

E coli

Question 6

What are the triad of symptoms of pyelonephritis that differentiate it from a normal UTI?

Answer 6

Fever
Loin/back pain
Nausea/vomiting

Question 7

How do you manage a non-pregnant patient with pyelonephritis? (either one)

Answer 7

Cefalexin 7-10 days

Co-amoxiclav 7-10 days

Question 8

What is the first line management for impetigo?

Answer 8

Topical fusidic acid for 5 days and hygiene measures

Question 9

What advice should you give to parents about school exclusion in a child presenting with impetigo?

Answer 9

Stay off school until lesions have crusted over and 48 hours after starting antibiotics

Question 10

What are the symptoms suggestive of Paget’s disease? (4)

Answer 10

Bone pain
Hearing loss
Change in facial shape
Raised ALP

Question 11

What is paget’s disease?

Answer 11

Disorder of bone turnover where there is disorganised formation and reabsorption leading to bone enlargement and deformity that increases risk of fractures

Question 12

What two bones does Paget’s disease normally affect?

Answer 12

Long bones

Skull

Question 13

What lab findings are indicative of Paget’s disease?

Answer 13

Raised ALP with normal calcium

Question 14

What is the management of Paget’s disease?

Answer 14

Bisphosphonates

Question 15

What is the initial thing you should do in a patient presenting with new acute urinary obstruction?

Answer 15

Admit

Question 16

How long before a catheter is inserted should an alpha blocker be started for urinary retention?

Answer 16

At least 24 hours

Question 17

What treatment do you prescribe for the mother and for the baby if a baby above 4 months presents with oral thrush (even if the mother has no breastfeeding symptoms?)

Answer 17

Miconazole cream - mother
Miconazole gel - baby
(anti-fungal)

Question 18

What is myelodysplastic syndrome?

myeoid cells have gone spastic

Answer 18

Syndrome where the myeloid bone marrow cells do not mature properly and do not form healthy bloody cells

Question 19

What three things would you see on a FBC to confirm myelodysplastic syndrome?

Answer 19

Anaemia
Neutropenia
Thrombocytopenia

Question 20

What is the first line investigation for myelodysplastic syndrome?

Answer 20

Bone marrow aspiration with iron stain

Question 21

Name 4 risk factors of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?

Answer 21

1) Repetitive strain
2) Acromegaly
3) Rheumatoid arthritis
4) Hypothyroidism

Question 22

What nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?

Answer 22

Median nerve

Question 23

How do patients present with carpal tunnel syndrome? (onset, when it’s worse, symptoms)

Answer 23

Gradual onset
Intermittent
Worse at night

Numbness
Paraesthesia
Pain
Weakness

Question 24

What are the two special tests for carpal tunnel syndrome?

Answer 24

Phalen’s test - flexion

Tinnel test - tap

Question 25

What is the primary investigation for establishing the diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome?

Answer 25

Nerve conduction studies

Question 26

What is the initial treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

Answer 26

Wrist splints at night for 4 weeks

Question 27

If the wrist splints do not help, what is the next treatment for carpal tunnel?

Answer 27

Steroid injections / surgery

Question 28

What are somatoform disorders?

Answer 28

Group of psychiatric disorders in which patients present with myriad of clinically significant but unexplained physical symptoms

Question 29

What is the treatment for a pt presenting with somatoform disorder alongside anxiety/depression?

Answer 29

CBT & SSRI

Question 30

What is the treatment for a pt presenting with somatoform disorder without anxiety/depression?

Answer 30

CBT

Question 31

What would you see on an x-ray for viral pneumonia?

Answer 31

Multiple focal patchy pleural infiltrates

Question 32

Pt with unexplained lymphadenopathy and leukocytosis in FBC - management?

Answer 32

2WW Haematology Cancer

Question 33

Pt with unexplained lymphadenopathy with no abnormal FBC - management?

Answer 33

2WW Head & Neck

Question 34

What is the treatment for a patient with chronic myeloid leukaemia?

Answer 34

Oral Imatinib

Question 35

What do pts with leukaemia have on their FBC?

Answer 35

Pancytopenia - low RBC - low WHC - low platelets

Question 36

What is the initial investigation for Leukaemia?

Answer 36

FBC

Question 37

What would you see on a blood film for ALL?

Answer 37

Blast cells

Question 38

What would you see on blood film for CLL?

Answer 38

Smear / smudge cells

Question 39

What would you see on a blood film for AML?

Answer 39

Blast cells --> Auer rods

Question 40

When would you see Tumour Lysis Syndrome?

Answer 40

In a patient having chemotherapy as it destroys cells and causes the release of uric acid

Question 41

In an elderly pt with lower back pain and no hx of trauma, what serious diagnosis should you think of?

Answer 41

Multiple myeloma

Question 42

What are the features of myeloma?

Answer 42

C - High calcium R - Renal failure A - Anaemia B - Bone lesions/pain

Question 43

What would you see in a pts blood suspecting myeloma?

Answer 43

- low WBC and Hb - high calcium - high ESR - High creatinine

Question 44

What would you see on an x-ray for multiple myeloma?

Answer 44

- Punched out lesions - Lytic lesions - Raindrop skull

Question 44

What would you see on an x-ray for multiple myeloma?

Answer 44

- Punched out lesions - Lytic lesions - Raindrop skull

Question 45

What is the first line management for constipation?

Answer 45

Bulk forming laxative - Isphaghula

Question 46

What is the second line management for constipation?

Answer 46

Osmotic - lactulose

Question 47

What is a contraindication for metformin?

Answer 47

eGFR less than 30

Question 48

What is a contraindication for glicazide (Sulphonylurea)?

Answer 48

Renal impairment -> hypo | High BMI ->weight gain

Question 49

What is a rectocoele?

Answer 49

Part of rectum has prolapsed into vagina, causing a bulge in the posterior wall of the vagina

Question 50

What condition is associated with a rectocele?

Answer 50

Constipation

Question 51

What is a cystocele?

Answer 51

Bladder has prolapsed into the anterior wall of the vagina

Question 52

What symptoms would be associated with a cystocele and uterine prolapse?

Answer 52

Urinary symptoms

Question 53

What is the non-conservative management of a prolapse?

Answer 53

Pessaries

Question 54

What factor is reduced in haemophilia A?

Answer 54

Factor 8

Question 55

What factor is reduced in Haemophilia B?

Answer 55

Factor 9

Question 56

What is von-willebrand disease?

Answer 56

Autosomal dominant Inherited abnormal bleeding disorder

Question 57

What medication stimulates the release of VWF in the treatment of von wilibrand disease?

Answer 57

Desmopressin

Question 58

What type of seizure is associated with lip smacking and a post-ictal state?

Answer 58

Complex partial seizure

Question 59

What are the four Fs in relation to acute cholangitis?

Answer 59

Fat Female Forty Fertile

Question 60

What is the triad for ascending cholangitis?

Answer 60

Fevers & Rigors RUQ Pain Jaundice

Question 61

What medication should you start in a patient presenting with temporal arteritis?

Question 62

What medication should you start in a patient presenting with temporal arteritis?

Answer 62

Prednisolone