Platoon Chief Exam 2024 Flashcards by Mike Cascioli

According to Operational Policy 101.00 – Rules and Regulations; a member reports for
duty more than ___ minutes past their scheduled hour will be considered to have “failed
to report”

A) 15
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60

B) 30

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Policy 109.00 – WSIB Reporting Obligations and Procedures;
who is responsible to complete the injured/ill worker’s accident report?

A) The injured/ill worker’s District Chief
B) The injured/ill worker’s Platoon Chief
C) The injured/ill worker’s Return to Work Services manager
D) The injured/ill worker’s Immediate Supervisor

D) The injured/ill worker’s Immediate Supervisor

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Policy 114.00 – On-Duty Members – Critically Injured or
Admitted to Hospital; The injured member’s immediate Supervisor at the time of the
accident/injury is responsible for completing and submitting the “Report of Accidental
Injury and Occupational Disease” within ___ hours of the incident to the City of Hamilton
Human Resources?

A) 8
B) 12
C) 24
D) 36

C) 24

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Policy 123.00 – Offensive Materials and Actions; a firefighter
has posted something offensive in the workplace, who is responsible for ensuring
offensive materials are not displayed in the workplace?

A) District Senior Officer
B) Officers
C) Platoon Chief
D) Assistant Deputy Chief

B) Officers

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Policy 123.00 – Offensive Materials and Actions; Officers shall
be responsible for the following:

A) Personnel violating this policy are referred to the District Senior Officer
B) Offensive materials are removed, and offensive actions cease
C) Ensuring all crew members are familiar with this policy
D) All of the Above

D) All of the Above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Guideline 212.00 – Injured Worker Checklist – Career; which
of the following is not an action for the immediate Supervisor to take?

A) The immediate Supervisor shall contact a Worker Representative from the
J.O.H.S.C.
B) The immediate Supervisor shall contact the Duty Officer at the time of the
occurrence and leave a detailed voice message
C) If seeking medical attention, the immediate Supervisor shall provide the injured
worker with the Functional Abilities Form before they leave the workplace
D) The immediate Supervisor shall complete the on-line (HES Intranet site) “Report
of Accidental Injury and Occupational Disease Form” within 24 hours of the
occurrence

C) If seeking medical attention, the immediate Supervisor shall provide the injured
worker with the Functional Abilities Form before they leave the workplace

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire
Department Peer Support; who may request the Peer Support Team to attend for
appropriate intervention?

A) The Company Officer only
B) The Senior Officer only
C) Any individual involved
D) The Deputy Chief only

C) Any individual involved

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire
Department Peer Support; a ___________ is a structured group discussion typically
conducted with homogenous groups, ideally within 2-5 days post incident.

A) Defusing
B) Debriefing
C) Crisis Intervention
D) Post Incident Analysis

B) Debriefing

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire
Department Peer Support; a ___________ is typically a small group (<20; usually the
crews involved) in a structured discussion regarding a critical incident, and is conducted
shortly after the incident, ideally during the same shift, primarily as an educational
process

A) Post Incident Analysis
B) Debriefing
C) Crisis Intervention
D) Defusing

D) Defusing

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire
Department Peer Support; which of the following would be a critical incident and/or
traumatic event causing an Occupational Stress Injury?

A) Serious injury or death of a civilian resulting from HFD operations
B) Death of a patient following extraordinary and prolonged expenditure of physical
and emotional energy during rescue efforts
C) Events that seriously threaten a firefighter’s life
D) All of the Above

D) All of the Above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; which of the following
reporting guidelines is incorrect?:

A) Upon return to the station, all Career and Volunteer Operations Officers, who
responded on an apparatus or who were in charge of a crew on the fire
ground shall complete the appropriate sections of the incident report within
two (2) hours of their apparatus returning to the station.
B) All officers are to complete their applicable incident report sections as
directed in the HFD Fire Incident Reporting Manual
C) Unless otherwise directed, all pending reports are to be completed by the
Career Officers before they go off-duty. Should a call come in close to shift
change, it is expected that the officer will complete the report and submit the
associated overtime
D) All applicable areas/fields of reports (based on the type of incident) shall be
completed unless the reporting officer is of the opinion that no significant
damage or injury resulted from the incident or actions of the fire department.

D) All applicable areas/fields of reports (based on the type of incident) shall be
completed unless the reporting officer is of the opinion that no significant
damage or injury resulted from the incident or actions of the fire department

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Guideline 301.00 - Incident Reporting; the Officer’s
Supplemental and the (Master) Incident Report should be supplemented by additional
details provided from the Officer’s __________ from the scene?

A) Observations
B) Notes
C) Assigned Tasks
D) Actions

B) Notes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; the Officer’s
Supplemental shall be completed in ________ detail to indicate the actions of the
Officer and crew. This space is to be used in the same manner as the narrative area on
the (Master) Incident Report.

A) Little
B) Minimal
C) Great
D) Limited

C) Great

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; Company Officers
observing Fire Code violations or concerns (not immediately dangerous to life and
health) at a property attended by HFD shall report such to the
______________________ using the Incident Action Request.

A) Platoon Chief
B) District Chief
C) The Senior Officer for that District
D) Fire Prevention Bureau

D) Fire Prevention Bureau

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; Company Officers
observing serious Fire Code violations (immediately dangerous to life and health) in a
property attended by the HFD, that Officer shall notify the:

A) Platoon Chief
B) District Chief
C) The Senior Officer for that District
D) Fire Prevention Bureau

C) The Senior Officer for that District

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Guideline 305.00 Submission of Lists/Damage Reports on
FDM (#437); if an emergency situation requiring IMMEDIATE repair arises after 1700
hours and before 0800 hours or on holidays or weekends, contact the
_______________________.
A) Deputy Chief
B) District Senior Officer
C) Duty Officer
D) Platoon Chief

B) District Senior Officer

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Policy 401.00 – Operating Apparatus –
Responses/Movements; Members losing their right to drive (revoked, lost, suspended,
or allowed to expire) shall immediately report the relevant conditions in writing to:

A) The Training Officer responsible for apparatus
B) Their Captain
C) Their Senior Officer
D) The Deputy Chief of Operations

C) Their Senior Officer

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Policy 401.00 – Operating Apparatus –
Responses/Movements; A copy of the employees written report of notification of loss of
driving privileges as well as the report for the renewed license status must be forwarded
to the member’s:

A) Division Chief / Deputy Chief
B) Platoon Chief / Deputy Chief
C) Division Chief / Training Division
D) Platoon Chief / Division Chief

D) Platoon Chief / Division Chief

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Guideline 408.00 – Breakdown of Apparatus; which of the
following statements is incorrect?

A) At the discretion of the Platoon Chief, during irregular hours when the Mechanical
Division is not open, the On Call Mechanic should be contacted to ascertain
whether an on-site visit by the Mechanic is feasible
B) Apparatus equipped with water tanks and immobile during weather below
freezing temperature and unable to engage the pump shall leave all inlets and
outlet valve controls in the open position in order to prevent freezing
C) Apparatus equipped with water tanks and immobile on the road during weather
below freezing temperature shall leave apparatus at idle speed, engage fire
pump and circulate water in order to prevent damage due to freezing.
D) The Mechanical Division must be contacted before using the services of any
towing company for towing or for the use of using starter cables for discharged
batteries. After hours, the On-Call Mechanic shall be contacted or the Chief
Mechanical Officer

B) Apparatus equipped with water tanks and immobile during weather below
freezing temperature and unable to engage the pump shall leave all inlets and
outlet valve controls in the open position in order to prevent freezing

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Guideline 415.00 – Damage or Theft Involving HFD Property;
what are the Senior Officer’s responsibilities for theft or vandalism?
A) In the event of unaccounted equipment, the Senior Officer may direct to initiate
searches of fire stations and apparatus using fire station personnel. A thorough
search shall take place and be documented in an email to the appropriate Deputy
Chief
B) The Senior Officer is responsible for conducting or assigning an investigation into
the theft from or malicious damage to fire stations.
C) The Senior Officer is responsible for notification of Hamilton Police Service when
equipment is lost or damaged under suspected criminal circumstances. A report
shall be filed regardless of dollar loss
D) All of the Above

D) All of the Above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Guideline 415.00 Damage or Theft Involving HFD Property;
you are an Officer in a station where there is suspected theft or vandalism of HFD
property; what action(s) are the responsibility of the Company Officer when there is
suspected theft or vandalism of HFD property.

A) The Officer is responsible for conducting or assigning an investigation into the
theft from or malicious damage to fire stations
B) The Officer shall complete all necessary documentation and notify their Senior
Officer of the occurrence
C) The Officer shall be responsible for notification of Hamilton Police Service when
equipment is lost or damaged under suspected criminal circumstances. A report
shall be filed regardless of dollar loss.
D) In the event of unaccounted equipment, the Officer may direct to initiate searches
of fire stations and apparatus using fire station personnel

B) The Officer shall complete all necessary documentation and notify their Senior
Officer of the occurrence

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Guideline 421.00 – Hearing Protection; hearing protection
shall be provided for and used by all members when exposed to noise in excess of ___
dBA caused by power tools or equipment, other than in situations where the use of such
protective equipment would create an additional hazard to the user:
A) 110
B) 90
C) 85
D) 75

B) 90

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Guideline 428.00 – Vehicle Radio Headsets; the radio
headsets have arrange up to _____ metres.
A) 250
B) 350
C) 450
D) 500

C) 450

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; the
___________ Level involves deployment of sufficient resources and personnel to meet
the objectives identified in the Incident Action Plan.

A) Strategic
B) Tactical
C) Task
D) Offensive

B) Tactical

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; the ___________ Level refers to activities normally accomplished by individual crews. A) Strategic B) Tactical C) Task D) Offensive

C) Task

According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; the ___________ Level involves the overall Command of the Incident A) Strategic B) Tactical C) Task D) Offensive

A) Strategic

According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; during active Defensive Operations, ___________ ____________ becomes critical since firefighters should not enter the fire area. A) Fire Control B) Perimeter Control C) Property Conservation D) Incident Command

B) Perimeter Control

According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; there are three simple guidelines that define acceptable levels of risk, which statement(s) is correct? A) No risk to the safety of personnel shall be acceptable when there is no possibility to save lives or property. B) Activities that present a significant risk to the safety of personnel shall be limited to situations in which there is a potential to save endangered lives. C) Activities routinely employed to protect property shall be recognized as inherent risks to the safety of members, and actions shall be taken to reduce or avoid those risks. D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; designating Command by using a unique and consistent identifier is proper practice. A) Yes - this would normally be the street name where the incident is occurring (Main Street Command), if the incident has occurred at a large complex / building; the building's name may be utilized (City Hall Command) B) No - it is only necessary for the Incident Commander to identify as ‘Command’ C) No – it is unnecessary to assume Command D) None of the above

A) Yes - this would normally be the street name where the incident is occurring (Main Street Command), if the incident has occurred at a large complex / building; the building's name may be utilized (City Hall Command)

According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; Sector Officers will be responsible for and in control of all assigned functions within their sector. Which of the following is not a responsibility of a Sector Officer? A) Ensure that operations are conducted safely B) Complete objectives assigned by Command C) Initiate, maintain and control the communication process D) Provide Command with essential and frequent progress reports

C) Initiate, maintain and control the communication process

According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; Sector Officers will be responsible for and in control of all assigned functions within their sector. Which of the following is not a responsibility of a Sector Officer? A) Coordinate actions with related activities, and adjacent sectors B) Account for all assigned personnel C) Re-direct activities as necessary D) Assume and confirm Command and take an effective position

D) Assume and confirm Command and take an effective position

According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; Sector Officers will be responsible for and in control of all assigned functions within their sector. Which of the following is not a responsibility of a Sector Officer? A) Monitor work progress B) Return companies to service and terminate command C) Monitor welfare of assigned personnel D) Request additional resources as required

B) Return companies to service and terminate command

According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; using the 10-12 radio code on arrival of the unit assuming Command is proper practice. A) Yes B) No

B) No

According to Operational Guideline 502.00 Incident Roles and Responsibilities; which of the following is a responsibility of a Sector Officer? A) Remain accountable at all times for the officers and personnel assigned to that sector B) Continuously monitor the safety of emergency operations and act as an extension of the Incident Commander’s eyes C) Responsible for the provision of resources to facilitate incident mitigation by Command D) Act as an assistant to the Incident Commander, that person gathers and records information in addition to any other duties that the Incident Commander assigns

A) Remain accountable at all times for the officers and personnel assigned to that sector

According to the Operational Guideline 503.00 – Safety Officer System; the initial company officer as the IC/ISO provides the beginning of the Incident Safety Officer System (ISOS) and ensures that _________ _________ is a priority upon arrival of the first unit and is maintained though standard transfer of Command and ISO responsibilities until the incident is stabilized or Command is terminated. A) Fire Control B) Firefighter Safety C) Property Conservation D) Hazard Identification

B) Firefighter Safety

According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; considering the level of risk, the Incident Commander will choose the proper strategy to be used at the fire scene. The strategy can change with conditions or because certain benchmarks (i.e. Primary search complete) are obtained. The strategic mode will be based on the following except: A) The rescue profile (savable occupants/survivability profile) B) The fire load (what type of fuel is burning and what's left to burn) C) The ventilation profile and the ability to perform vertical ventilation D) The building (type of construction, condition, age, etc.)

C) The ventilation profile and the ability to perform vertical ventilation

According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; what level of accountability occurs when the Incident Commander assumes the responsibility of firefighter accountability, and when personnel responding to the incident scene other than on dispatched apparatus must report to the Incident Commander and ensure that their Accountability Tag is attached to the assigned Apparatus or Crew passport prior to proceeding with assignment: A) Level 1 Crew Accountability B) Level 2 Incident Scene Accountability C) Level 3 Entry Control D) Level 3 Accountability with Entry Control

A) Level 1 Crew Accountability

According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; what level of accountability occurs when an entry control site will be established as determined by the Incident Commander and where accountability boards will be maintained to continuously record apparatus/crew assignments in the support sectors and which crews have entered the hazard zone through what entry control point(s). A) Level 1 Crew Accountability B) Level 2 Incident Scene Accountability C) Level 3 Entry Control D) Level 3 Accountability with Entry Control

D) Level 3 Accountability with Entry Control

According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; which of the following statements regarding Personnel Accountability Reports (PARs) is correct? A) Dispatch will notify the Incident Commander when personnel have been onscene for fifteen (15) minutes; P.A.R. will be initiated any time there is a change in fire fighting tactics (i.e. interior attack to an exterior attack) or the need arises; In the event of missing personnel, it will be reported that the Company Officer does not have a P.A.R. and the missing person(s) will be identified B) P.A.R. will be initiated any time there is a change in fire fighting tactics (i.e. interior attack to an exterior attack) or the need arises (i.e. missing personnel, building collapse, evacuation tones); Any individual may initiate P.A.R. through Command whenever they have cause for concern; By identifying the individual who is reported missing, it will ensure that if that person is working with another crew or out of sight of the officer, the individual can answer up or will be accounted for by the other crew member(s) C) Time notification procedure will then be repeated at twenty (20) minute intervals at the discretion of the Incident Commander; After a missing person has been identified or rescued, the P.A.R. can cease; By identifying the individual who is reported missing, it will ensure that if that person is working with another crew or out of sight of the officer, the individual can answer up or will be accounted for by the other crew member(s) D) When P.A.R. is initiated all personnel will continue with their assignments and will maintain radio silence until a P.A.R. is “declared”; Command will request a Personnel Accountability Report (P.A.R.) starting with the area of highest hazard; Anytime a RAPID INTERVENTION TEAM (R.I.T.) is deployed, upon completion of their assigned task a P.A.R. must be activated (P.A.R. shall continue while a R.I.T. is searching for missing personnel or conducting a firefighter rescue)

B) P.A.R. will be initiated any time there is a change in fire fighting tactics (i.e. interior attack to an exterior attack) or the need arises (i.e. missing personnel, building collapse, evacuation tones); Any individual may initiate P.A.R. through Command whenever they have cause for concern; By identifying the individual who is reported missing, it will ensure that if that person is working with another crew or out of sight of the officer, the individual can answer up or will be accounted for by the other crew member(s)

According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; which of the following statements is correct? A) Level 1 Staging is established at a location away from the immediate area of the incident but having good access to it; Level 1 is used when large numbers of companies and apparatus are required; Arriving companies without predetermined assignments stage in a position that gives them the most flexibility — facing in the direction of travel, out of the block where the incident is taking place B) Incoming companies without predetermined assignments take up a staged position until they receive orders from Command. They can then be quickly deployed to areas where they may be needed; Staging unneeded apparatus and personnel until they are assigned a task or return to station if not required is critical in reducing the potential of freelancing on the fire ground C) Staged personnel dismount their apparatus, turn off their warning lights unless needed for safety, proceed to the incident and monitor their radios on the appropriate channel/tac D) Level 2 Staging is established when arriving companies without predetermined assignments stage in a position that gives them the most flexibility — facing in the direction of travel, out of the block where the incident is taking place; is used primarily for basic and routine incidents in which Command has not designated an official staging area

B) Incoming companies without predetermined assignments take up a staged position until they receive orders from Command. They can then be quickly deployed to areas where they may be needed; Staging unneeded apparatus and personnel until they are assigned a task or return to station if not required is critical in reducing the potential of freelancing on the fire ground

According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; effective utilization of Staging procedures will: A) Prevent excessive apparatus congestion at the scene; Provides a resource pool from which Command may assign units and resources at his/her leisure B) Allow time for Command to evaluate conditions prior to assigning companies; Place apparatus in an uncommitted location close to the immediate scene to facilitate more effective assignment by Command C) Increases radio traffic during the critical initial stages of the incident D) Both A & B are correct

D) Both A & B are correct

According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; you are assigned as the Officer for Level 2 staging. The radio designation you should use is: A) Staging Sector with truck designation B) Level 2 Staging Sector C) Staging Sector D) Level 2 Staging Officer

B) Level 2 Staging Sector

According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; you arrive on scene where Command has set-up a Level 2 Staging Area, you have been directed to Stage, Level 2, you should: A) Report directly to the scene, advise Dispatch and Command of your arrival on scene, and then wait for an assignment B) Report to the Level 2 Staging area, advise Dispatch and Command of your arrival on scene, and then wait for an assignment C) Report directly to the scene, report their arrival in person to the Accountability Officer, and then wait for an assignment D) Report to the Level 2 Staging area, report their arrival in person to the Level 2 Staging Sector Officer, and then wait for an assignment

D) Report to the Level 2 Staging area, report their arrival in person to the Level 2 Staging Sector Officer, and then wait for an assignment

According to Operational Guideline 506.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT); you have been assigned to RIT at a high rise incident. Where will you stage? A) Two floors below the incident B) At Base C) One floor below the incident D) In the ‘clean’ / evacuation stairwell

C) One floor below the incident

According to Operational Guideline 507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities; the RIT Team shall announce benchmarks as they are achieved and call for assistance should they be unable to achieve the task. Which of the following is NOT one of those benchmarks: A) Low on air B) Deployed C) Firefighter Located D) Firefighter Outside

A) Low on air

According to Operational Guideline 507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities; which of the following is correct for operations the entry team shall conduct? A) Execute the search plan, Benchmark – firefighter low on air, Assess the firefighter and the environment B) Attach search line at entry, Provide air management trans-fill air / buddy breathing, Request additional equipment / personnel for extrication and relay rescue operations (as required) C) Execute the search plan, Provide report to Incident Command on the status of the firefighter (nature of injury, trapped, etc.) and the conditions in the immediate area of the firefighter (fire, heat, hazards), Prepare to extricate the firefighter D) Both A and C are correct

B) Attach search line at entry, Provide air management trans-fill air / buddy breathing, Request additional equipment / personnel for extrication and relay rescue operations (as required)

According to Operational Guideline 507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities; RIT personnel should perform the following tasks, EXCEPT: A) Assess the emergency scene perimeter 360 degrees of building noting apparatus placement, points of entry, alternate exit doors and windows B) Provide additional means of egress (laddering building) for personnel conducting operations who are operating above the ground floor C) Be involved with on scene fire attack responsibilities wherever possible D) Illuminate entrances and exits using lights

C) Be involved with on scene fire attack responsibilities wherever possible

According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Equipment Requirements, Communications; you are the Officer for the Rapid Intervention Team. In order to complete your task and determine what tools / equipment will be required you and your crew must familiarize yourself with the following except: A) Continuously monitor the safety of emergency operations and act as an extension of the Incident Commander’s eyes B) Strategies and tactical objectives employed at the incident, Hazards associated with the incident C) Access to and egress from the building or incident, Construction of the building D) Approximate location and task assignment of personnel, Building layout / floor plan

A) Continuously monitor the safety of emergency operations and act as an extension of the Incident Commander’s eyes

According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Equipment Requirements, Communications; as the Officer of the RIT, you have three benchmarks that need to be announced over the radio to the RIT Sector person, they are: A) RIT Deployed, Firefighter Located, Firefighter Secured B) RIT Activated, Firefighter Secured, Firefighter Outside C) RIT Deployed, Firefighter Identified, Firefighter Outside D) RIT Deployed, Firefighter Located, Firefighter Outside

D) RIT Deployed, Firefighter Located, Firefighter Outside

According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Equipment Requirements, Communications; whenever a MAYDAY or URGENT request is received, all communications on that frequency are to ______________. A) Continue B) Pause C) Proceed D) Cease

D) Cease

According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Equipment Requirements, Communications; which of the following would not be an example when to use an Urgent Radio Transmission? A) Fire conditions change rapidly requiring the IC to switch the fire attack from offensive to defensive B) A Missing firefighter C) A sudden loss of water supply D) If structural collapse is imminent

B) A Missing firefighter

According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; which of the following statements regarding the Incident Commander is incorrect? A) The initial Incident Commander will include the fire ground strategy in the onscene report B) The Incident Commander is responsible for determining the appropriate fire ground strategy C) The Incident Commander shall ensure all required fire fighting activities are safely and efficiently performed by personnel D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; for defensive fires, the Incident Commander will have to: A) Ensure that the primary search (where possible) has been completed, that all saveable occupants are out of the hazard zone B) Identify cut-off points C) Protect any exposed occupancies from any fire extension D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground; the stage of the fire becomes a critical factor that affects the rescue approach developed by Command. Which statement is correct regarding cases of fully involved buildings or sections of buildings, where immediate entry and primary search activities become impossible, and survival of occupants is improbable? A) Fire control efforts must be extended simultaneously with rescue operations in order to gain entry and control interior access to complete primary search B) Command must initially report fully involved conditions and that he will not be ordering a primary search C) Command must structure a rapid interior search and report "Primary search complete - ALL CLEAR". (The interior search for victims will also verify no fire/fire.) D) Both A) and C) are correct

B) Command must initially report fully involved conditions and that he will not be ordering a primary search

According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground; Command must consider factors in developing a basic rescue size-up, the factors are: A) Affect the fire has on the victims B) Capability of the crews to enter the building, remove/protect victims and control fire C) Number, location and condition of victims D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground; Command must consider factors in developing a basic rescue size-up. Which of the following is not one of the factors? A) Capability of the crews to enter the building, remove/protect victims and control fire B) The monetary value of the occupancy C) Affect the fire has on the victims D) Number, location and condition of victims

B) The monetary value of the occupancy

According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground; which of the following Search Safety Procedures is correct? A) Be cognizant of any secondary means of egress system established for personnel involved in a search B) Do not enter a building in which fire has progressed to the point where viable victims are not likely to be found C) Have a charged hose line available when working on the fire floor (or the floor immediately above or below the fire) D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground; which of the following Search Safety Procedures is incorrect? A) Inform the Incident Commander immediately of any room or rooms that could not be searched (give the reason as well) B) Structuring treatment of victims after removal is unnecessary. Multiple victims should be removed to any safe location for triage and treatment C) Coordinate with crews conducting ventilation/Command before opening windows to relieve smoke and heat during a search D) Work according to the incident action plan – Do Not Freelance

B) Structuring treatment of victims after removal is unnecessary. Multiple victims should be removed to any safe location for triage and treatment

According to Operational Guideline 606.00 – On Scene Emergency Evacuation; what is the correct sequence for activating the Air Horn Evacuation Signal? A) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, five (5) second pause. Repeat one more time. B) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, five (5) second pause. Repeat two more times. C) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, five (3) second pause. Repeat two more times. D) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, five (3) second pause. Repeat one more time.

B) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, five (5) second pause. Repeat two more times.

According to Operational Guideline 606.00 – On Scene Emergency Evacuation; which of the following statements is incorrect? A) The activation of the “Emergency Evacuation Signal(s)” requires the immediate and complete withdrawn all personnel from an emergency incident scene B) The tone shall be put over the air twice; each time shall be 10 second duration C) Incident Commanders are responsible for all personnel involved at an incident and to account for all personnel as soon as possible after the activation of an Evacuation Order D) All personnel will immediately cease all operations and exit the involved structure/area. They shall report to their respective apparatus

B) The tone shall be put over the air twice; each time shall be 10 second duration

According to Operational Guideline 606.00 – On Scene Emergency Evacuation; which of the following statements is incorrect? A) Re-entry into the building or danger area shall only be made with the authorization of the Incident Commander B) In the event of missing personnel, it will be reported by the Company Officer that they do not have a PAR. The missing person(s) will be identified to Command by the Company Officer C) Area in need of evacuation will be the interior D) Crews will stand by at their individual apparatus to await further orders

C) Area in need of evacuation will be the interior

T/F: According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; overhaul shall be continued until there is no evidence of charring or smoke staining on the material being removed or the surrounding building material A) True B) False

A) True

According to Operational Guideline 608.00 – Overhaul Operations; which statement is correct? A) Customer service is of the utmost importance to Hamilton Fire Department and therefore accommodation of the public is a priority. The state of a building and the way it is left by HFD personnel is often the measure of the performance of personnel despite an exemplary firefighting initiative B) Overhaul operations should be extensive but never reckless in the treatment of property C) Overhaul operations should be complimented by extensive salvage efforts to protect property and contents D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; overhaul; in buildings where some of the fibre insulating material has been left intact, an active fire watch shall be maintained for a minimum of ____ _____, followed by evaluation by the Platoon Chief or a District Chief A) 0.5 hours B) 1 hour C) 2 hours D) 2.5 hours

C) 2 hours

According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; which of the following is not an identifiable characteristic of cellulose insulation? A) Usually resting on top of other attic insulations B) Black/grey/charcoal coloured C) Fibre texture (recycled, shredded paper, etc.) D) Light weight

B) Black/grey/charcoal coloured

T/F: According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; to avoid unnecessary property damage, firefighters shall make every reasonable effort to protect furnishings with salvage covers or disposable plastic sheeting prior to pulling down ceilings in occupied structures. A) True B) False

A) True

T/F: According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; relying entirely on measurements of thermal imaging cameras, heat guns, and other mechanical devices to determine extinguishment is a best practice for cellulose insulation. A) True B) False

B) False

According to Operational Guideline 610.00 Fire Watch; circumstances that may cause an Incident Commander to establish and maintain a fire watch can include: A) An arson investigation by Hamilton Police B) A continuing fire risk, risk due to crowd size, and/or undue risk of public hazard C) Through coordination of the Office of the Fire Marshal D) None of the above

B) A continuing fire risk, risk due to crowd size, and/or undue risk of public hazard

According to Operational Guideline 610.00 Fire Watch; who maintains command for the fire watch until such time as he/she surrenders that responsibility. This still applies after that Officer has cleared the incident. A) The First-in Officer who was acting as the Incident Commander B) The Safety Officer C) The most Senior Officer acting as the Incident Commander D) The Duty Officer

C) The most Senior Officer acting as the Incident Commander

According to Operational Guideline 610.00 Fire Watch; factors for consideration by Chief Officers when selecting apparatus for fire watch includes: A) Apparatus/equipment requirements, Duration of assignment, Type of occupancy B) Apparatus/equipment requirements, Geographic location, Maintaining the availability and readiness of specialty teams C) Shift call-volume of selected apparatus, Potential Exposures, Maintaining the availability and readiness of specialty teams D) All of the above

B) Apparatus/equipment requirements, Geographic location, Maintaining the availability and readiness of specialty teams

According to Operational Guideline 610.00 Fire Watch; factors for consideration by Chief Officers when selecting apparatus for fire watch includes: A) Shift call-volume of selected apparatus, Potential Exposures, Maintaining the availability and readiness of specialty teams B) Apparatus/equipment requirements, Duration of assignment, Type of occupancy C) Duration of assignment, Shift call-volume of selected apparatus, Geographic location D) All of the above

C) Duration of assignment, Shift call-volume of selected apparatus, Geographic location

According to Operational Guideline 610.00 Fire Watch; in buildings under demolition when will HFD provide a fire watch? A) HFD will provide a fire watch for all buildings under demolition B) During periods where demolition operations will impact public transportation and road closures C) HFD does not perform a fire watch, the owner is required to provide a fire watch in accordance with the fire code D) During periods when demolition operations will create a fire hazard to neighbouring properties or partially occupied spaces, a fire watch shall be provided

D) During periods when demolition operations will create a fire hazard to neighbouring properties or partially occupied spaces, a fire watch shall be provided

According to Operational Guideline 610.00 - Fire Watch; the “termination of a HFD fire watch shall be at the discretion of: A) The Company Officer from the crew left to conduct the fire watch B) The Safety Officer, from the respective incident following an inspection C) The Senior Incident Commander from the respective incident D) The Platoon Chief

C) The Senior Incident Commander from the respective incident

According to Operational Guideline 611.00 – Shift Change During an Incident; at approximately _____________ before shift change, the Incident Commander shall forecast if personnel need change by the incoming platoon from the incident scene. A) 30 minutes (0.5 hours) B) 45 minutes (0.75 hours) C) 60 minutes (1 hour) D) 90 minutes (1.5 hours)

C) 60 minutes (1 hour)

According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; ‘Firefighters are responsible to do the following’, except: A) Maintaining scene security and safety B) Maintaining accurate and complete records - notes and reports C) Fire cause determination D) Interviewing witnesses (subsequent interviews may be required by other authorities)

C) Fire cause determination

According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; ‘Firefighters are responsible to do the following’, except: A) Conscientiously establishing the cause of every fire B) Notifying the Provincial Emergency Operations Centre (PEOC) Duty Officer C) Recognizing and preserving evidence which may relate to fire cause D) Maintaining the integrity of the fire scene

B) Notifying the Provincial Emergency Operations Centre (PEOC) Duty Officer

According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; which of the following about ‘Collecting Evidence’ is correct: A) Document then move evidence to safe location. The person(s) who locate the evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery and include this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be removed shall be turned over to the Hamilton Police Service B) Leave evidence where it is, untouched and undisturbed. The person(s) who locate the evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery and include this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be removed shall be turned over to the Hamilton Police Service C) Leave evidence where it is, untouched and undisturbed. The person(s) who locate the evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery and include this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be removed shall be turned over to the Incident Commander D) Document then move evidence to safe location. The person(s) who locate the evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery and include this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be removed shall be turned over to the Incident Commander

B) Leave evidence where it is, untouched and undisturbed. The person(s) who locate the evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery and include this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be removed shall be turned over to the Hamilton Police Service

According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; Firefighters may be in the best position to determine the area of origin of the fire and establish fire cause because they: A) May find evidence in its original state, untouched and undisturbed B) Are normally among the first to arrive on the scene seeing the location and progression of fire in its early stages C) Can establish whether doors or windows were locked or open D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; Firefighters may be in the best position to determine the area of origin of the fire and establish fire cause because they: A) Are responsible for fire cause determination at structure fires B) May talk to witnesses on the scene while facts are still clear in the witnesses' minds C) Are trained in fire cause determination D) Complete a walking inspection of all areas of the premises at a minimum of thirty (30) minute intervals

B) May talk to witnesses on the scene while facts are still clear in the witnesses' minds

According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; during arrival at the fire scene Officers should note the following: A) What window or door the fire was observed through B) The location of the fire safety plan C) Height and construction of the building or buildings involved D) Both A and C are correct

D) Both A and C are correct

According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; during arrival at the fire scene Officers should note the following: A) Whether doors and windows are secure B) What means of entry and direction of fire travel there are C) Ventilation profile of the building D) Both A and B are correct

D) Both A and B are correct

According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; which of the following statements is correct regarding fire cause and determination? A) Overhaul should be limited to that which is absolutely necessary B) Ask witnesses ‘was anyone present when the fire started?’ C) Wash-downs are unlimited in size and scope before fire cause determination D) Both A and B are Correct

D) Both A and B are Correct

According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; you are interviewing the discoverer of the fire - you should ask simple, clear questions to gather information from their observations. Which of the following questions would you not ask? A) Who turned in the fire alarm? B) Was anyone present when the fire started? C) When was the last time the fire alarm system was tested? D) What was happening when the fire started?

C) When was the last time the fire alarm system was tested?

According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; to establish the cause of a fire, find the point in the building where the fire started (i.e. the area of origin). Locate the __________ point of burning with the greatest amount of ___________. A) Lower point of burning with the greatest amount of fuel B) Higher point of burning with the greatest amount of charring C) Higher point of burning with the greatest amount of fuel D) Lower point of burning with the greatest amount of charring

D) Lower point of burning with the greatest amount of charring

According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; which of the following statements is incorrect regarding criminal or suspicious fires? A) As soon as a fire is deemed suspicious, the District Senior Officer shall be contacted if not already on the scene. B) It is the responsibility of the HFD to perform arson investigation(s) C) When arson is suspected the Office of the Fire Marshal shall be notified D) Should a questionable situation concerning suspected arson occur on an alarm, the Officer in charge shall request a Senior Officer for guidance

B) It is the responsibility of the HFD to perform arson investigation(s)

According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; you are the Senior Officer on scene of a fire you deemed criminal or suspicious, what steps should you follow? A) Not allow anyone into the scene, Continue scene examination, Request that Hamilton Police respond and C.I.D. personnel, Maintain control of the premises in compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act and Ensure that the police and/or the fire department protect the scene in cases where the OFM is responding B) Not allow anyone into the scene, Stop any further scene examination, Request that Hamilton Police respond and C.I.D. personnel, Maintain control of the premises in compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act and Ensure that the Fire Prevention Bureau is notified C) Not allow anyone into the scene, Continue scene examination, Request that Hamilton Police respond and C.I.D. personnel, Maintain control of the premises in compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act and Ensure that the Fire Prevention Bureau is notified D) Not allow anyone into the scene, Stop any further scene examination, Request that Hamilton Police respond and C.I.D. personnel, Maintain control of the premises in compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act and Ensure that the police and/or the fire department protect the scene in cases where the OFM is responding

D) Not allow anyone into the scene, Stop any further scene examination, Request that Hamilton Police respond and C.I.D. personnel, Maintain control of the premises in compliance with the Fire Protection and Prevention Act and Ensure that the police and/or the fire department protect the scene in cases where the OFM is responding

According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; the Incident Commander shall ensure that personnel at the fire submit the Ontario Fire Marshal’s Witness Statement Forms. The _________ __________will determine which personnel will be required to submit a Witness Statement. A) Hamilton Police B) Incident Commander C) Fire Marshal D) Deputy Chief

B) Incident Commander

According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; the staging area for Hamilton Fire Department apparatus responding to a call on airport property is the: A) Canadian Warplane Heritage Museum B) Airport Fire Hall A) Main Entrance B) Cargo Jet Building

B) Airport Fire Hall

According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; you are the Officer responding to ‘alarm conditions’ in the Cargo Jet Building. Airport Fire is on scene and cancels you from the call. What are your actions? A) Cancel from the call and return to quarters B) Continue to the call

B) Continue to the call

According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; the “AIRPORT FIRE” talk group can be found on all Hamilton Fire Department mobile and portable radios in the channel __ position. A) Channel 7 B) Channel 9 C) Channel 10 D) Channel 11

C) Channel 10

According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; which of the following statements is correct when dispatched to an aircraft crash on airport property: A) Respond to Control Access Gate A (west of main terminal) and standby for an escort to the incident location, Co-ordinate with Airport ERS to assist in the control of the incident, Co-ordinate through the on-scene Airport Fire Incident Commander as required B) Respond to the automatic Control Access Gate B, Proceed to the Staging Area (Fire Hall) and standby, Wait for escort to the crash scene C) On arrival, report to the on-scene Airport Fire Incident Commander, assume Command from Airport Fire Incident Commander as required, assign tasks such as: triage, medical assistance and water supply operations for firefighting to incoming units D) Respond to the automatic Control Access Gate B, Proceed to the Staging Area (Cargo Jet Building) and standby, Wait for escort to the crash scene

B) Respond to the automatic Control Access Gate B, Proceed to the Staging Area (Fire Hall) and standby, Wait for escort to the crash scene

According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; in the event that the Airport Emergency Response Services respond to an aircraft crash off the airport property, the distance limit for such a response is within a ______ mile radius of the airport. A) Three mile B) Five mile C) Seven mile D) Ten mile

B) Five mile

According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; you are dispatched to a ‘Stand-By for Aircraft Emergency’, you shall: A) Respond to the automatic Access Control Gate B (Salem Road), Proceed to the Staging Area (Fire Hall) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until required and escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities B) Respond to Control Access Gate A (west of main terminal), Proceed to the Staging Area (Fire Hall) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until required and escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities C) Respond to the automatic Access Control Gate B (Salem Road), Proceed to the Staging Area (Cargo Jet Building) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until required and escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities D) Respond to Control Access Gate A (west of main terminal), Proceed to the Staging Area (Cargo Jet Building) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until required and escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities

A) Respond to the automatic Access Control Gate B (Salem Road), Proceed to the Staging Area (Fire Hall) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until required and escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities

According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal – Investigation Services; you are the Incident Commander at a structure fire with a loss estimated at $400,000 in a clandestine drug operation, should the Fire Marshal be notified? A) Yes B) No

A) Yes

According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal – Investigation Services; you are the Incident Commander at a structure fire, which of the following incidents does not meet the criteria for notifying the Ontario Fire Marshal? A) Fires in multi-unit residential occupancies where fire spread is beyond unit of origin or where suspected Fire Code violations have impacted on the circumstances of the event B) Fires involving circumstances that may result in widespread public concern (e.g. environmental hazard) C) Large loss fires, $400,000 and over or where the loss is significant to the community D) Fires of unusual origin or circumstances and for which expert investigative assistance is required with determining cause

C) Large loss fires, $400,000 and over or where the loss is significant to the community

According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal – Investigation Services; you are the Incident Commander at a structure fire, which of the following incidents does not meet the criteria for notifying the Ontario Fire Marshal? A) All fires in vulnerable occupancies (i.e. retirement homes, care and treatment occupancies, and care occupancies as defined in the Fire Code); B) Explosions (when the explosion is either the primary or secondary event) C) Fires resulting in either a fatality or serious injury requiring person(s) to be admitted as in-patient(s) to a hospital D) Fires resulting in unusual fire/smoke spread;

B) Explosions (when the explosion is either the primary or secondary event)

According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal – Investigation Services; when an OFMEM response is deferred to the next normal work period, the Provincial Emergency Operations Centre (PEOC) Duty Officer will inform the caller that all steps shall be taken to secure the scene and that the OFMEM will be notified of the request at _________. A) 6:30 am B) 7:00 am C) 7:30 am D) 8:00 am

C) 7:30 am

According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal – Investigation Services; which of the following is correct: When a fire investigation is assigned to an investigator, it is the responsibility of the fire department to provide all necessary documents, including, but not limited to: A) Firefighter statements, dispatch chronology, incident commander report detailing suppression and salvage activities, and fire prevention files as required by the investigator B) Firefighter statements, dispatch chronology, ISO report detailing suppression and overhaul activities, and IMS training files as required by the investigator C) Owner/RP statements, dispatch chronology, incident commander report detailing suppression and overhaul activities, and fire prevention files as required by the investigator D) Firefighter statements, dispatch chronology, incident commander report detailing suppression and overhaul activities, and fire prevention files as required by the investigator

D) Firefighter statements, dispatch chronology, incident commander report detailing suppression and overhaul activities, and fire prevention files as required by the investigator

According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal – Investigation Services; part of the mandate of the OFM is to assist the local police in identifying a purposely-set fire and to support the local police in carrying out significant criminal investigations. The successful prosecution of a criminal charge by the police is dependent on the integrity and continuity of possession of the evidence found at the scene. It is therefore necessary that the ___________ of the _________ be maintained prior to the arrival of an OFM or police investigator. A) Notes of the incident B) Security of the scene C) Communications of the incident D) Safety of the scene

B) Security of the scene

According to Operational Guideline 615.00 – Hazard Control Zones; when the Fire Department is preparing to terminate an incident where there is a possibility of structural collapse, the Incident Commander shall contact the _____ ________ to respond. A) Fire Chief B) Building Department C) Fire Marshal D) Hamilton Police

B) Building Department

According to Operational Guideline 615.00 – Hazard Control Zones; on the completion of an incident (no sign of collapse), it is the responsibility of the Incident Commander to make the Responsible Party aware of the new inherent dangers that are identified by ________________ and any other areas that may be a threat for the assuming parties. A) Only red tape B) Only yellow tape C) Either yellow or red tape D) None of the above

C) Either yellow or red tape

According to Operational Guideline 615.00 – Hazard Control Zones; you are the Incident Commander at a scene that requires establishing a Red Zone but tape cannot be initiated because of heat, smoke, and gases, etc. as the Incident Commander you shall: A) Set-up Red Zone minimum 15 m away from the spot you want to cordon off, and place the Safety Officer in position to warn firefighters B) On the initial radio transmission, the term URGENT shall be repeated three times followed by the information for the firefighting crews of the Incident Commander C) Relay this information to Dispatch. Dispatch would make a short formal announcement to personnel at the scene describing the area and the reason for the establishment D) Do nothing, the Red Zone should be disregarded if it cannot be established safely

C) Relay this information to Dispatch. Dispatch would make a short formal announcement to personnel at the scene describing the area and the reason for the establishment

According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; which of the following is correct for breaking of glass windows or doors on the exterior of high-rise buildings: A) Do not break glass in high rise unless you have looked out the window or door to ensure no one will be struck by falling glass within a 30meter safety zone. B) Do not break glass in high rise until a charged hose line is in place to begin hydraulic ventilation. C) Do not break glass in high rise until your company officer has given a size-up report to Incident Command detailing smoke conditions. D) Do not break glass in high rise unless it is coordinated with and confirmed by Command that a safety perimeter is established (At least 60 metres).

D) Do not break glass in high rise unless it is coordinated with and confirmed by Command that a safety perimeter is established (At least 60 metres).

According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; which of the following is not a Tactical Objective in a high-rise fire? A) Start Property conservation early and address loss control in all objectives B) Secure and maintain a viable exit stairwell C) Obtain the presence of the building engineer, superintendent or responsible party D) Manage the spread of existing heat and smoke throughout the building by pressurizing the stairwells, controlling the building H.V.A.C., and, if possible, cross ventilation of the fire floor

C) Obtain the presence of the building engineer, superintendent or responsible party

According to Operational Guideline 618.01 – Elevator (Disabled) Responses; a _______ __ Entrapment is based upon unreasonable entrapment time exceeding 45 minutes, and/or situations involving non-life threatening conditions with medical factors (i.e. requires medications) or where severe environmental conditions are involved (i.e. elevated temperatures in the car) A) Level I B) Level II C) Level III D None of the above

B) Level II

According to Operational Guideline 618.01 – Elevator (Disabled) Responses; as the Company Officer you have determined that there is an immediate threat to life or extreme environment. This is a _______ __ Entrapment. A) Level I B) Level II C) Level III D) Level IV

C) Level III

According to Operational Guideline 618.01 – Elevator (Disabled) Responses; no rescue attempt shall be made by HFD personnel if any of the following situations occur(s): A) Elevator brake is not set prior to or upon performing a mainline disconnect. B) Upon checking that the power is disconnected it is found that one or more power phases (legs) are not disconnected. C) Upon entering the machine room, the elevator is found to be moving D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to Operational Guideline 619.00 – Emergency Voice Alarm Communication (EVAC) Systems; which of the following reasons would prompt an announcement through the EVAC? A) To update building occupants at regular intervals with relevant information B) To inform building occupants that Hamilton Fire Department apparatus and personnel are at scene and investigating the situation C) To advise occupants of the incident status D) All of the Above

D) All of the Above

According to Operational Guideline 620.00 - Fire Fighting Operations in Underground Facilities; you are in Command of a fire in an underground facility. To control fires in underground areas, you should be familiar with many factors and considerations. Which of the following is not a factor to control at a fire in an underground facility? A) Stairways and hallways can act like chimneys for superheated and fire gases being given off by the fire B) Smoke migration/contamination of many floors from the actual fire C) Interstitial and void spaces D) Establish effective communications system, either by radio or alternate means, such as Firefighter telephones if available

C) Interstitial and void spaces

According to Operational Guideline 620.00 - Fire Fighting Operations in Underground Facilities; you are in Command of a fire in an underground facility. To control fires in underground areas, you should be familiar with many factors and considerations. Which of the following is not a factor to control at a fire in an underground facility? A) Wearing complete personal protective equipment (PPE) including SCBA B) Establishing a floor warden C) Reaching below grade fires can be extremely punishing to crews as they descend to the fire area D) Limiting the number of Firefighters committed to the underground until the fire is located

B) Establishing a floor warden

According to Operational Guideline 620.00 - Fire Fighting Operations in Underground Facilities; you are in Command of a fire in an underground facility. To control fires in underground areas, you should be familiar with factors and considerations such as: A) Stairways and hallways can act like chimneys for superheated and fire gases being given off by the fire B) Limiting the number of Firefighters committed to the underground until the fire is located C) Smoke migration/contamination of many floors from the actual fire D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to Operational Guideline 621.00 – Fire Alarm Systems; if there are Building Supervisory Staff at the scene, the Incident Commander shall ensure the following actions take place: A) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm reset by the owner; after an adequate check of the building and if there is no evidence of fire, then instruct the Building Supervisory Staff to reset the fire alarm system; post the completed Form 327 on the entrance to the premises B) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm reset by the owner; after an adequate check of the building and if there is no evidence of fire, then instruct the Building Supervisory Staff to reset the fire alarm system; Check the annunciator panel to see that it is in normal operating status (no alarm or trouble indicated) before leaving scene C) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm reset by Lobby Sector; if monitored by an alarm company, confirm via Communications that the monitoring company has obtained a reset; If the system cannot be reset, then fire crews should re-check for activated pull stations, smoke detectors, or heat detectors D) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm reset by the owner; after an adequate check of the building and if there is no evidence of fire, then instruct Lobby Sector to reset the fire alarm system; Check the annunciator panel to see that it is in normal operating status (no alarm or trouble indicated) before leaving scene

B) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm reset by the owner; after an adequate check of the building and if there is no evidence of fire, then instruct the Building Supervisory Staff to reset the fire alarm system; Check the annunciator panel to see that it is in normal operating status (no alarm or trouble indicated) before leaving scene.

According to Operational Guideline 621.00 – Fire Alarm Systems; if there are no Building Supervisory Staff at the scene, the Incident Commander shall: A) Not silence or reset the alarm system, complete a Form #437 that reflects the status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible occupant, if possible; if monitored by an alarm company, confirm via Communications that the monitoring company has obtained a reset B) Silence/reset the alarm system, complete a Form #327 that reflects the status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible occupant, if possible; advise occupants that the alarms will ring until Building Supervisory Staff can be contacted and that they should be alert for signs of fire until the alarm system has been restored (i.e. reset). C) Not silence or reset the alarm system, complete a Form #327 that reflects the status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible occupant, if possible; advise occupants that the alarms will ring until Building Supervisory Staff can be contacted and that they should be alert for signs of fire until the alarm system has been restored (i.e. reset). D) Not silence or reset the alarm system, complete a Form #327 that reflects the status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible occupant, if possible; if monitored by an alarm company, confirm via Communications that the monitoring company has obtained a reset

C) Not silence or reset the alarm system, complete a Form #327 that reflects the status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible occupant, if possible; advise occupants that the alarms will ring until Building Supervisory Staff can be contacted and that they should be alert for signs of fire until the alarm system has been restored (i.e. reset).

According to Operational Guideline 621.00 – Fire Alarm Systems; at a private residence with the alarm sounding and no answer at the door, the Incident Commander shall: A) Ensure that windows and door leading to the interior of the building have been visually examined for smoke or fire conditions inside the building; if an owner/responsible party cannot be contacted and the Incident Commander feels that the alarm was initiated by a system malfunction, then a Form 327 shall be left at the front door of the residence and all HFD vehicles may clear the scene; if monitored by an alarm company, confirm via Communications that the monitoring company has obtained a reset B) Ensure that the exterior perimeter of the building has been checked for signs of smoke or fire; Command shall not authorize any activity that may cause damage to the building without clear indications that a fire condition exists within the structure; if entry to a residence is forced, the Platoon Chief shall be summoned C) Ensure that windows and door leading to the interior of the building have been visually examined for smoke or fire conditions inside the building; if an owner/responsible party cannot be contacted and the Incident Commander feels that the alarm was initiated by a system malfunction, then a Form 437 shall be left at the front door of the residence and all HFD vehicles may clear the scene; ensure that the exterior perimeter of the building has been checked for signs of smoke or fire D) Ensure that the exterior perimeter of the building has been checked for signs of smoke or fire; Command shall not authorize any activity that may cause damage to the building without clear indications that a fire condition exists within the structure; if entry to a residence is forced police shall be summoned

D) Ensure that the exterior perimeter of the building has been checked for signs of smoke or fire; Command shall not authorize any activity that may cause damage to the building without clear indications that a fire condition exists within the structure; if entry to a residence is forced police shall be summoned

According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; full Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) and Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) shall be donned and activated before entering or operating at any confirmed or suspected natural gas / methane / atmosphere where air monitoring equipment indicates oxygen (O2) readings are ___% or less, or when observations and information received upon arrival indicates the presence of natural gas / methane. A) 22.5% B) 22% C) 21% D) 20%

D) 20%

According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; the Incident Commander shall ensure that: A) Two 45 mm dry hose lines are deployed once personnel are brought forward B) One 65 mm dry hose lines are deployed once personnel are brought forward C) One 65 mm hose lines are deployed and charged once personnel are brought forward D) Two 65 mm hose lines are deployed and charged once personnel are brought forward

C) One 65 mm hose lines are deployed and charged once personnel are brought forward

According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak at a residence. What pressure should you expect in the service line? A) 1207 – 3448 kPa B) Up to 450 kPa C) 1.7 – 140 kPa D) 1.7 kPa

D) 1.7 kPa

According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak at an Industrial occupancy. What pressure should you expect in the service line? A) 1207 – 3448 kPa B) Up to 450 kPa C) 1.7 – 140 kPa D) 1.7 kPa

B) Up to 450 kPa

According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak at a commercial occupancy. What pressure should you expect in the service line? A) 1207 – 3448 kPa B) Up to 450 kPa C) 1.7 – 140 kPa D) 1.7 kPa

C) 1.7 – 140 kPa

According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak on a distribution line. What pressure should you expect in the distribution line? A) 6205 – 9929 kPa B) 1207 – 3448 kPa C) 825 - 1100 kPa D) Up to 450 kPa

B) 1207 – 3448 kPa

According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak on a transmission line. What pressure should you expect in the transmission line? A) 9929 – 10205 kPa B) 6205 – 9929 kPa C) 6205 - 8929 kPa D) 825 - 1100 kPa

B) 6205 – 9929 kPa

According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; for Rescue and Evacuation of Persons – personnel shall immediately evacuate the building of all persons and the outdoor area of all civilians and unnecessary emergency response personnel and apparatus for ____ m in all directions. For large natural gas / methane leaks or fires, distances up to _____ m downwind should be considered. A) 50 m and 250 m B) 100 m and 500 m C) 100 m and 800 m D) 150 m and 1000 m

C) 100 m and 800 m

According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are the Incident Commander at a gas leak at a strip mall, a paramedic rapid response unit and a police vehicle are directly in front of the business and customers are entering adjoining stores. Your action should be: A) Leave the paramedic rapid response unit and police vehicle where they are and have the customers and businesses shelter-in-place B) Have the paramedic unit and police vehicle removed 50 m away in all directions and have the customers and businesses shelter-in-place C) Have the paramedic unit and police vehicle removed 50 m away in all directions and evacuate the customers and businesses 100 m in all directions D) Have the paramedic unit and police vehicle removed 100 m away in all directions and evacuate the customers and businesses 100 m in all directions

D) Have the paramedic unit and police vehicle removed 100 m away in all directions and evacuate the customers and businesses 100 m in all directions

According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; which statement is incorrect about prevention of Natural Gas Fires/Explosions (indoor or Outdoor)? A) Close all windows and doors of neighbouring buildings to prevent natural gas from entering B) Personnel shall control all sources of potential ignition of escaping natural gas by placing the fire apparatus downwind C) Check all interior levels of neighbouring buildings including basements and outside areas such as sewers for the presence of natural gas / methane D) Personnel shall control all sources of potential ignition of escaping natural gas by shutting vehicle engines off if able to do so

B) Personnel shall control all sources of potential ignition of escaping natural gas by placing the fire apparatus downwind

According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are the Incident Commander at a Natural Gas Fire, which of the following statements is correct? A) HFD personnel shall not extinguish a natural gas fire unless the natural gas flow or leak can be stopped by closing natural gas supply valves before or immediately after extinguishment of the fire B) If the fire is isolated to a single appliance, personnel should shut off the natural gas flow at the service line C) HFD personnel shall not extinguish a natural gas fire all escaping natural gas will be consumed by the fire D) Personnel should spray a straight stream on any surrounding combustibles and/or exposures if in danger of igniting before natural gas flow can be stopped

A) HFD personnel shall not extinguish a natural gas fire unless the natural gas flow or leak can be stopped by closing natural gas supply valves before or immediately after extinguishment of the fire

According to Operational Policy 631.00 - Use of Equipment Not Provided by Hamilton Fire; you are the Officer at an incident where the problem is on the roof of a commercial building. There is a fixed steel safety ladder with a cage attached to the side of the building to gain access, is this acceptable to use? A) Yes, it will make the unit 10-8 quicker B) No, the crew shall only use equipment that they brought with them to accomplish their task, including a ladder from the apparatus when one is required C) Yes, the owner has installed a fixed steel safety ladder with a cage that meets Occupational Health and Safety Act requirements D) No, it will be unnecessary to go to the roof once a service technician is on scene

B) No, the crew shall only use equipment that they brought with them to accomplish their task, including a ladder from the apparatus when one is required

According to Operational Guideline 632.00 - Carbon Monoxide Incidents; the Immediate Danger to Life and Health (IDLH) of CO is ______ ppm. A) 100 ppm B) 500 ppm C) 800 ppm D) 1200 ppm

D) 1200 ppm

According to Operational Guideline 632.00 - Carbon Monoxide Incidents; mandatory use of SCBA shall be employed with facepiece donned and air activated when CO readings are in excess of ______ ppm. A) 25 ppm B) 9 ppm C) 100 ppm D) 50 ppm

A) 25 ppm

According to Operational Guideline 634.00 – Career Responses into Volunteer Districts; Single Truck Response – which of the following statements is correct? A) If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a prolonged nature, they will cancel the volunteer apparatus B) The unit doing the canceling must be on scene (10-12) C) If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a prolonged nature, they will not cancel the volunteer apparatus D) Both B and C are correct

D) Both B and C are correct

According to Operational Guideline 634.00 – Career Responses into Volunteer Districts; Single Truck Response – which of the following statements is correct? A) If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a prolonged nature, they will not cancel the volunteer apparatus B) The unit cancelling apparatus does not need be on scene (not 10-12) C) If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a prolonged nature, the volunteer apparatus will continue and assume Command of the Incident, releasing the Career unit to return to quarters D) Both A and C are correct

D) Both A and C are correct

According to Operational Guideline 634.00 – Career Responses into Volunteer Districts; Multiple Unit Responses – you are in Command at a multiple unit response in the Volunteer District, which of the following statements is correct when releasing apparatus: A) Career apparatus must be kept on scene for overhaul and clean-up operations B) Return career apparatus as soon as sufficient volunteer resources are on scene, this will ensure that career can return to their primary response areas C) All committed resources should be returned to their respective response districts once the emergency is either under control or adequate volunteer resources are available D) The on-duty Senior Officers will not monitor the status of career apparatus and ensure that the most efficient use of resources is maintained

B) Return career apparatus as soon as sufficient volunteer resources are on scene, this will ensure that career can return to their primary response areas

According to Operational Guideline 634.00 – Career Responses into Volunteer Districts; Multiple Unit Responses – you are in Command at a multiple unit response in the Volunteer District, which of the following statements is correct when releasing apparatus: A) Career apparatus must be kept on scene for overhaul and clean-up operations B) Return volunteer apparatus as soon as sufficient career resources are on scene, this will ensure that volunteer can return to their primary response areas C) For structure fires or other multiple apparatus responses, sufficient resources must be on scene before an accurate determination of the need to cancel responding resources can be made D) All committed resources should be returned to their respective response districts once the emergency is either under control or adequate volunteer resources are available

C) For structure fires or other multiple apparatus responses, sufficient resources must be on scene before an accurate determination of the need to cancel responding resources can be made

According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; which of the following statements regarding Hydro Electric Emergencies is incorrect? A) Fire fighting personnel shall not enter an electrical substation or vault without onsite assistance from hydro personnel B) HFD personnel may pull any hydro meter to disconnect the power supply to a structure C) All wires and electrical equipment shall be considered live until confirmed deenergized by hydro provider personnel D) Command shall request that the Hydro personnel be called to any incident involving electricity that poses a known or anticipated risk to personnel or property

B) HFD personnel may pull any hydro meter to disconnect the power supply to a structure

According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; when wires are down, the Incident Commander shall establish a safe zone of at least ____ m (____ ft.) away from wires and anything wires may be touching. A) 15 m, 50 ft. B) 12 m, 40 ft C) 10 m, 33 ft. D) 6 m, 20 ft.

C) 10 m, 33 ft.

According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; if dispatched to a substation fire, you should secure the area; to keep on-lookers back at least ____ m, ____ ft. for an explosion risk. A) 50 m, 165 ft. B) 100 m, 330 ft. C) 150 m, 490 ft. D) 200 m, 655 ft

B) 100 m, 330 ft

According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; substation control buildings require special consideration when fighting fires. The nature of the equipment installed within the station, its high value and susceptibility to damage from many extinguishing agents requires careful consideration in agent selection. Preference must be given to ___________ ___________. A) Carbon Dioxide B) Potassium Bicarbonate C) Halon Agents D) Sodium Bicarbonate

A) Carbon Dioxide

According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; when responding to a padmount transformer and/or switching kiosks damaged in an accident, personnel shall assess the situation from at least _____ metres (____ ft.) back. A) 6 m, 20 ft. B) 10 m, 33 ft. C) 12 m, 40 ft. D) 15 m, 50 ft.

B) 10 m, 33 ft

According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; when responding to a padmount transformer and/or switching kiosks damaged in an accident, which of the following statements is correct? A) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet close together (to minimize the step potential); don't approach closer than 10 metres (33 ft.) to the vehicle; tell occupants of the vehicle to “Stay in the vehicle, we are contacting the electrical utility. Do not exit the vehicle until they have said it is safe to do so.” B) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet close together (to minimize the step potential); don't approach closer than 12 metres (40 ft.) to the vehicle. tell occupants of the vehicle to “Stay in the vehicle, we are contacting the electrical utility. Do not exit the vehicle until they have said it is safe to do so.” C) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet close together (to minimize the step potential); if possible, provide the transformer or switching kiosk location and number to Communications, they can pass it on to Hydro; perform the rescue immediately D) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet close together (to minimize the step potential); perform the rescue immediately; document actions in the Summary report in FDM.

A) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet close together (to minimize the step potential); don't approach closer than 10 metres (33 ft.) to the vehicle; tell occupants of the vehicle to “Stay in the vehicle, we are contacting the electrical utility. Do not exit the vehicle until they have said it is safe to do so.”

According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; you are responding to a vault explosion, what are your first three actions? A) Assess the situation from at least 12 metres, (40 ft.); determine the safe zone, secure the area, and keep the public at least 15 metres (50 ft.) back; request that Communications contact Hydro, ask for assistance and give the location of the service access involved B) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres, (33 ft.); attempt to remove the service access cover; from a safe location apply non-conducting fire extinguishing substances such as dry chemical or Co2 C) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres, (33 ft.); determine the safe zone, secure the area, and keep the public at least 15 metres (50 ft.) back; request that Communications contact Hydro, ask for assistance and give the location of the service access involved D) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres, (33 ft.); determine the safe zone, secure the area, and keep the public at least 20 metres (65 ft.) back; request that Communications contact Hydro, ask for assistance and give the location of the service access involved

C) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres, (33 ft.); determine the safe zone, secure the area, and keep the public at least 15 metres (50 ft.) back; request that Communications contact Hydro, ask for assistance and give the location of the service access involved

According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; the Ontario Ministry of Labour is required to be notified for any one of the following except: A) The worker advises employer that he/she has been diagnosed with an occupational disease B) The worker is critically injured C) The worker killed on the job D) The worker invokes their right to refuse

D) The worker invokes their right to refuse

According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; which of the following is correct, critically injured means an injury of a serious nature that, A) Causes the loss of sight in an eye B) Produces unconsciousness C) Involves the fracture of a leg or arm but not a finger or toe D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; which of the following is correct, critically injured means an injury of a serious nature that, A) Consists of burns to a minor portion of the body B) Results in substantial loss of blood C) Causes the loss of sight in both eyes D) All of the above

B) Results in substantial loss of blood

According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; you are the Incident Commander on scene where a worker was critically injured on the job site. What is your responsibility? A) Begin the investigation into the accident B) If the Police do not attend an incident involving a worker who is critically injured, and the Incident Commander feels an Inspector should attend immediately, the Incident Commander shall direct HFD Communications to notify the Duty Officer C) Check with Police to confirm that they will be making the MOL notification. This should be noted in the Incident Report on FDM along with the police officer’s particulars D) All of the above

C) Check with Police to confirm that they will be making the MOL notification. This should be noted in the Incident Report on FDM along with the police officer’s particulars

According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; you are the Incident Commander on scene where a worker was critically injured on the job site. You only wish to ensure that the MOL is notified (and immediate response is not an issue) then the responsibility for making the call to the Ministry of Labour falls upon: A) The Duty Officer B) The Incident Commander C) The Officer of the responding unit D) The Deputy Chief

C) The Officer of the responding unit

According to Operational Guideline 638.00 - Notification of Public Health Services; you are the Officer in Charge contacting Communications to request Public Health. You should have the following information ready: A) Date and time of Incident, Incident Number, Name and location of establishment B) Date and time of Incident, Name and location of establishment, Damage Incurred C) Name and location of establishment, Product Loss, Damage Incurred D) Name and location of establishment, Actions Performed

B) Date and time of Incident, Name and location of establishment, Damage Incurred

According to Operational Guideline 638.00 - Notification of Public Health Services; the Incident Commander will request that Public Health Services be notified in the event of a fire to the following except at/for: A) All Long-Term Care Facilities B) Any fire/emergency situation that does not have the potential to cause a human health hazard C) A non-operating Industrial site D) All Residential Care Facilities

B) Any fire/emergency situation that does not have the potential to cause a human health hazard

According to Operational Guideline 638.00 - Notification of Public Health Services; you are the Incident Commander at a Lodging Home where there has been a long power outage impacting refrigeration units. Based on this response, should you request Public Health Services? A) Yes B) No

A) Yes

According to Operational Guideline 638.00 - Notification of Public Health Services; you are the Incident Commander at a fire incident at a movie theatre in the lobby area, based on this response, should you request Public Health Services? A) Yes B) No

A) Yes

According to Operational Guideline 639.00 – HSR Buses to Emergency Incidents; you are in Command of an incident where you will require HSR, which steps are correct when requesting HSR to the scene? A) The request shall be made directly to HSR operations, a safe area that is outside the danger zone will be established, people being evacuated will be brought or directed to the designated safe area B) The request shall be directed to communications, a safe area that is outside the danger zone will be established, people being evacuated will be brought or directed to the designated safe area C) The request shall be directed to communications, a safe area that is outside the danger zone will be established, HSR personnel will be directed into the danger zone to pick up or transport individuals D) The request shall be directed to communications, an area inside the danger zone will be established, people being evacuated will be brought or directed to the designated area

B) The request shall be directed to communications, a safe area that is outside the danger zone will be established, people being evacuated will be brought or directed to the designated safe area

According to Operational Guideline 640.00 - Atmosphere Monitoring at Fires; which of the following is incorrect regarding the atmospheric levels where you can operate without SCBA in an environment where smoke was present? A) 0 ppm for HCN (Hydrogen Cyanide) B) 10 ppm for H2S (Hydrogen Sulfide) C) 0 ppm for CO (Carbon Monoxide) D) Not less than 20.8% Oxygen

B) 10 ppm for H2S (Hydrogen Sulfide)

According to Operational Guideline 643.00 – Request for Excavators; the on-scene Platoon/District Chief shall: A) Contact Public Works B) Contact the Deputy Chief C) Contact the Duty Officer D) Contact Building Services

C) Contact the Duty Officer

According to Operational Guideline 645.00 - Radioactive Storage Areas - McMaster University; all laboratories, which contain radioactive material, are posted with warning signs stating? A) "Caution -- Radioactive Material." B) “Danger - - Radioactive material” C) “Caution - - Radiation” D) “Danger – Radiation”

A) "Caution -- Radioactive Material."

According to Operational Guideline 645.00 - Radioactive Storage Areas - McMaster University; there are ______ areas on campus where entry must not be made until Radiation Safety personnel have monitored the areas? A) 6 B) 3 C) 7 D) 4

D) 4

According to Operational Guideline 654.00 – Notification of the Building Services Division; the Building Construction Section responds to such matters as: A) Providing physical security standards through a prevention and deterrence model for Fire damaged/vacant buildings B) Fire damaged/vacant buildings, and/or an unsafe condition of a building C) Investigates complaints on private and public property to ensure compliance with by-laws D) None of the above

B) Fire damaged/vacant buildings, and/or an unsafe condition of a building

According to Operational Guideline 654.00 – Notification of the Building Services Division; you are in Command of an incident with a structurally weakened building, should you consider notifying the Building Services Division? A) No, only if the building requires physical securing B) Yes, Building Services should be notified of a structurally weakened building C) No, only if the building has had a previous complaint for not complying with bylaws D) Yes, Building Services should be notified by the owner or responsible party (RP) of a structurally weakened building

B) Yes, Building Services should be notified of a structurally weakened building

According to Operational Guideline 654.00 – Notification of the Building Services Division; which of the following circumstances is incorrect when determining if the Building Services Division Inspector is required: A) Structurally weakened building B) Collapsed building C) Only structures which have been struck by motor vehicles or other objects D) Hazardous structures

C) Only structures which have been struck by motor vehicles or other objects

According to Operational Guideline 654.00 – Notification of the Building Services Division; as the Incident Commander, you require the boarding of premises involved in fire or other damaging circumstance. Where no responsible party is available, you should request HFD Communications Centre to contact: A) City of Hamilton Corporate Security B) City of Hamilton Building Services C) City of Hamilton Housing D) City of Hamilton Property Standards Division

D) City of Hamilton Property Standards Division

According to Operational Policy 655.00 – Operation of Aerial Ladders in High Winds; when sustained wind speeds reach _____ km/h all HFD aerial ladders will not be used. A) 70 km/h B) 90 km/h C) 56 km/h D) 80 km/h

D) 80 km/h

According to Operational Guideline 703.00 – Designated Medical Officer’s Notification; the Officer shall: A) Ensure that any Members who may have been exposed to a suspected communicable disease decontaminate on return to station B) Ensure an “Exposure Report Form” and an “Employee Incident/Accident Report Form” are completed C) Notify their District Chief immediately when the Supervisor or a Member suspects an exposure to a communicable disease has occurred D) All of the Above

B) Ensure an “Exposure Report Form” and an “Employee Incident/Accident Report Form” are completed

According to Operational Guideline 703.00 – Designated Medical Officer’s Notification; a “Report of Accidental Injury and Occupational Disease” shall be completed. These forms shall be forwarded to the ________ _________ before the end of duty on that particular shift. A) Duty Officer B) Medical Officer C) Deputy Chief D) Platoon Chief

D) Platoon Chief

According to Operational Guideline 806.00 - Air Monitoring; HFD uses standard alarm settings, which of the following settings is not correct? A) 25 ppm (low) & 40 ppm (high) for carbon monoxide (CO) B) 10 ppm (low) & 20 ppm (high) for hydrogen sulphide (H2S) C) 19.5% (low) & 23 ppm (high) for oxygen (O2) D) 5% (low) & 10% (high) LEL for combustibles

A) 25 ppm (low) & 40 ppm (high) for carbon monoxide (CO)

T/F: According to Operational Guideline 806.00 - Air Monitoring; air monitoring results taken (including a “zero” reading) shall be announced via radio to the Incident Commander and HFD Communications Centre A) True B) False

A) True

According to Operational Guideline 807.00 - Hazardous Materials Incidents – Victim Management; section 9.01 states which of the following? A) Deceased are to be left in hot zone unit all victims have been transported B) Deceased are to be left in the ambulance unit all victims have been transported C) Deceased are to be left in hot zone until decontaminated D) Deceased are to be removed first

A) Deceased are to be left in hot zone unit all victims have been transported

According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; entry into a clan lab is high risk and shall only be made to conduct a ______ rescue of human life. Under fire conditions with no life hazard, prevent extension and exposure damage but do not enter the hazard area. A) Perceived B) Known C) Unknown D) Speculated

B) Known

According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; the Incident Commander should consider ___________ __________ of attack as appropriate to protect personnel from unknown chemical exposure, explosion and rapid fire advance. A) A Defensive Mode B) An Aggressive Mode C) A Transitional Mode D) A Defensive Mode

D) A Defensive Mode

According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; you are the first arriving Officer at an incident. Which of the following clues would lead you to suspect a clandestine drug laboratory and potentially change your strategy? A) Makeshift ventilation pipes, vacuum tubes and plastic or rubber tubing B) Metal drums and boxes with labels removed or spray painted over C) Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside D) Both A & B are correct

D) Both A & B are correct

According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; you are the first arriving Officer at an incident. Which of the following clues would lead you to suspect a clandestine drug laboratory and potentially change your strategy? A) Bright interior lights left on all day and night B) Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside C) Chemical containers, particularly those that are not properly labelled D) Both A & B are correct

C) Chemical containers, particularly those that are not properly labelled

According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; which of the following is not considered a hazard associated with clan labs? A) Clan labs pose serious hazards to emergency response personnel and may also endanger residents in the community or contaminate the environment due to the lack of ventilation systems B) Inside storage of propane tanks and makeshift connections to domestic natural gas supply C) The use of water during fire suppression activities may cause a violent explosion or the release of toxic gases D) Unknown and hazardous chemicals that may be present such as radioactive materials

B) Inside storage of propane tanks and makeshift connections to domestic natural gas supply

According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; which of the following statements regarding Clandestine Drug Laboratories is incorrect? A) On occasion, a clan lab and the surrounding property may be protected with defence systems or “booby-traps” to deter unwanted visitors B) Electric switches, vacuum pumps, chemical containers, glassware, or anything that is plugged into an electrical receptacle shall be unplugged C) Operators of clan labs may not always be familiar with the flammability and reactivity of some chemicals D) Opening or moving doors, windows, refrigerator doors, chemical containers or furniture may be a triggering mechanism for an explosive device or chemical reaction that may be lethal

B) Electric switches, vacuum pumps, chemical containers, glassware, or anything that is plugged into an electrical receptacle shall be unplugged

According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; HFD shall provide support to Police personnel on scene. Which of the following is not a support action HFD shall provide? A) Mitigation of hazardous chemicals B) Provide research and information on chemicals that are suspected or are known to be in the laboratory C) Investigate and seize Clandestine Drug Laboratory equipment D) Decontamination of any entry personnel

C) Investigate and seize Clandestine Drug Laboratory equipment

According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; you are firstin and still in Command at a Clandestine Drug Laboratory, rescue of persons or fire suppression are non existent, HFD personnel shall immediately leave the clan lab area and stand-by at the safe evacuation distance of _____ m - _____ m A) 25 m – 75 m B) 50 m – 100 m C) 75 m – 125 m D) 100 m – 150 m

B) 50 m – 100 m

According to Operational Guideline 811.00 Marijuana Grow Operations; you are the first arriving Officer at an incident. Which of the following clues would lead you to suspect a marijuana grow operation and potentially change your strategy? A) Makeshift ventilation pipes, vacuum tubes and plastic or rubber tubing B) Metal drums and boxes with labels removed or spray painted over C) Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside D) Both A & B are correct

C) Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside

According to Operational Guideline 811.00 Marijuana Grow Operations; of the following is not considered a hazard associated with marijuana grow operation? A) Electrocution from electrical bypass, power lines, secondary distribution panels and transformers. B) Inside storage of propane tanks and makeshift connections to domestic natural gas supply C) Solvents and pesticides stored in the interior D) Unknown and hazardous chemicals that may be present such as radioactive materials

D) Unknown and hazardous chemicals that may be present such as radioactive materials

According to Operational Guideline 811.00 Marijuana Grow Operations; which of the following statements regarding marijuana grow operations is incorrect? A) Opening or moving doors, windows, refrigerator doors, chemical containers or furniture may be a triggering mechanism for an explosive device or chemical reaction that may be lethal B) Entry into a grow op is high risk and shall only be made to conduct a rescue of human life known to be in the premises C) The Incident Commander should consider a defensive mode of attack as appropriate to protect personnel from unknown chemical exposure, explosion and rapid fire advance D) Clues that may indicate the presence of a grow op can include windows are covered often with dark plastic, foil or newspaper and little snow on the roof in winter

A) Opening or moving doors, windows, refrigerator doors, chemical containers or furniture may be a triggering mechanism for an explosive device or chemical reaction that may be lethal

According to Operational Guideline 812.00 - Chemical Suicides; H2S is a colorless gas with notable odor of (rotten egg/sewer gas) detectable at low levels [measured in parts per million (ppm] Although pungent at first, it quickly deadens the sense of smell between the range of ________ ppm. A) 300 - 500 ppm B) 200 - 400 ppm C) 150 - 250 ppm D) 250 - 350 ppm

C) 150 - 250 ppm

According to Operational Guideline 812.00 - Chemical Suicides; what additional agencies must be notified in advance in order to avoid contamination of personnel or equipment? A) Coroner / morgue B) HPS (Hamilton Police Services) C) HPW (Hamilton Public Works) D) EMS and Hospital

D) EMS and Hospital

According to Operational Guideline 812.00 - Chemical Suicides; locations of such acts may occur in but not limited to the following areas except where vapors have the ability to disperse? A) Vehicles. B) Open areas C) Small rooms inside the residence. D) Apartments

B) Open areas

According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational Response; a confined space is any space that has the following characteristics: A) Has limited or restricted means for entry or exit. Is not designed for continuous human occupancy B) Contains a material that has the potential for engulfing an entrant C) Is large enough and so configured that a person can enter and perform assigned work D) All of the Above

D) All of the Above

According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational Response; which of the following is not a characteristic of a confined space? A) Contains or has a potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere B) An excavation made below the surface of the ground where the depth is greater than the width C) Has an internal configuration such that an entrant could be trapped or asphyxiated by inwardly converging walls or by a floor that slopes downward and tapers to a smaller cross section D) Has limited or restricted means for entry or exit. Is not designed for continuous human occupancy

B) An excavation made below the surface of the ground where the depth is greater than the width

According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational Response; you are first-in and shall determine the severity and extent of the confined space rescue emergency. Should a confined space rescue exist, the officer shall do the following except: A) Determine if the area is a confined space (by definition) B) Approach the area from the ends if possible C) Confirm that all Confined Space / HARR apparatus are responding D) Tape off the Rescue area, establish safety zone

B) Approach the area from the ends if possible

According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational Response; you are first-in and shall determine the severity and extent of the confined space rescue emergency. Should a confined space rescue exist, the officer shall do the following except: A) Assess Rescue versus Recovery mode, consideration for obvious death B) Gather information from on-site personnel such as entry permits, MSDS, and Lockout/Tag out locations C) Place ground pads around the work area D) Attempt communication with victim(s)

C) Place ground pads around the work area

According to Operational Policy 903.00 - Smoke Alarm Enforcement Policy (SAEP); a follow up on SANN’s issued will be conducted as soon as practical after____ hrs. have expired since its issuance by Operations. A) 36 B) 24 C) 48 D) 72

B) 24

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following is not an objective of a standardized reporting system for fire occurrence? A) To provide uniform data to national agencies for the documenting of national fire occurrences B) To provide a set of minimum requirements for fire safety within and around existing buildings and facilities for emergency response C) To provide information to measure the impact of fires, of fire prevention initiatives and to identify emerging trends or issues in fire occurrence D) To provide for the collection of data required for understanding of the fire problem and as mandated by the FPPA

B) To provide a set of minimum requirements for fire safety within and around existing buildings and facilities for emergency response

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; an objective of a standardized reporting system for fire occurrence is provide uniform data at the municipal and provincial level that aims to: A) Make the full extent of the fire and emergency problem known B) Reveal facts that require action C) Develop and administer codes and standards; and for fire prevention and fire protection research D) All of the Above

D) All of the Above

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; an ___________ is an incident that results in a fire department emergency response. A) Alarm B) Occurrence C) Event D) Episode

B) Occurrence

T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; a fire or explosion occurrence is defined as any instance of destructive and uncontrolled burning, including explosion of combustible solids, liquids, or gases. A) True B) False

A) True

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following shall not be used as a ‘No Loss Outdoor Fire’: A) For any fire where there was property loss, injury or death B) For any fire where there was fire spread resulting in an exposure fire C) For any fire where the fire department suspects that the fire was intentionally ignited or a result of children playing D) All of the above

D) All of the above

T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; the Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act (FIPPA) provides the public with the right of access to information that is collected by public institutions. However, this does not include data that is collected by fire departments. A) True B) False

B) False

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the Officer at an outdoor trash fire – with no loss, no injury, no fatality – but is suspected vandalism. The type of occurrence should be reported as: A) 01 Fire or Explosion B) 03 Outdoor fire/explosion C) 23 Open air burning/unauthorized controlled burning D) 33 Human – Malicious intent, prank

A) 01 Fire or Explosion

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the Officer at an outdoor trash fire – with no loss, no exposure fire – caused by improperly discarded ignited material. The type of occurrence should be reported as: A) 01 Fire or Explosion B) 03 Outdoor fire/explosion C) 35 Human Accidental D) 39 Other False Fire Call

B) 03 Outdoor fire/explosion

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; when a fire in a garage attached to a residence spreads to the residence, or a fire in a vehicle parked within a structure that spreads to the structure are not considered ‘exposure fires’ because: A) The fire originates in a vehicle in the detached garage, it is a structure fire, with the first ignited object being the vehicle in the garage B) The structure fire is not an exposure fire as the vehicle is viewed as the structure contents. The area of origin is the garage. C) The fire originates in a vehicle in the attached garage, it is a structure fire, with the first ignited object being the vehicle D) Both B and C are correct

D) Both B and C are correct

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the Officer at a rupture of a steam boiler due to internal pressure in the boiler. This incident is considered to be: A) 02 Explosion B) 11 Over pressure Rupture C) 29 Other pre fire conditions (no fire) D) 39 Other False Fire Call

B) 11 Over pressure Rupture

T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; when responding to a medical call if a specific action is undertaken (i.e.) 701 Oxygen Administered, report the action instead of the condition. A) True B) False

A) True

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; where an illegal operation is encountered, regardless of the nature of the initial call it shall be coded: A) 922 Illegal drug operation (no fire) or 92 Assisting Police B) 921 Illegal grow operation (no fire) or 922 Illegal drug operation (no fire) C) 921 Illegal grow operation (no fire) or 92 Assisting Police D) 922 Illegal drug operation (no fire) or 59 Other Public Hazard

B) 921 Illegal grow operation (no fire) or 922 Illegal drug operation (no fire)

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following incidents would not be considered a rescue: A) People trapped in an elevator B) People evacuated from an occurrence area for precautionary measures C) Vehicle extrication D) Water ice rescue

B) People evacuated from an occurrence area for precautionary measures

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following is incorrect regarding Application of Agent or Decision to Defer? A) Report the time that the extinguishing agent is initially applied by the fire department to supress the fire B) Report the time using the 24 hour clock, record an estimate of the hour (0-23), minute (0-59), and second (0-59) C) Report the time that the commanding officer makes a decision to defer the application of agent D) Report the time using the 24 hour clock, record the exact hour (0-23), minute (0- 59), and second (0-59)

B) Report the time using the 24 hour clock, record an estimate of the hour (0-23), minute (0-59), and second (0-59)

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; when would a Fire Under Control be reported? A) When the fire will not make further progress, no further resources will be required for fire attack, the fire is sufficiently surrounded and quenched that it no longer threatens further spread or destruction of additional property B) When the fire will not make further progress, further resources will be required for fire attack, the fire is sufficiently surrounded and quenched that it no longer threatens further spread or destruction of additional property C) When the fire’s progress has not been stopped, no further resources will be required for fire attack, the fire is sufficiently surrounded and quenched that it no longer threatens further spread or destruction of additional property D) When the fire will not make further progress, further resources will be required for fire attack, the fire is not sufficiently surrounded and quenched, and threatens further spread or destruction of additional property

A) When the fire will not make further progress, no further resources will be required for fire attack, the fire is sufficiently surrounded and quenched that it no longer threatens further spread or destruction of additional property

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the Officer at a call where a person smoking has fallen asleep which results in a couch fire. The code for fire ‘possible cause’ that should be used is: A) Code 44 Unattended B) Code 45 Improperly Discarded C) Code 46 Used or Placed Too Close to Combustibles D) Code 50 Other misuse of Ignition Source/Material Ignited

A) Code 44 Unattended

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following statements is correct when determining the estimated dollar loss. A) The total revenue losses or costs involved to business interruption shall be added to the estimated loss B) The property assessment value is an appropriate value for estimating loss C) The estimated dollar loss is the cost of actual damage to property and property contents, including open area losses D) In accordance with Canadian insurance practices, damages and/or destruction of buildings, installed equipment and contents shall be estimated and reported at the original cost to purchase

C) The estimated dollar loss is the cost of actual damage to property and property contents, including open area losses

T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; a multi vehicle collision fire shall be considered an exposure fire. Total exposures should be the number of vehicles, and exposure reports are required for each additional vehicle. A) True B) False

B) False

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following is not considered a fire injury? A) A person injured as a direct result of a fire/explosion (burns, asphyxia) B) A person injured by fire/explosion which results from an accidental vehicle collision (burns, asphyxia) C) A person injured that was caused by escaping the fire explosion (jumps from third floor, falls down a stairwell) D) A person injured as a result of destruction caused by the fire/explosion (wall falls, roof collapse, projectiles hurled)

B) A person injured by fire/explosion which results from an accidental vehicle collision (burns, asphyxia)

According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following statements regarding civilian fire deaths is correct? A) One injury form can encompass multiple fatalities B) In all instances, death must occur within 30 days of the incident to be classified as a fire death C) Includes a person who is known to have committed suicide by fire or explosion D) An Incident Report and Injury Report is not required for injuries and fatalities when the OFM investigation is conducted

C) Includes a person who is known to have committed suicide by fire or explosion

According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; once the first in apparatus provides their initial radio report and assumes command, knowing that the senior officers and C73, C74 will report directly to the scene, how should the remaining dispatched firefighting apparatus respond? A) The next truck only responds directly to the scene B) The next two trucks respond directly to the scene C) All trucks report directly to the scene D) None of the above

B) The next two trucks respond directly to the scene

According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; what does ‘staged’ mean? A) Units stage in the direction of travel, committed to a hydrant, approximately 50 metres from the scene B) Units stage in the direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately 60 metres from the scene C) Units stage in the direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately 90 metres from the scene D) Units stage in the direction of travel, committed to a hydrant, approximately 60 metres from the scene

B) Units stage in the direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately 60 metres from the scene

According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a timely and efficient means of air replacement and rehydration of companies assigned to a Sector or Division is known as ____________. A) Rehabilitation B) Air Management C) Recycling D) Medical

C) Recycling

According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a formal assignment where members decontaminate prior to entry and are medically evaluated before being rehydrated and replenished is known as _________________. A) Rehabilitation B) Air Management C) Recycling D) Medical

A) Rehabilitation

According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a _______ _________ involves using either the deck gun mounted on top of the engine, a 2 ½-inch handline, or a ground monitor to attack a fire. A) Quick Hit B) Master Stream C) Blitz Attack D) Indirect Attack

C) Blitz Attack

According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a _____ ______ is an application of water from an exterior hoseline (not a master stream device) as a straight stream to the ceiling above a fire. A) Quick Hit B) Master Stream C) Blitz Attack D) Direct Attack

A) Quick Hit

According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; which of the following statements about quick hits is incorrect? A) Using a quick hit should be considered when an exterior flow of water would be faster than attempting to reach the fire from the inside B) A quick hit essentially is an offensive attack in which we are sending all our water at once onto the seat of the fire C) A quick hit does not mean that an interior attack is eliminated D) A quick hit is a tactic to help facilitate an aggressive interior attack. It will cool the room, limit fire growth and increase victim survivability in the structure

B) A quick hit essentially is an offensive attack in which we are sending all our water at once onto the seat of the fire

According to the 2023 Captain Preparation Introduction presentation; which of the following statements about report writing is incorrect? A) Notes are taken in chronological order following the sequence of the event and includes all pertinent information related to report B) Notes are factual and should be comprehensive C) Notes with statements or words that refer to derogatory language, contain sarcasm, or opinions are acceptable D) Notes are completed as incident / events occur and reports completed immediately following the incident

C) Notes with statements or words that refer to derogatory language, contain sarcasm, or opinions are acceptable

According to the 2023 Captain Preparation Introduction presentation; you are writing your report after an alarm, what should be included in your report summary? A) Provide appropriate detail, ongoing patient care – be specific on actions or care being provided, for Incident reports short forms or abbreviations of words is acceptable B) Include your size up in summary, detail your actions, indicate probable cause C) Detail your actions, indicate if Police or EMS were on scene, provide your opinion as to what happened D) None of the above

B) Include your size up in summary, detail your actions, indicate probable cause

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; there are a number of reasons to complete a 360 of the building prior to entry. Which of the following statements contain correct reasons for completing a 360? A) View the fire’s size, location, and extent, identify hydrant location, ventilation profile of the structure (Identify flow paths) B) Confirm the structure has a basement and if so, what type, confirmation of the initial strategy, determine accountability location C) View the fire’s size, location, and extent, identify life safety / rescue requirements, determine safest, most appropriate attack position D) View the fire’s size, location, and extent, confirmation of the initial strategy, determine accountability location

C) View the fire’s size, location, and extent, identify life safety / rescue requirements, determine safest, most appropriate attack position

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; the primary reason to complete a 360 on residential occupancies is to identify: A) Immediate life safety issues B) Determine roof type and dead loads on the roof C) Identify locations for master stream devices D) Determine exposures

A) Immediate life safety issues

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; there are times where you may not be able to complete a 360 of a structure. Which of the following are reasons to not complete a 360. A) Immediate Life Safety Need – Rescue of the Alpha, Bravo, Delta side B) Fire has breached the roof C) Wires down D) Both A and C are Correct

D) Both A and C are Correct

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; there are times where you may not be able to complete a 360 of a structure. Which of the following are reasons to not complete a 360. A) High fence with a gate B) Fire has breached the roof C) Wires down D) Both A and C are Correct

C) Wires down

T/F: According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; if you are unable to complete a 360, Command must report that the 360 is incomplete, and assign another unit to complete the 360. A) True B) False

A) True

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; as an Incident Commander you must listen critically to ‘conditions’ of CAN reports as they may provide you with a red flag. A) Can’t locate the fire, high heat encountered B) A working fire in a concealed space, high heat encountered, limited or no visibility C) A working fire in a concealed space, limited or no visibility D) Can’t locate the fire, high ceilings,

B) A working fire in a concealed space, high heat encountered, limited or no visibility

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; ________ ________ is defined as: moving from an assigned work location to a different geographic work location or exiting the structure to recycle or rehabilitation. A) Priority Traffic B) CAN Report C) Status Change D) Follow-Up Report

C) Status Change

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; which of the following is not one of the 8 Functions of Command? A) Organization B) Situation Evaluation C) Emergency Response D) Revise, Evaluation & Revision

C) Emergency Response

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; which of the following is not one of the 8 Functions of Command? A) Communications B) Accountability C) Continue, Support and Terminate Command D) Strategy and Incident Action Planning

B) Accountability

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command? A) Accountability B) Emergency Response C) Deployment D) None of the Above

C) Deployment

D) None of the Above

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command? A) Organization B) Accountability C) Tactical Priorities D) Both B and C are correct

A) Organization

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command? A) Tactical Priorities B) Assumption, Confirmation and Positioning C) Organization D) Both B and C are correct

D) Both B and C are correct

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; which of the following are central command’s tactical priorities? A) Conserve property and the environment during and after operations B) Provide short-term services that stabilize and begin to normalize the customers’ lives C) Protect, remove, and provide care for endangered customers D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; which of the following is not one of central command’s tactical priorities? A) Provide short-term services that stabilize and begin to normalize the customers’ lives B) Utilize the IMS Finance/Administration Section to provide the financial and cost analysis for the incident C) Stabilize the incident or problem D) Provide for responder safety and survival

B) Utilize the IMS Finance/Administration Section to provide the financial and cost analysis for the incident

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; your initial radio report should consist of seven pieces of vital information. Which of the following make up your initial report? A) Clear Alarm – Announce your arrival on scene B) Building Area Description C) Problem Description D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; your initial radio report should consist of seven pieces of vital information. Which of the following make up your initial report? A) Initial IAP – Action plan being taken B) Declaration of the Strategy C) Assumption & Naming of Command D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; your initial radio report should consist of seven pieces of vital information. Which of the following make up your initial report? A) Resource Determination B) Building Area Description C) Assumption & Naming of Command D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; the size of the structure should be defined by the overall size of the building, not the occupancy type. Sizes are based on 200 ft. (60m) hoselines. Which of the following is correct? A) When a 200' (60m) line can access 100% of the fire area/occupancy - it is SMALL B) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 75% of the fire area/occupancy – it is MEDIUM C) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 50% of the fire area/occupancy – it is LARGE D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; the size of the structure should be defined by the overall size of the building, not the occupancy type. Sizes are based on 200 ft. (60m) hoselines. Which of the following is incorrect? A) When a 200’ (60m) line can access less than 25 percent (or less) of the fire area/occupancy – it is VERY LARGE B) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 65% of the fire area/occupancy – it is INTERMEDIATE C) When a 200' (60m) line can access 100% of the fire area/occupancy - it is SMALL D) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 50% of the fire area/occupancy – it is LARGE

B) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 65% of the fire area/occupancy – it is INTERMEDIATE

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; prior to making an entry, the first-in command officer shall complete a 360 of the building. The first-in command officer should be observing the following: A) Any immediate life safety/rescue issues B) Number of storeys from the Charlie side C) Basement type and conditions (if known) D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; prior to making an entry, the first-in command officer shall complete a 360 of the building. The first-in command officer should be observing the following except: A) Any immediate life safety/rescue issues B) Any other significant critical factors C) Hydrant location D) Incident problem(s) and location (if different from Initial Radio Report)

C) Hydrant location

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; assigning units to Operating Positions/Functions in the Hazard Zone using the “Assignment Model”. This means the Incident Commander should assign fireground jobs by providing ________, __________, and __________ to the crew company officer. A) Task, Location, Objective B) Task, Assignment, Objective C) Task, Location, Duration D) Assignment, Location, Objective

A) Task, Location, Objective

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. What are some examples of Conditions? A) Where you are B) Smoke conditions C) Fuel loads D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. Which would not be a Condition? A) Interior visibility B) Search progress C) Fire conditions D) What is burning

B) Search progress

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. What are some examples of Actions? A) Search progress B) Fire-control progress C) All-clear D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. Which would not be an Action? A) Loss stopped B) Interior layout C) Can’t find the fire D) Checking for extension

B) Interior layout

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. What are some examples of Needs? A) Tools of equipment B) Reinforcement C) Support work (ventilation, forcible entry) D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. Which would not be a Need? A) Heat conditions B) Relief/Rehabilitation C) Air cylinder exchange D) Urgent help

A) Heat conditions

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; which is the correct way to label this example below? A) North (i), South (iii), East (iv), West (ii) B) North (iii), South (i), East (ii), West (iv) C) Clockwise: Alpha (i), Bravo (ii), Charlie (iii), Delta (iv) D) Counter-clockwise: Alpha (i) , Bravo (iv), Charlie (iii), Delta (ii) Answer: C Slide 14 E1

C) Clockwise: Alpha (i), Bravo (ii), Charlie (iii), Delta (iv

According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; you are assigning a crew to check for an exposure where indicated with a Maltese cross. The correct naming of this location would be: A) Alpha-Bravo corner B) Charlie-Delta corner C) Alpha-Delta corner D) Bravo-Charlie corner Answer: D Slide 14 E

D) Bravo-Charlie corner

B) Charlie-Delta corner

A) Alpha-Bravo corner

C) Alpha-Delta corner

T/F: According to the 2023 Command Transfers and Routine Radio Reports presentation; Command is not officially transferred until the Officer assuming command reports it over the radio, and it is confirmed by Dispatch. A) True B) False

A) True

According to the 2023 Command Transfers and Routine Radio Reports presentation; the IC#2, or HFD Senior Officer should perform the following functions before assuming command. A) Size-up and verify that all operating positions match the current incident conditions B) Transmit that you have arrived on scene C) Contact IC#1 and verify the position and function of all hazard zone resources and get a CAN report D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the 2023 Command Transfers and Routine Radio Reports presentation; the IC#2, or HFD Senior Officer should perform the following functions before assuming command. A) Contact and confirm the command transfer with dispatch B) Inform IC #1 that you’ll be assuming command (taking it out here) C) Announce the current strategy, make resource determination D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the 2023 Command Transfers and Routine Radio Reports presentation; what is the purpose of performing a Command Transfer? A) To ensure that IC#2 knows where all crews are, and what they are doing in case of an emergency on the fireground B) There is no reason for a Command Transfer C) Every Command Transfer starts with a Size-Up by IC#2, The Senior Officer recognizes that crews are working towards achieving the Tactical Priorities, and that the Standard Actions are or should be creating Standard Outcomes D) Both A and C are correct

D) Both A and C are correct

According to the 2023 Command Transfers and Routine Radio Reports presentation; ________ _______ is a transmission for red flag information only to the Incident Commander, the Order Model can be interrupted when important tactical information that will require adjustments to the current IAP or strategy must be required. A) Priority Traffic B) CAN Report C) Status Change D) Follow-Up Report

A) Priority Traffic

According to the 2023 Command Transfers and Routine Radio Reports presentation; you are the Officer on L1 and have found a victim during your search your transmissions should be: A) L1 to Command with a Status Change …. Go Ahead. L1 has located a victim on the main floor. We are bringing them to the front door alpha side. Primary search is incomplete. We’ll need EMS support B) L1 to Command with Priority Traffic …. Go Ahead. L1 has located a victim on the main floor. We are bringing them to the front door alpha side. Primary search is incomplete. We’ll need EMS support C) L1 to Command with Emergency Traffic …. Go Ahead. L1 has located a victim on the main floor. We are bringing them to the front door alpha side. Primary search is incomplete. We’ll need EMS support D) L1 to Command with Priority Traffic …. Go Ahead. L1 has located a victim on the main floor.

B) L1 to Command with Priority Traffic …. Go Ahead. L1 has located a victim on the main floor. We are bringing them to the front door alpha side. Primary search is incomplete. We’ll need EMS support

According to the 2023 Command Transfers and Routine Radio Reports presentation; a roof report should include the following except: A) Type of Roof (peaked, flat, etc.) B) Heavy Roof Loads (if present) C) Ladder type required to access the roof D) Condition of Roof (stable, unstable)

C) Ladder type required to access the roof

According to the 2023 Command Transfers and Routine Radio Reports presentation; you are the Officer on L1 who was directed to check the status of the roof of a structure. The roof is flat. You recognize that the roof is unstable with heavy dead loads. You believe that it will eventually collapse. Your transmission should be: A) L1 to Command with a Status Change …. Go Ahead. L1 has made the roof, we have a peaked roof that is unstable with heavy dead loads. B) L1 to Command with Priority Traffic …. Go Ahead. L1 has made the roof, we have a flat roof that is unstable with heavy dead loads. C) L1 to Command with Priority Traffic …. Go Ahead. L1 has made the roof, we have a peaked roof that is unstable with heavy dead loads. D) L1 to Command with Emergency Traffic …. Go Ahead. L1 has made the roof, we have a flat roof that is unstable with heavy dead loads.

B) L1 to Command with Priority Traffic …. Go Ahead. L1 has made the roof, we have a flat roof that is unstable with heavy dead loads.

According to the 2023 Emergency Radio Traffic and MAYDAYS presentation; the best way to run a MAYDAY incident is to operate in a manner that prevents them from occurring. Which of the following practices can reinforce operating in a manner that can prevent a MAYDAY from occurring? A) Performing 360s (with a TIC) whenever possible B) Putting water on the fire as quickly and as safely as possible C) Following all SOPs D) All of the Above

D) All of the Above

According to the 2022 Blue Card Module 1 Intro presentation; the Incident Commander must always match Standard Conditions to Standard Actions for a ___________ ____________. A) Superior Result B) Standard Conclusion C) Standard Effect D) Standard Outcome

D) Standard Outcome

According to the 2022 Blue Card Module 1 Intro presentation; the command procedure mobilzes and integrates efforts for on-scene firefighters with a central command presence. Which of the following statements is incorrect about centralized command? A) The command procedure provides a coordinated effort of all resources at the scene to gain control of the situation B) The command procedure ensures that strong, direct and visible command is established as early as possible C) The command procedure shall be delayed until a Senior Officer arrives on scene so that they can develop and manage an effective Incident Action Plan (IAP) D) The command procedure fixes responsibility on an individual to become the Incident Commander through a standard identification system

C) The command procedure shall be delayed until a Senior Officer arrives on scene so that they can develop and manage an effective Incident Action Plan (IAP)

According to the 2022 Blue Card Module 1 Intro presentation; during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up, there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. There are factors that are fixed (meaning you have no control over them) and others that are variable (which you can control). What are the three fixed factors? A) Life Safety, Action, Arrangement B) Building, Occupancy, Arrangement C) Fire, Life Safety, Resources D) Building, Occupancy, Fire

B) Building, Occupancy, Arrangement

According to the 2022 Blue Card Module 1 Intro presentation; effective Incident Organization, fulfills all of the following except, A) The Company Officer control where their firefighters are and what they are doing B) The Incident Commander controls where the firefighters are and what they are doing C) The Incident Commander has control over the position and function of all resources D) The Incident Commander builds an effective organization to decentralize the incident scene

A) The Company Officer control where their firefighters are and what they are doing

According to the 2022 Blue Card Module 1 Intro presentation; in most situations the first arriving company officer will work in operate in which organizational levels? A) Strategic B) Tactical C) Task D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the 2022 Incident Communications presentation; during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up (Function 3), there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. Which of the following is not considered a Critical Incident Factor? A) Life Hazard – determine what are the number and location of occupants, identify resources to conduct search and identify EMS needs B) Strike Teams – a functional component within Operations composed of the same kind of resources C) Occupancy – determine the specific occupancy and type. What is the value associated with the occupancy and what is its status; open, closed, vacant, occupied D) Arrangement – what is the distance of external exposures combustibility of exposures, access, arrangement of internal exposures (open concept) and the fire effect on those exposures, are there barriers or obstructions to operations

B) Strike Teams – a functional component within Operations composed of the same kind of resources

According to the 2022 Incident Communications presentation; during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up, there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. Which of the following is not considered a Critical Incident Factor? A) Special Circumstances – consider time of day, weekday or weekend, holidays. What are weather issues, if any. Identify if this a response for social or civil unrest B) Building – factors include the size, area and height of the building, construction type, age and compartment separation C) Emergency Control Group – directs a community’s overall strategic response to an emergency D) Fire – factors include the size, extent and location, what stage is the fire in, what type of fire load is present

C) Emergency Control Group – directs a community’s overall strategic response to an emergency

According to the 2022 Incident Communications presentation; during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up, there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. Which of the following is not considered a Critical Incident Factor? A) Action – what effect the current action is having, is an effective Incident Action Plan (IAP in place), is layering in place to support a 3-deep deployment model B) Unified Command – immediately establish a Unified Command structure, requiring joint, inter-dependent decision-making C) Resources – factors include staffing and equipment on scene, or available in staging, condition of responders, hydrants and water supply, and built-in protection systems D) Occupancy – determine the specific occupancy and type. What is the value associated with the occupancy and what is its status; open, closed, vacant, occupied

B) Unified Command – immediately establish a Unified Command structure, requiring joint, inter-dependent decision-making

The City of Hamilton Code of Conduct for Employees Schedule A: Conflict of Interest identifies Public Duty as a role of all city staff and the following would be a contravention of that public duty: A) Commenting a matter of public interest as a citizen member of community group B) Commenting on a matter of public interest as a representative of the Fire Department on a city appointed committee C) Providing critical comment on a City matter on social media as a representative of the Hamilton Fire Department D) Acknowledging a work anniversary of a co-worker on socialmedia

C) Providing critical comment on a City matter on social media as a representative of the Hamilton Fire Department

In the City of Hamilton Code of Conduct for Employees Schedule A: Conflict of Interest, if an employee has a conflict of interest they must notify their: A) Immediate supervisor through verbal notification B) Immediate supervisor by the end of the work day C) Immediate supervisor in writing D) Union representative of their conflict

C) Immediate supervisor in writing

According to the Corporate Human Resources Policy – Code of Conduct for Employees Policy (Policy HR-01-09), it states that “employees are required to report all conflicts of interest that may come to their attention to the: A) City Council B) Human Resources C) Chief Administrative Officer D) Director, Manager, or Supervisor

D) Director, Manager, or Supervisor

In accordance with the City of Hamilton, Code of Conduct for Employees Policy (Policy Hr – 01-09) Directors, Managers, Supervisors and Elected Officials must: A) Ensure that employees review and sign off on the Code of Conduct annually B) Ensure that employees review and sign off on the Code of Conduct on a bi annual basis C) Ensure that employees review and sign off on the Code of Conduct on a quarterly basis D) None of the above

A) Ensure that employees review and sign off on the Code of Conduct annually

The vision of the 2016 – 2025 City of Hamilton Strategic Plan is: A) To be the best place to live and age successfully B) To be the best place to retire and age successfully C) To be the best place to raise a child and family D) To be the best place to raise a child and age successfully

D) To be the best place to raise a child and age successfully

The City of Hamilton Corporate Culture Pillars are comprised of five pillars two of which are: A) Enthusiastic Employees and Collective Ownership B) Steadfast Integrity and Continuous Improvement C) Sensational Service and Courageous Change D) Engaged Empowered Employees and Collective Change

C) Sensational Service and Courageous Change

The City of Hamilton Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy applies to all employees except: A) Probationary employees B) Student employees C) Interns D) None of the above

D) None of the above

Under the Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy, Management is responsible to ensure that a workplace is free of Harassment and Discrimination by undertaking the following action: A) When notified about a possible harassment issue establish a cooling off period to allow employs to rethink their actions B) When notified about a harassment or discrimination complaint immediately conduct a formal investigation into the matter C) When notified about a harassment or discrimination complaint advise the employee to contact Human Resources about the matter D) When notified about a harassment or discrimination issue immediately contact a City of Hamilton Human Rights Specialist

D) When notified about a harassment or discrimination issue immediately contact a City of Hamilton Human Rights Specialist

Under the Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy managers play a significant role in addressing potential issues of harassment. Which of the following is not the role of management under the policy? A) Setting a good example by not engaging or tolerating harassment to discrimination B) Undertaking efforts to protect workers from harassment and discrimination C) Discussing with an employee the issue of discrimination if the manager believes the employee may be too embarrassed to discuss the issue D) Use discretion if an issue is raised by not taking immediate action but documenting the alleged incident for future action/reference

D) Use discretion if an issue is raised by not taking immediate action but documenting the alleged incident for future action/reference

Under the Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy workers have an important role to ensure that their work environment is free from harassment and discrimination. Which of the following actions are not the responsibility of the workers under the policy? A) To not engage in any behaviour that is or may be perceived as harassment or discrimination B) To report incidents of harassment or discrimination to their supervisor C) To address any harassing or discriminatory actions against a fellow worker by interveningon their behalf in a situation D) To cooperate fully in any attempts to resolve a complaint including investigations undertaken by the City of Hamilton regarding a complaint of Harassment and Discrimination.

C) To address any harassing or discriminatory actions against a fellow worker by intervening on their behalf in a situation

According to the Harassment and Discrimination policy; harassment and discrimination can occur under which one of the following prohibitive grounds underthe Ontario Human Rights Code: A) Race B) Ethnic origin C) Creed (religion) D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which of the following behaviours is not deemed to be an example of Harassing or Discriminatory behaviours that fall under the City of Hamilton Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy? A) Written or verbal abuse or threats B) Vandalism of personal property C) Storing of information that contravenes Federal Law on your work computer D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which of the following is not deemed an inappropriate sexual harassment behaviour that would fall under the City’s Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy? A) Unwanted touching or patting B) Racial or ethnic slur C) Displaying sexually offensive material D) Leering (suggestive staring) at a person’s body

B) Racial or ethnic slur

Under the Procedure for Resolving Harassment & Discrimination Issues forming part of the City of Hamilton Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy which of the following actions is not an encouraged action for a worker to attempt before a formal complaint is filed: A) Make their displeasure known to the person causing the behaviour and asking them to stop their offensive behaviour B) Ask for a transfer from their current job to avoid further harassment C) Seek advice from a union representative D) all of the above

B) Ask for a transfer from their current job to avoid further harassment

In accordance with the City of Hamilton Procedure for Resolving Harassment & Discrimination Issues, an employee who has a complaint alleging violation of either the Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy or the Personal (Workplace) Harassment Prevention Policy is encouraged to attempt the following before a formal complaint is filed: A) Seek advice from a Union representative (where applicable) B) Seek council from a private lawyer or solicitor C) Discuss the alleged harassment with co-workers D) Lodge a complaint with the Police

A) Seek advice from a Union representative (where applicable)

In accordance with the City of Hamilton Procedure for Resolving Harassment & Discrimination Issues, a complaint alleging violation of either the Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy or the Personal (Workplace) Harassment Prevention Policy can be resolved through and informal resolution utilizing which of the following methods: A) Education/Training for employees B) Changing work responsibilities between the aggrieved parties C) Involving the Manager/Supervisor to develop a management plan to ensure a respectful and supportive workplace D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Under the Personal Harassment Prevention Policy, the City of Hamilton is responsible for: A) Providing a workplace free from all forms of harassment B) Creating an environment that encourages the reporting of all incidents of personal harassments. C) Promoting religious freedoms within the workplaces throughout the City work spaces D) both a and b

D) both a and b

Under the City of Hamilton Personal (Workplace) Harassment Policy, which behaviour is not an offending behaviour and not deemed a harassing behaviour: A) Ongoing condescending comments B) False accusations C) Bullying D) None of the above

D) None of the above

In accordance with the City of Hamilton Personal (Workplace) Harassment Policy (Policy HR-62-13); any employee who is found to have violated this policy may be disciplined according to the severity of the actions, up to and including: A) Garnishee of wages B) Termination with cause and with severance pay C) One (1) week suspension D) Termination with cause and without termination pay/severance

D) Termination with cause and without termination pay/severance

In accordance with the City of Hamilton Personal (Workplace) Harassment Policy (Policy HR 62-13) the following behavior or comment is not deemed to constitute harassment under the policy: A) False accusations B) A performance related issue as part of a work related performance appraisal. C) Spreading malicious rumours of gossip D) Repeated offensive gestures or comments

B) A performance related issue as part of a work related performance appraisal.

According to the Violence in the Workplace Prevention Procedure; where an incident of workplace violence has occurred, it is to be investigated: A) By the Manager or Supervisor B) By Hamilton Police Services only C) By a member of the Joint Occupational Health & Safety Committee D) Within 5 working days of the incident

A) By the Manager or Supervisor

According to the Violence in the Workplace Prevention Procedure; the City of Hamilton Violence in the Workplace Prevention Procedure the following is/are roles and or responsibilities of management: A) Advise workers of any actual or potential hazards related to workplace violence B) Co-operate fully in any investigation of a workplace violence incident C) Develop emergency response protocols for summoning immediate assistance in situations of possible Workplace violence D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Under the Violence in the Workplace Prevention Procedure, employees are required to: A) Immediately report all incidents of workplace violence to Supervisors or Human Resources B) Participate in annual training sessions concerning violence in theworkplace C) Maintain a written journal on all witnessed or suspected incidents involving violence in the workplace D) All of the above

A) Immediately report all incidents of workplace violence to Supervisors or Human Resources

According to the City of Hamilton Communication Policy - Media Relations; staff cannot participate in social media on behalf of the City of Hamilton unless they have received authorization from: A) Duty Officer B) Corporate Communications C) Chief Communications Officer D) Department Communications Officer/Public Affairs Coordinator

D) Department Communications Officer/Public Affairs Coordinator

According to the City of Hamilton Communication Policy - Media Relations; Appendix 2 Social Media Use, the purpose and rationale in establishing a Social Media Use Policy is to: A) Ensure the media have current information on city issues B) Limit the liability of employees and the corporation C) Provide city staff with an opportunity to comment on city issues D) All of the above

B) Limit the liability of employees and the corporation

According to Corporate Procedure ‘Substance Use for Safety-Sensitive Positions’; use and the after-effects of alcohol and illicit drugs, or side effects of the use of medication, could impair employee performance or could compromise health and safety. Symptoms of impaired behaviour could include: A) Uncharacteristic or abnormal behaviour (e.g. euphoria, frequent or rapid mood swings, excitement, confusion, irritability, aggressiveness, remoteness) B) Smell of alcohol or drugs (on breath, or clothing, or in the air surrounding the employee) C) Diminished performance (e.g. sporadic work pace, neglect of duty, increase in mistakes, difficulty communicating or recalling instructions) D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to Corporate Procedure ‘Substance Use for Safety-Sensitive Positions’; warning signs of possible Substance Use Disorder could include: A) Disheveled or inconsistent appearance (e.g. always wearing long sleeves on very hot days, possibly intended to cover track marks on the arms) B) Decrease in risk-taking behaviour C) Frequent but unspecified medical complaints D) Both A) and C) are correct

D) Both A) and C) are correct

According to Corporate Procedure ‘Substance Use for Safety-Sensitive Positions’; there are steps to take if you suspect an employee is impaired. Supervisors are required to exercise good judgement and to seek out advice from the Human Resources Division when required. The steps to be taken if you suspect that an employee is impaired will depend on the behaviour exhibited or the circumstance surrounding the suspicion. Which of the following is not a step a supervisor should take with a suspected impaired employee? A) Remove the employee to a private and safe location and seek an explanation for the behaviours or circumstances. Ask the employee if they consumed alcohol or cannabis, has taken drugs, or is on any medication, If the employee says no to substance use, ask if there are any other reasons explaining why they may be behaving in the manner that they are B) If it is necessary to remove the employee from the workplace, the employee shall drive themselves home C) If there is reasonable cause to suspect that an employee holding a safety sensitive position is impaired by alcohol or drug use (including medications), the employee must be immediately removed from duty D) Document the employee’s behaviour, the circumstances, and the employee’s responses

B) If it is necessary to remove the employee from the workplace, the employee shall drive themselves home

According to Corporate Procedure ‘Substance Use for Safety-Sensitive Positions’; you suspect that the employee is impaired. The employee is not in need of immediate medical care, you do not need to call 911, what are the next steps you should take? A) Notify the District or Platoon Chief; remove the employee to a private and safe location and seek an explanation for the behaviours or circumstances; follow up with the employee on the next working day B) If there is a reasonable cause to suspect that an employee holding a safetysensitive position is impaired by alcohol or drug use (including medications), the employee must be immediately removed from duty; if possible, a second supervisor or manager should be a witness to the behaviours or circumstances which led the supervisor to suspect that the employee is impaired; remove the employee to a private and safe location and seek an explanation for the behaviours or circumstances C) If there is a reasonable cause to suspect that an employee holding a safetysensitive position is impaired by alcohol or drug use (excluding medications), the employee must be immediately removed from duty; if possible, a second supervisor or manager should be a witness to the behaviours or circumstances which led the supervisor to suspect that the employee is impaired; remove the employee to a private and safe location and seek an explanation for the behaviours or circumstances D) Remove the employee to a private and safe location and seek an explanation for the behaviours or circumstances; allow the employee to remain on duty; document the employee’s behaviour, the circumstances, and the employee’s responses

B) If there is a reasonable cause to suspect that an employee holding a safetysensitive position is impaired by alcohol or drug use (including medications), the employee must be immediately removed from duty; if possible, a second supervisor or manager should be a witness to the behaviours or circumstances which led the supervisor to suspect that the employee is impaired; remove the employee to a private and safe location and seek an explanation for the behaviours or circumstances

According to Corporate Procedure ‘Substance Use for Safety-Sensitive Positions’; should the employee decline transportation and attempts to operate a vehicle, the manager will alert the ____________. A) Platoon Chief B) Police C) Deputy Chief D) Peer Lead

B) Police

According to the Corporate ‘Substance Use Policy for Safety-Sensitive Positions’; which of the following principles for substance use for safety-sensitive positions is correct? A) Supervisors need to recognize situations where an employee appears to be under the influence of a substance or who may have an alcohol or drug dependency and need to take all appropriate actions B) The City of Hamilton will follow all applicable health and safety, human rights and privacy legislation C) All employees in safety-sensitive positions understand that they must report and remain fit for duty at all times D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Corporate ‘Substance Use Policy for Safety-Sensitive Positions’; which of the following is not a responsibility of a supervisor? A) Be aware that they will be either removed from duty or removed from the safetysensitive position, and accommodated through other duties as possible, if there are concerns related t alcohol, cannabis, illicit drugs, or medication that might hinder their job performance or compromise health and safety B) Regularly communicate with employees about the need to maintain a workplace that is free from alcohol or drugs C) Identify and address any situation where an employee appears to be under the influence of alcohol, cannabis, illicit drugs, or medication that could impair job performance or compromise health and safety or where an employee appears to have a Substance Use Disorder problem D) Follow the Substance Use Procedures for Safety-Sensitive Positions

A) Be aware that they will be either removed from duty or removed from the safetysensitive position, and accommodated through other duties as possible, if there are concerns related t alcohol, cannabis, illicit drugs, or medication that might hinder their job performance or compromise health and safety

Under the City of Hamilton Substance Policy it is the expectation that employees: A) Must not report for duty while impaired by alcohol or illicit drugs B) Must not engage in unauthorized consumption of alcohol while on duty or in the workplace C) Must use medications responsibly ensuring their ability to perform work safely, competently or efficiently is not impaired D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Under the City of Hamilton Substance Policy managers and supervisors are responsible for the following: A) Communicate with employees about the need to maintain a workplace that is free from substance abuse B) Identify and address any situation where an employee appears to be impaired/unfit to work that could impact their ability to perform their job safely C) Prohibit without exception the operation of a motor vehicle by an employee who appears impaired/unfit for work D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the City of Hamilton Substance Use Procedure the following impairment behaviors would give rise to reasonable cause to believe that an employee is impaired/unfit for duty and may be unable to perform their jobsafely, competently and efficiently: A) Slurred speech B) Glassy eyes C) Smell of alcohol or drugs on breath or clothing or in the air surrounding the employee D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Substance Use Procedure, Steps - If It Is Suspected That An Employee Is Impaired /Unfit for Duty, a supervisor may undertake the following actions for an employee believed to be impaired/unfit for duty: A) Remove the employee to a private and safe location and seek an explanation for their behavior B) Seek the opinion of a second supervisor where possible to confirm your observation C) If there is reasonable cause to believe that an employee is impaired/unfit for duty, the employee must be removed immediately from theworkplace D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy; which of the following is not deemed “Authorized Users” of Computer and Network Services? A) Contract City employees B) Cleaning staff with card access to City buildings C) Elected officials D) Interns working at the recreation centres

B) Cleaning staff with card access to City buildings

Under the City of Hamilton Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy; the City has the right to monitor: A) All personal emails except for those marked ‘private’ B) All internet sites visited byan authorized city user C) All personal emails marked ‘private’ D) Both b) & c)

D) Both b) & c)

Under the City of Hamilton Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy, it is allowable to bring a flash drive from home and connect to a City computer provided: A) You get approval from your supervisor B) You contact IT and get approval C) You virus scan before using the device D) The material on the portable media is not offensive and contravention to the City’s Code of Conduct Policy

C) You virus scan before using the device

According to the City of Hamilton Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy; the following use(s) appropriate: A) Using the internet to conduct research on textile flammability B) Sending minutes of the OMFPOA chapter meeting C) Participating in work related mailing lists or forums D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the City of Hamilton Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy the following is/are not considered a violation of the Policy: A) Participating in personal chat groups dealing with home energy efficiency during lunch time B) Downloading and storing NHL 2012 Hockey on your personal drive C) Sending religious inspired chain letters to your friends at work D) None of the above

D) None of the above

According to the City of Hamilton Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy; when are users required to log off their computer? A) Just prior to regularly scheduled maintenance B) When leaving the workplace for any extended period C) Leaving a workstation to go to the washroom D) Both b) & c)

B) When leaving the workplace for any extended period

According to the City of Hamilton Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy; which of the following is considered prohibited email/internet use? A) Responding to public enquiries B) Creating job related information resources C) Participating in internet chat groups that are not job related D) Participating in job related research

C) Participating in internet chat groups that are not job related

What is the permitted size for a “standard open air burning” outdoor fire under the City of Hamilton Open Air Burning By-law Open Air Burning permit? A) 1m x 1m x 2m high B) 2m x 2m x 2m high C) 2m x 2m x 1m high D) 1m x 1m x 1m high

C) 2m x 2m x 1m high

According to Open Air Burning By-Law No. 02-283; who can enforce the Open Air Burning By-law? A) The Fire Chief B) The Chief Fire Prevention Officer C) An Assistant to the Fire Marshal D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to Open Air Burning By-Law No. 02-283; what is the required clearance that must be maintained between outdoor fireplaces and combustible materials? A) 1m B) 2m C) 3m D) 4m

C) 3m

According to Open Air Burning By-Law No. 02-283; what is the required clearance between a “standard open air burning” size pile and combustibles/structures? A) 30m B) 15m C) 25m D) 20m

A) 30m

According to Open Air Burning By-Law No. 02-283; in a standard open air burn pile, vegetation must be cleared for what distance around the burning material? A) 1m B) 2m C) 3m D) Not applicable

B) 2m

According to Open Air Burning By-Law No. 02-283; what is the maximum size permitted for a recreational campfire? A) 1m x 1m B) 1m in diameter C) 0.6m x 0.6m D) 0.6m in diameter

D) 0.6m in diameter

According to the Fireworks By-Law; which of the following is incorrect? Family Fireworks sold in stores must: A) Be mock samples only if displayed in a shop window B) Be displayed in a location designated and posted as a “no smoking” area C) Be sold only to persons who appear to be over the age of 18 years D) Be located immediately adjacent to any flammable/combustible liquids offered for sale by the store

D) Be located immediately adjacent to any flammable/combustible liquids offered for sale by the store

According to the Fireworks By-Law; which of the following persons are not authorized to enforce the Fireworks By-law (02-285)? A) The Chief Fire Prevention Officer B) By-law Enforcement Officer C) A Firefighter D) A Police Constable

C) A Firefighter

According to the Fireworks By-Law; locations where Family Fireworks are sold must be: A) Separated from other areas of the building by a 30-minute fire separation B) Posted with signs indicating the storage of explosive materials C) Posted with signs designating the area as a no smoking area D) Separated from all other storage by a distance of 1.5m

C) Posted with signs designating the area as a no smoking area

According to the Fireworks By-Law; what is the minimum distance from buildings that display fireworks are permitted to be set off? A) 15m B) 25m C) 10m D) 20m

C) 10m

According to the Fireworks By-Law; who is authorized to enforce the Fireworks By-law? A) Every By-Law Enforcement Officer for the City of Hamilton B) Ever Police Constable C) Each member of Hamilton Emergency Services designated as an Assistant to the Fire Marshal D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Fire Route By-Law; the maximum fine for contravening any provision of the Fire Routes By-law (01-217) is: A) $5,000, exclusive of costs B) $2,000, exclusive of costs C) $3,000, exclusive of costs D) $1,000, exclusive of costs

A) $5,000, exclusive of costs

According to the Fire Route By-Law; the definition of prohibited “park” or “parking" under the Fire Route By-law (01-217) allows the following: A) For the purpose of and while actually engaged in loading or unloading merchandise or passengers B) Temporary parking to wait for another person if the vehicle is occupied C) Temporary parking to allow tradespersons to conduct their business in a building D) Parking of handicapped persons at all times unless an emergency is in progress

A) For the purpose of and while actually engaged in loading or unloading merchandise or passengers

According to the Fire Route By-Law; what vehicles may park in a fire route? A) Only vehicles operated by Hamilton Emergency Services B) Only vehicles operated by the Hamilton PoliceService C) Only vehicles designated as authorized emergency vehicles D) Only vehicles designated as authorized emergency vehicles and vehicles owned or operated by or on behalf of the City of Hamilton while by-law enforcement services are being carried out by the driver or occupant

D) Only vehicles designated as authorized emergency vehicles and vehicles owned or operated by or on behalf of the City of Hamilton while by-law enforcement services are being carried out by the driver or occupant

As required by the Occupational Health and Safety Act, the physical condition of the workplace is required to be inspected by a Health and Safety representative: A) Monthly B) Every three months C) Every six months D) Yearly

A) Monthly

According to the Occupational Health & Safety Act, which of the following duties is not a duty of a supervisor? A) To ensure a worker uses or wears protective equipment and clothing that the worker's employer requires to be used or worn B) To ensure that equipment and protective devices provided by the employer are maintained in good condition C) To advise a worker of the existence of any potential or actual danger to the health and safety of the worker of which a supervisor is aware D) To take every precaution reasonable in the circumstances for the protection of a worker

B) To ensure that equipment and protective devices provided by the employer are maintained in good condition

Under Part V – “Right to Refuse or to Stop Work Where Health and Safety in Danger”, within the Occupational Health & Safety Act, until the investigation is completed, the worker . A) Shall remain in the office / work station of his or her supervisor B) Shall be sent home but must be readily available to return to the work site as required C) Shall remain at a safe place that is as near as reasonably possible to his or her work station D) Stay in the nearest designated lunchroom

C) Shall remain at a safe place that is as near as reasonably possible to his or her work station

A Guide to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, Section 5 “The Rights of Workers” gives basic rights to workers, they are: A) The Right to Participate, the Right to know, the Right to Refuse Work, the Right to stop Work B) The Right to Participate, the Right to Refuse Work, the Right to Stop Work. C) The Right to ensure that protective devices are cleaned regularly D) The Right to be provided equipment, materials and protective devices as prescribed

A) The Right to Participate, the Right to know, the Right to Refuse Work, the Right to stop Work.

A Guide to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, “Workplace Violence and Workplace Harassment” states the following are key requirements of the Act with respect to workplace violence and workplace harassment: A) Policies, Programs, Information and Instruction, Assessment of Risks, Results of an Assessment or Reassessment, Domestic Violence, General Duties and Application to Workplace Violence, and Work Refusal B) Information and Instruction, Assessment of Risks, Reassessment, Domestic Violence,General Duties and Application to Workplace Violence, and Work Refusal C) Policies, General Duties and Application to Workplace Violence, and Work Refusal D) Policies, Programs, Assessment of Risks, Results of an Assessment or Reassessment, General Duties and Application to Workplace Violence

A) Policies, Programs, Information and Instruction, Assessment of Risks, Results of an Assessment or Reassessment, Domestic Violence, General Duties and Application to Workplace Violence, and Work Refusal

A Guide to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, defines a Workplace as: A) An institution or physical building B) Vehicles are exempted from this definition C) Any place in or near to where a worker works. A workplace could be a building, a mine a construction site, an open field a road, a forest or even a beach D) Workplaces under Federal (Government of Canada) jurisdiction are not covered by the Act

C) Any place in or near to where a worker works. A workplace could be a building, a mine a construction site, an open field a road, a forest or even a beach

A Guide to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, “Enforcement” states that if a person is critically injured or killed at a workplace, no person can alter the scene where the injury occurred in any way without the permission of an Inspector. This does not apply if it is necessary to disturb the scene in order to: A) You can never alter the scene where an injury occurred without the permission of an Inspector. B) The scene can only be altered when the accident investigation has been completed C) Save a life or relive human suffering, maintain an essential public utility service or public transportation system or prevent unnecessary damage to equipment or other property D) The inspector will be accompanied by a representative of the Employer and the workers, and they will collectively decide if the scene can be disturbed

C) Save a life or relive human suffering, maintain an essential public utility service or public transportation system or prevent unnecessary damage to equipment or other property

A Guide to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, “Enforcement” states: The employer must post copies of both the notice of compliance and the original order in a place where they are most likely to be seen by workers for a period of: A) 14 days B) A minimum of 1 month C) One week and then the notice must be directed to the Officer in Charge of the station to see D) That it is immediately filed in the JHSC file for that station

A) 14 days

According to the Occupational Health & Safety Act, under Duties of Employers and other person and specifically in Section 28(1)(b) a worker must: A) Work in compliance with the Act except if it is an emergency situation B) Report to the employer any missing equipment that prevents them from doing their job C) Use or wear any equipment, protective devices or clothing required by the employer D) All of the above

C) Use or wear any equipment, protective devices or clothing required by the employer

According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, which of the following is not a duty of the Employer? A) The measures and procedures prescribed are carried out in the workplace B) The equipment, materials and protective devices as prescribed are provided C) Work in compliance with the provisions of this Act and the regulations D) The equipment, materials and protective devices provided by the employer are maintained in good condition

C) Work in compliance with the provisions of this Act and the regulations

According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, which of the following is a Duty of a Supervisor? A) Remove or make ineffective any protective device required by the regulations or by his or her employer, without providing an adequate temporary protective device and when the need for removing or making ineffective the protective device has ceased, the protective device shall be replaced immediately B) Post at a conspicuous location in the workplace a copy of the occupational health and safety policy C) Works in the manner and with the protective devices, measures and procedures required by this Act and the regulations D) The workplace complies with the regulations

C) Works in the manner and with the protective devices, measures and procedures required by this Act and the regulations

According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, which of the following is a not Duty of a Supervisor? A) Advise a worker of the existence of any potential or actual danger to the health or safety of the worker of which the supervisor is aware B) The equipment, materials and protective devices as prescribed are provided C) Where so prescribed, provide a worker with written instructions as to the measures and procedures to be taken for protection of the worker D) Works in the manner and with the protective devices, measures and procedures required by this Act and the regulations; and

B) The equipment, materials and protective devices as prescribed are provided

According to the Occupational Health & Safety Act, which of the following is a not Duty of a Supervisor? A) Take every precaution reasonable in the circumstances for the protection of a worker B) Uses or wears the equipment, protective devices or clothing that the worker’s employer requires to be used or worn C) Advise a worker of the existence of any potential or actual danger to the health or safety of the worker of which the supervisor is aware D) Acquaint a worker or a person in authority over a worker with any hazard in the work and in the handling, storage, use, disposal and transport of any article, device, equipment or a biological, chemical or physical agent

D) Acquaint a worker or a person in authority over a worker with any hazard in the work and in the handling, storage, use, disposal and transport of any article, device, equipment or a biological, chemical or physical agent

According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, which of the following is a not Duty of a Worker? A) Report to his or her employer or supervisor the absence of or defect in any equipment or protective device of which the worker is aware and which may endanger himself, herself or another worker B) Take every precaution reasonable in the circumstances for the protection of a worker C) Use or wear the equipment, protective devices or clothing that the worker’s employer requires to be used or worn D) Report to his or her employer or supervisor any contravention of this Act or the regulations or the existence of any hazard of which he or she knows.

B) Take every precaution reasonable in the circumstances for the protection of a worker

According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, which of the following is incorrect, 28 (2) ‘No worker shall’? A) Engage in any prank, contest, feat of strength, unnecessary running or rough and boisterous conduct B) Provide information, instruction and supervision to a worker to protect the health or safety of the worker C) Use or operate any equipment, machine, device or thing or work in a manner that may endanger himself, herself or any other worker D) Remove or make ineffective any protective device required by the regulations or by his or her employer, without providing an adequate temporary protective device and when the need for removing or making ineffective the protective device has ceased, the protective device shall be replaced immediately

B) Provide information, instruction and supervision to a worker to protect the health or safety of the worker

According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, to protect a worker from workplace harassment, an employer shall ensure that the following are implemented except for: A) The health and safety of workers employed by employers referred to in clause (b) is protected B) Provide information and instruction that is appropriate for the worker on the contents of the policy and program with respect to workplace harassment C) In consultation with the committee or a health and safety representative, if any. Develop and maintain a written program to implement the policy with respect to workplace harassment required under clause 32.0.1 (1) (b) D) An investigation is conducted into incidents and complaints of workplace harassment that is appropriate in the circumstances

A) The health and safety of workers employed by employers referred to in clause (b) is protected

According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, if an employer becomes aware, or ought reasonably to be aware, that domestic violence that would likely expose a worker to physical injury may occur in the workplace, the employer shall, A) Report to his or her employer or supervisor the absence of or defect in any equipment or protective device of which the worker is aware and which may endanger himself, herself or another worker B) Take every precaution reasonable in the circumstances for the protection of the worker C) Prepare a policy with respect to workplace harassment D) Advise a worker of the existence of any potential or actual danger to the health or safety of the worker of which the supervisor is aware

B) Take every precaution reasonable in the circumstances for the protection of the worker

According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, in Part III.0.1 Violence and Harassment which is not a responsibility of an employer? A) The policies shall be in written form and shall be posted at a conspicuous place in the workplace B) Include measures and procedures for workers to report incidents of workplace violence to the employer or supervisor C) State the opinion of the Director as to the likelihood of the danger to the health of a worker, and the Director’s reasons in respect thereof, including the matters or causes which give rise to his or her opinion D) Prepare a policy with respect to workplace harassment

C) State the opinion of the Director as to the likelihood of the danger to the health of a worker, and the Director’s reasons in respect thereof, including the matters or causes which give rise to his or her opinion

According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, upon refusing to work or do particular work, the worker shall promptly report the circumstances of the refusal to the worker’s employer or supervisor who shall forthwith investigate the report in the presence of the worker and, if there is such, in the presence of one of the following, except: A) worker who because of knowledge, experience and training is selected by a trade union that represents the worker, or if there is no trade union, is selected by the workers to represent them B) The Ministry of Labour inspector who shall issue orders to the employer C) A committee member who represents workers D) A health and safety representative, if any

B) The Ministry of Labour inspector who shall issue orders to the employer

According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, a worker may refuse to work or do particular work where he or she has reason to believe that, A) The physical condition of the workplace or the part thereof in which he or she works or is to work is likely to endanger himself or herself B) Any equipment, machine, device or thing he or she is to use or operate or the physical condition of the workplace or the part thereof in which he or she works or is to work is in contravention of this Act or the regulations and such contravention is likely to endanger himself, herself or another worker C) Workplace violence is likely to endanger himself or herself D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the OHSA for reprisals, discipline and dismissal, no employer or person acting on behalf of an employer shall: A) Impose any penalty upon a worker B) Intimidate or coerce a worker C) Dismiss or threaten to dismiss a worker D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, where a person is killed or is critically injured at a workplace, no person shall interfere with, disturb, destroy, alter or carry away any wreckage, article or thing at the scene of or connected with the occurrence until permission so to do has been given by an inspector except for: A) Reducing associated costs B) Saving life or relieving human suffering C) Maintaining a non-essential public utility service D) None of the above

B) Saving life or relieving human suffering

According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, where a person is killed or is critically injured at a workplace, no person shall interfere with, disturb, destroy, alter or carry away any wreckage, article or thing at the scene of or connected with the occurrence until permission so to do has been given by an inspector except for: A) Reducing associated costs B) Ordered by a supervisor C) Maintaining an essential public utility service or a public transportation system D) None of the above

C) Maintaining an essential public utility service or a public transportation system

According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, where a person is killed or is critically injured at a workplace, no person shall interfere with, disturb, destroy, alter or carry away any wreckage, article or thing at the scene of or connected with the occurrence until permission so to do has been given by an inspector except for: A) Reducing associated costs B) Preventing unnecessary damage to equipment or other property C) Maintaining a non-essential public utility service D) None of the above

B) Preventing unnecessary damage to equipment or other property

According to OHSA, Obstruction of Committee, which of the following is correct? No person shall knowingly A) Hinder or interfere with a worker selected by a trade union or trade unions or a worker selected by the workers to represent them in the exercise of a power or performance of a duty under this Act B) Furnish a committee, a committee member or a health and safety representative with false information in the exercise of a power or performance of a duty under this Act C) Hinder or interfere with a committee, a committee member or a health and safety representative in the exercise of a power or performance of a duty under this Act D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the FPPA, which of the following is not found in the definition of ‘fire protection services’? A) Fire suppression, fire prevention and fire safety education B) Rescue and emergency services C) Remediation of hazardous materials whether they be biological, chemical, radiological, and/or physical and that have the potential to cause harm to humans, animals, or the environment D) Mitigation and prevention of the risk created by the presence of unsafe levels of carbon monoxide and safety education related to the presence of those levels

C) Remediation of hazardous materials whether they be biological, chemical, radiological, and/or physical and that have the potential to cause harm to humans, animals, or the environment

According to the FPPA, Part 2, (1) and (2), which of the following is not a municipal responsibility or a method of provided services? A) In discharging its responsibilities, a municipality shall appoint a fire prevention bureau for code enforcement B) Every municipality shall establish a program in the municipality which must include public education with respect to fire safety and certain components of fire prevention C) In discharging its responsibilities, a municipality shall appoint a community fire safety officer or a community fire safety team D) Every municipality shall provide such other fire protection services as it determines may be necessary in accordance with its needs and circumstances

A) In discharging its responsibilities, a municipality shall appoint a fire prevention bureau for code enforcement

According to the FPPA, a fire chief is the person who is ultimately responsible to the ________ of a municipality that appointed him or her for the delivery of fire protection services. A) Mayor B) City Manager C) Residents D) Council

D) Council

According to the FPPA, Part III, 9 (2), which of the following is not a duty of the Fire Marshal? A) To advise municipalities in the interpretation and enforcement of this Act and the regulations B) To establish a program in the municipality which must include public education with respect to fire safety and certain components of fire prevention C) To develop training programs and evaluation systems for persons involved in the provision of fire protection services and to provide programs to improve practices relating to fire protection services D) To develop and maintain statistical records and conduct studies in respect of fire protection services

B) To establish a program in the municipality which must include public education with respect to fire safety and certain components of fire prevention

According to the FPPA, Part V, 13 (1) A firefighter or such other person as may be authorized by the fire chief, the Fire Marshal or an assistant to the Fire Marshal may, without a warrant, enter lands or premises that are: A) Adjacent to the lands or premises on which a fire or emergency has occurred or is occurring, for the purposes of fighting the fire or of providing rescue or emergency services B) Adjacent to the lands or premises on which there is a serious threat to the health and safety of any person or the quality of the natural environment, for the purpose of removing or reducing the threat C) None of the above, firefighters must always have a warrant to enter lands or premises D) Both A & B are correct

D) Both A & B are correct

According to the FPPA, Part 5, Powers of entry, upon entering on land or premises, the Fire Marshal or a fire chief may do the following except: A) Require that any machinery, equipment or device be operated, used or set in motion under specified conditions B) Establish and maintain a mutual aid plan under which the fire departments that serve the designated area agree to assist each other in the event of an emergency C) Close, and prevent entry to, the land or premises for the length of time necessary to complete the examination of the land or premises D) Remove from the land or premises, retain and examine any article or material, and take such samples or photographs, make videotapes and other images electronic or otherwise that in his or her opinion may be of assistance in determining the cause of the fire under investigation

B) Establish and maintain a mutual aid plan under which the fire departments that serve the designated area agree to assist each other in the event of an emergency

According to the FPPA Part V, Section 15 (1) Immediate threat to life, if the Fire Marshal, an assistant to the Fire Marshal or a fire chief has reasonable grounds to believe that a risk of fire poses an immediate threat to life, he or she may, without a warrant, enter on any land or premises and, for the purpose of removing or reducing the threat, may do the following except: A) Post a fire watch B) Remove persons on the land or premises C) Make major repairs to existing fire safety systems D) Remove combustible or explosive material or anything that may constitute a fire menace

C) Make major repairs to existing fire safety systems

The Fire Protection and Prevention Act gives an assistant to the Fire Marshal the right to enter a property: A) Without a warrant B) To inspect the land and premise C) For the purposes of assessing fire safety D) All of the above

D) All of the above

The following are designated as Inspectors in the Fire Protection and Prevention Act: A) The Fire Marshal B) A Fire Chief C) An assistant to the Fire Marshal D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Under the FPPA, a municipality may pass by-laws as it determines necessary to: A) Regulate fire prevention B) Regulate the appointment of the Chief FireOfficial C) Regulate the installation open air burning appliances not meeting the requirements of TSSA D) All of the above

A) Regulate fire prevention

The fine structure for a Corporation contravening the Fire Protection and Prevention Act is: A) A maximum fine less than or equal to $500,000 for the first offence and not more than $1,500,000 for a subsequent offence. B) A maximum fine less than or equal to $100,000 for the first offence and not more than $1,500,000 for a subsequent offence C) A maximum fine less than or equal to $500,000 or imprisonment for a term less than or equal to one year or both D) A maximum fine less than or equal to$1,500,000

A) A maximum fine less than or equal to $500,000 for the first offence and not more than $1,500,000 for a subsequent offence.

The maximum fine for an individual contravening the Ontario Fire Code is: A) $50,000 or one-year imprisonment B) $100,000 for the first offence C) $50,000 for the first offence D) $20,000 for every day of default

C) $50,000 for the first offence

Under the FPPA every municipality must: A) Coordinate a Fire PreventionWeek Initiative in conjunction with the Fire Marshal’s Public Safety Council B) Have a Smoke Alarm and Carbon Monoxide alarm program C) Establish a public education fire safety program including various fire prevention components D) Establish a full time Municipal Fire Department

C) Establish a public education fire safety program including various fire prevention components

The FPPA specifies that the Ontario Fire Code applies to the unoccupied parts of a building that is under construction within the meanings of the Building Code Act if: A) The Building Department has issued an Occupancy permit for the occupied portion of the building B) There has been no substantial work related to the construction of the building for at least six months C) The Chief Building Official defers to the Chief Fire Official to issue corrective requirements D) If the building contains a Vulnerable Occupancy

B) There has been no substantial work related to the construction of the building for at least six months

Under the FPPA, the power to enter and inspect land and premises: A) Needs a warrant B) Can be exercised at any time of the day C) Can be exercised at all reasonable times D) Only with a police officer present

C) Can be exercised at all reasonable times

The Product ID number for LPG is: A) 1078 B) 1075 C) 1401 D) 1010

B) 1075

The Product ID number for Ethyl Methyl Ketone is: A) 1009 B) 1942 C) 1193 D) 1637

C) 1193

The Product ID number for Cobalt Naphthenates, Powder is: A) 2239 B) 2929 C) 2547 D) 2001

D) 2001

The Guide Number for Crotonic Acid, liquid is: A) 138 B) 153 C) 115 D) 171

B) 153

The Guide Number for Liquified Gas, Poisonous Oxidizing, n.o.s. is: A) 171 B) 124 C) 153 D) 141

B) 124

The Guide Number for Radioactive Material, excepted package, articles is: A) 161 B) 154 C) 170 D) 166

A) 161

What product has an ID Number of 2200? A) Propadiene, Stabilized B) Propionaldehyde C) Propadiene and Methylacetylene, Mixture, Stabilzed D) Propionitrile

A) Propadiene, Stabilized

FLAMMABLE SOLID RED AND WHITE STRIPES The Guide Number for this placard is: A) 171 B) 163 C) 134 D) 114

C) 134

1005 , WHITE WITH BOTTLE The Guide Number for this placard is: A) 158 B) 153 C) 147 D) 125

D) 125

YELLOW WITH CIRLCLE FLAME SYMBOL AND #2 AT BOTTOM The Guide Number for this placard is: A) 122 B) 143 C) 153 D) 139

A) 122

GREEN WITH WHITE BOTTLE AND #2 AT BOTTOM A patient has been in contact with a product displaying the above placard. What first aid measure should not be taken? A) Give artificial respiration if victim is not breathing B) In case of contact with liquified gas, thaw frosted parts with lukewarm water C) Keep victim calm and warm D) In case of burns, immediately cool affected skin for as long as possible with cold water

D) In case of burns, immediately cool affected skin for as long as possible with cold water

BLUE WITH FLAME AND #4 AT BOTTOM Which of the following health hazard(s) are correct for this product? A) May produce corrosive solutions with contact with water B) Inhalation or contact with vapors, substance or decomposition may cause severe injury or death C) Ingestion or contact (skin, eyes) with substance may cause severe injury or burns D) Both A & B are correct

D) Both A & B are correct

Has no vent pipe on top The rail car above is a: A) Non-Pressure Tank Car B) Pressure Tank Car C) Hopper Car D) Box Car

B) Pressure Tank Car

Has vent pipe on top The rail car above is a: A) Non-Pressure Tank Car B) Pressure Tank Car C) Hopper Car D) Box Car

A) Non-Pressure Tank Car

Oval with ladder on back The trailer above is a: A) Dry Bulk Cargo Trailer B) Flammable Liquid Trailer C) Corrosive Liquid Trailer D) Liquified Compressed Gas Trailer

B) Flammable Liquid Trailer

Belly dumper Trailer The trailer above is a: A) Dry Bulk Cargo Trailer B) Flammable Liquid Trailer C) Corrosive Liquid Trailer D) Liquified Compressed Gas Trailer

A) Dry Bulk Cargo Trailer

Cigar type with ribs The trailer above is a: A) Dry Bulk Cargo Trailer B) Flammable Liquid Trailer C) Corrosive Liquid Trailer D) Liquified Compressed Gas Trailer

C) Corrosive Liquid Trailer

Cigar type no ribs The trailer above is a: A) Dry Bulk Cargo Trailer B) Flammable Liquid Trailer C) Corrosive Liquid Trailer D) Liquified Compressed Gas Trailer

D) Liquified Compressed Gas Trailer

According to the ERG 2020 User’s Guide, recommended safety distances for ‘initial isolation’ and ‘protective action distances’ for a large spill is based on a release of _____ litres (_____ US gallons) or more. A) 170 L, 45 US Gallons B) 208 L, 55 US Gallons C) 227 L, 60 US Gallons D) 283 L, 75 US Gallons

B) 208 L, 55 US Gallons

If 8000L propane tank is on fire, what is the minimum evacuation distance in meters? A) 525 m B) 925 m C) 661 m D) 2169 m

C) 661 m

According to the 2020 ERG Book, what is the recommended Safety Distances form Table -1 “Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances” for a Spill during the Day from a “Large Package or from many Small Packages” of Tetranitromethane ID 1510 (Guide 143)? A) 0.7 km or (0.4 mi) B) 0.4 km or (0.3 mi) C) 0.7 km or (0.4 mi) D) 0.3km or (0.2 mi)

B) 0.4 km or (0.3 mi)

According to the 2020 ERG Book, what is the recommended Safety Distances form Table -1 “Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances” for a Spill during the Day from a “Small Package or Small Leak from a Large Package” of Methyl Chloroformate ID 1238 (Guide 155)? A) 0.2 km or (0.2 mi) B) 150 m or (500 ft) C) 0.5 km or (0.4 mi) D) 1.1 km or (0.7 mi)

A) 0.2 km or (0.2 mi)

According to the 2020 ERG Book, what is the recommended Safety Distances form Table -1 “Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances” for a Spill during the Day from a “Small Package or Small Leak from a Large Package” of Bromine ID 1744 (Guide 154)? A) 3.8 km or (2.4 mi) B) 300 m or (1000 ft) C) 0.8 km or (0.5 mi) D) 2.3 km or (1.5 mi)

C) 0.8 km or (0.5 mi)

According to the 2020 ERG Book, what is the recommended Safety Distances form Table -1 “Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances” for a Spill during the Night from a “Small Package or Small Leak from a Large Package” of Methyl Mercaptan ID 1064 (Guide 117)? A) 0.1 km or (0.1 mi) B) 4.1 km or (2.6 mi) C) 1.3 km or (0.8 mi) D) 0.3 km or (0.2 mi)

D) 0.3 km or (0.2 mi)

According to the 2020 ERG Book, what is the recommended Safety Distances form Table -1 “Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances” for a Spill during the Night from a “Small Package or Small Leak from a Large Package” of Trichlorosilane ID 1295 (Guide 139) (spilled in water)? A) 0.1 km or (0.1 mi) B) 2.1 km or (1.3 mi) C) 0.6 km or (0.4 mi) D) 0.3 km or (0.2 mi)

A) 0.1 km or (0.1 mi)

According to the 2020 ERG Book, what is the recommended Safety Distances form Table -1 “First Isolate in All Direction” for a Spill from a “Large Package or From Many Small Packages” of Liquified Gas, Poisonous, Oxidizing, n.o.s. (Inhalation Hazard Zone C) ID 3307 (Guide 124)? A) 60 m or (200 ft) B) 200 m or (600 ft) C) 150 m or (500 ft) D) 30 m or (100 ft)

C) 150 m or (500 ft)

According to the 2020 ERG Book, Table 2 “Water Reactive Materials Which Produce Toxic Gases” from a Spill of (Aluminum Phosphide ID 1397 (Guide 139) when Mixed with Water, Produces what type of Toxic-By-Inhalation (TIH) Gas? A) HCN (Hydrogen cyanide) B) COCL2 (Phosgene) C) PH3 (Phosphine) D) HF (Hydrogen fluoride)

C) PH3 (Phosphine)

Red Diamond with skull and cross bones According to the 2020 ERG Book, the following GHS pictogram indicates the following Health and Environmental Hazards? A) Respiratory sensitizer, mutagen, Carcinogen, aspiration hazard B) Hazardous to aquatic environment C) Acute toxicity (fatal or toxic) D) Acute toxicity (harmful), skin sensitizer, respiratory tract irritant

C) Acute toxicity (fatal or toxic)

Red Diamond with person and starburst on chest According to the 2020 ERG Book, the following GHS pictogram indicates the following Health and Environmental Hazards? A) Respiratory sensitizer, mutagen, carcinogen, aspiration hazard B) Hazardous to aquatic environment C) Acute toxicity (fatal or toxic) D) Acute toxicity (harmful), skin sensitizer, respiratory tract irritant

A) Respiratory sensitizer, mutagen, carcinogen, aspiration hazard

Red Diamond with exploding black ball According to the 2020 ERG Book, the following GHS pictogram indicates the following Physical Hazards? A) Explosive, self-reactive, organic peroxide B) Flammable, pryrophoric, self-reactive C) Oxidizer D) Gas under pressure

A) Explosive, self-reactive, organic peroxide

According to Training Bulletin #286: Post Incident Decontamination Procedures; which procedure is not part of Step 1 in the process? A) Use a 45 mm hose with a wide fog pattern B) The crew member with the least amount of remaining air should be deconned first C) Begin at the helmet, facepiece, and regulator and then front to back from the collar downward D) Carefully remove PPE and place into a clear plastic bag

D) Carefully remove PPE and place into a clear plastic bag

According to Training Bulletin #286: Post Incident Decontamination Procedures; which of the following statements is incorrect? A) During Step 1 – use a 45 mm hose with a straight stream and reduced flow to remove large debris B) During Step 2 – Perform a final rinse to flush any loosened debris from the PPE C) During Step 3 – Remove hands from jacket wristlets, clean hands with decontamination wipes and don nitrile gloves D) Step 6 – Remove bunker jacket, bunker pants and boots

A) During Step 1 – use a 45 mm hose with a straight stream and reduced flow to remove large debris

According to Training Bulletin #286: Post Incident Decontamination Procedures; what is the proper procedure when you are closing up the clear plastic bag? A) Close the bag around the gear by rolling up the sides, being careful not to trap air inside, write station on tag, twist the bag closed, attach tag and seal with a zip tie, transport gear in a side compartment not in the cab B) Close the bag around the gear by rolling up the sides, being careful not to trap air inside, write name on tag, twist the bag closed, attach name tag and seal with a zip tie, transport gear in a side compartment not in the cab C) Close the bag around the gear by rolling up the sides, being careful not to trap air inside, write name on tag, twist the bag closed, attach name tag and seal by hand tying the bag, transport gear in a side compartment not in the cab D) Close the bag around the gear by rolling up the sides, being careful not to trap air inside, write name on tag, twist the bag closed, attach name tag and seal with a zip tie, transport gear in the cab

B) Close the bag around the gear by rolling up the sides, being careful not to trap air inside, write name on tag, twist the bag closed, attach name tag and seal with a zip tie, transport gear in a side compartment not in the cab

According to Training Bulletin 308 – Hurst Jaws of Life™ Edraulic Inspections; which of the following is correct about ‘Cutter Inspections’? A) A visual inspection shall be performed during every shift B) When cleaning the cutter blades, use steel wool or fine grit sandpaper to remove debris or rust C) Never store the tool under pressure D) Both A and C are correct

D) Both A and C are correct

According to Training Bulletin 308 – Hurst Jaws of Life™ Edraulic Inspections; which of the following is correct about ‘Cutter Inspections’? A) A visual inspection shall be performed weekly B) When storing the tool, close the cutter blades with the tips slightly overlapping C) When cleaning the cutter blades, use steel wool or fine grit sandpaper to remove debris or rust D) Both A and C are correct

B) When storing the tool, close the cutter blades with the tips slightly overlapping

According to Training Bulletin 308 – Hurst Jaws of Life™ Edraulic Inspections; which of the following is true regarding Hurst Jaws of Life™ Edraulic tools? A) When using the devices in potentially explosive environments, the tool is intrinsically safe, and may be used B) Ram inspections shall be visually inspected weekly C) When storing the spreader tool, close the spreaders completely and place back onto the apparatus D) The responsibility for explosion prevention or for ruling out work with an Edraulic device lies with the operator of the device or with the person responsible at the place of use

D) The responsibility for explosion prevention or for ruling out work with an Edraulic device lies with the operator of the device or with the person responsible at the place of use

According to Training Bulletin 311 - Transitional Attacks – Offensive Strategies from the Exterior; which of the following statements about a Blitz Attack is incorrect? A) The fire will be at an advanced stage, requiring large amounts of water to overcome the heat release rate (HRR), and such quantities of water can only be delivered by large appliances and hoselines B) When considering the blitz attack, keep in mind the reach and amount of water needed to be effective C) Typically, a fog pattern should be utilized rather than a straight stream D) The blitz attack involves using either the deck gun mounted on top of the engine, a 2 ½-inch handline or a ground monitor specifically designed for a blitz type of setup and delivery

C) Typically, a fog pattern should be utilized rather than a straight stream

According to Training Bulletin 311 - Transitional Attacks – Offensive Strategies from the Exterior; which of the following statements about a Quick Hit is incorrect? A) It will cool the room, limit fire growth, and increases victim survivability in the structure B) A quick hit should use a fog pattern, pointed at a flat angle through the window C) A quick hit is a tactic to help facilitate an aggressive interior attack D) A quick hit is an application of water from an exterior hose line (not a master stream device) as a straight stream to the ceiling above a fire

B) A quick hit should use a fog pattern, pointed at a flat angle through the window

According to Training Bulletin 014 – Positive Pressure Ventilation; you are ventilating using a garage door, which tactic should you use? A) Open the door part way and use the v-attack approach at 45° angles B) Open the door part way and use two fans to seal the doorway with cones of air C) Open the door fully and use the saddle stack method D) Open the door fully and use two fans to seal the doorway with cones of air

B) Open the door part way and use two fans to seal the doorway with cones of air

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, steel I beams will elongate when heated and can push out a load-bearing walls. A 50-foot (15.2m) beam may elongate by as much as ___ inches/mm when heated to about 1,000 degrees F (538 degrees C): A) 2 inches (50.8 mm) B) 4 inches (102 mm) C) 8 inches (203.2 mm) D) 11 inches (279.4 mm)

B) 4 inches (102 mm)

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT a safety precaution for imminent building collapse: A) Immediately evacuate personnel within the building B) Set up a collapse zone around the building perimeter C) Allow personnel or apparatus to operate within the collapse zone D) Use only unmanned master streams if fire streams are necessary within the collapse zone

C) Allow personnel or apparatus to operate within the collapse zone

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, What are the stages of fire growth in a “Vent Controlled” fire? A) Volume, Velocity, Density, Colour B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay D) Laminar, Pressurized, Turbulent, Wispy

B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, What are the stages of fire growth in a “fuel controlled” fire? A) Volume, Velocity, Density, Colour B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay D) Laminar, Pressurized, Turbulent, Wispy

C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, which of these factors do NOT influence the smoke? A) Building size & compartments B) Weather C) Firefighting actions D) Time of day

D) Time of day

According to the In-Service Commercial Inspection Program – 2023, Questions and Answers; after how many re-inspections (with incomplete requirements) will action be taken by Fire Prevention? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

C) 3

According to the July 2023 In-Service Commercial Inspection Program Manual; which following statement is incorrect about Inspections and Re-inspections? A) If violation(s) are found, a Fire Safety Inspection Report shall be issued detailing all deficiencies noted during the inspection B) Re-inspections will be tracked and recorded in the FDM Commercial Property Inspections. This process will include three re-inspections which will be conducted 45 days apart C) The FDM Commercial Property Inspections kiosk and re-inspection file folder is to be checked at the start of each shift’s inspection tour D) If your inspection finds no violations, leave the applicable pamphlet. Leave nothing else with the owner

B) Re-inspections will be tracked and recorded in the FDM Commercial Property Inspections. This process will include three re-inspections which will be conducted 45 days apart

According to the July 2023 In-Service Commercial Inspection Program Manual; which of the following is correct if a building is found to be vacant and open to trespass? A) Vacant buildings that are already being monitored shall be inspected or listed as part of the In-Service Program and should be listed on your Daily Report for InService Inspections B) The Officer is to complete a Vacant Building Notification Sheet and fax a copy of this sheet to Municipal Law Enforcement, providing details of the unsecured condition C) A second copy of this notification sheet is to be faxed to the Fire Prevention Division D) Both B) and C) are correct

D) Both B) and C) are correct

According to the July 2023 In-Service Commercial Inspection Program Manual; the Hamilton Fire Department recognizes that building owners may, in certain situations, require additional security measures on exit doors to prevent break-ins during times when the building is not occupied. During your inspection you notice two security devices (a slide bolt and a security bar) has been installed on the exit door. Is this acceptable? A) Yes, the owner may have two security devices on an exit door B) No, there shall be no security devices on an exit door C) Yes, however crews are advised to remind the owner/RP of the policy regarding these devices D) No, there shall be one security device allowed on the exit door

D) No, there shall be one security device allowed on the exit door

According to 2023-AP-446 – In-Service Commercial Inspection Program, the purpose of the In-Service Commercial Inspections are necessary a number of reasons, which of the following reasons is incorrect? A) They are necessary to complete under the City By-Law Division’s operator renewal schedule B) They allow for crews to identify potential fire and associated hazards on sites C) They are necessary to complete under the City Licensing Division’s operator renewal schedule D) They ensure license operators/owners of businesses comply with current fire code regulations

A) They are necessary to complete under the City By-Law Division’s operator renewal schedule

According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); if during a monitoring inspection a building is determined to be a ‘high risk’ vacant building, the following action must be taken: A) The Officer is to fill out a Vacant Building Notification Sheet – 2022 and e-mail the form to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form to initiate the vacant building monitoring program B) The Officer is to fill out a Vacant Building Notification Sheet – 2022 indicating that the building is ‘high risk’ and email the form to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form C) The Officer will enter the address into the Vacant Building Kiosk in FDM. If at any time during the monitoring period a building is found open to trespass, the Officer is to fill out a Vacant Building Notification Sheet – 2022 and e-mail the form to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form D) None of the Above

B) The Officer is to fill out a Vacant Building Notification Sheet – 2022 indicating that the building is ‘high risk’ and email the form to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form

According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); if during a monitoring inspection a secured building is found to be unsecured, the following procedure is to be initiated: A) The Officer will complete the Vacant Notification Sheet – 2022 and send the form via e-mail to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form B) The Officer is to fill out a Vacant Building Notification Sheet – 2022 indicating that the building is ‘high risk’ and email the form to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form C) The Officer will enter the address into the Vacant Building Kiosk in FDM. If at any time during the monitoring period a building is found open to trespass, the Officer is to fill out a Vacant Building Notification Sheet – 2022 and e-mail the form to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form D) None of the Above

A) The Officer will complete the Vacant Notification Sheet – 2022 and send the form via e-mail to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form

According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); if during a monitoring inspection a building is found vacant, unsecured and is not recorded on the current monitoring list or as a result of a fire becomes vacant, the following action is to be taken: A) The Officer is to fill out a Vacant Building Notification Sheet – 2022 indicating that the building is ‘high risk’ and email the form to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form B) The Officer will enter the address into the Vacant Building Kiosk in FDM. If at any time during the monitoring period a building is found open to trespass, the Officer is to fill out a Vacant Building Notification Sheet – 2022 and e-mail the form to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form C) The Officer is to fill out a Vacant Building Notification Sheet – 2022 and e-mail the form to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form to initiate the vacant building monitoring program D) None of the above

C) The Officer is to fill out a Vacant Building Notification Sheet – 2022 and e-mail the form to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form to initiate the vacant building monitoring program

According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); when should suppression crews check the FDM Vacant Property Inspection Kiosk for their respective station? A) Every Monday B) The start of each shift C) Monthly D) Every Tuesday

B) The start of each shift

According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); which of the following statements regarding Vacant Building Inspection Protocol is incorrect? A) A perimeter walk around the building is to be done B) Caution is to be exercised when using an exterior fire escape to determine access. Using the exterior fire escape shall be the main method utilized for inspections C) Buildings found to be open to trespass will have a Vacant Building Notification Sheet – 2022 form filled out and submitted to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button at the bottom D) Once inspection is completed, the Vacant Property Inspection Kiosk in FDM shall be updated

B) Caution is to be exercised when using an exterior fire escape to determine access. Using the exterior fire escape shall be the main method utilized for inspections

According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); which of the following statements regarding Vacant Building Inspection Protocol is incorrect? A) Where a perimeter access does not allow sight vantage to all areas of building, utilize adjacent properties if as applicable to view the property B) Buildings found to be open to trespass will have a Vacant Building Notification Sheet – 2022 form filled out and submitted to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button at the bottom C) Unsecured buildings are to always be secured at the first and second-floor / basement level D) Once inspection is completed, the Vacant Property Inspection Kiosk in FDM shall be updated

C) Unsecured buildings are to always be secured at the first and second-floor / basement level

According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); who will attend a scene after hours when the conditions of a building are unsafe as provided in the Building Code Act? A) Fire Inspector B) By-Law C) Fire Marshal D) Building Inspector

D) Building Inspector

According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); which of the following examples would not deem the building to have unsafe conditions under the Building Code? A) No floor. Either it is in a deteriorated condition that will allow someone to fall through, or fire has occurred causing the unsafe condition B) Open windows and unlocked doors that would provide access to the building C) Vehicle impact or damage to a building causing structural damage D) Missing guards allowing persons to fall from unsafe heights causing immediate danger to persons entering the building

B) Open windows and unlocked doors that would provide access to the building

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, staffing assignments must be based on each individual’s ability to: A) Work overtime or work different jobs B) Perform any jobs that are short-staffed C) Cross-train within all departments in the organization D) Perform the job so that resources are utilized in an effective manner

D) Perform the job so that resources are utilized in an effective manner

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, staffing/duty assignments can be affected by: A) Policies implemented in nearby jurisdictions B) Policies in the labour/management agreement C) The need to keep a prominent presence in the community D) The need to compete with other organizations for personnel

B) Policies in the labour/management agreement

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a benefit of rotating personnel between different stations? A) Eliminates interdepartmental rivalries B) Eliminates or minimizes employee burnout C) Allows the organization to hire fewer personnel D) Requires the organization to purchase less equipment

B) Eliminates or minimizes employee burnout

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the organization’s expectations regarding controlled substances and alcohol should be: A) Highlighted in the job position postings B) Defined in the employee benefits package C) Assumed because of the nature of the job D) Provided in writing to the employee during new employee orientation

D) Provided in writing to the employee during new employee orientation

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what term refers to process of determining the duties of a specific position and the qualifications needed to fill the position? A) Job analysis B) Needs analysis C) Benefits analysis D) Resource analysis

A) Job analysis

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what is enhanced when members feel that they are creating opportunities for themselves by participating in the organization? A) Diversity B) Turnover C) Retention D) Competition

C) Retention

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is an example of a question that would be used during a behavioural interview? A) Why do you want to be a volunteer firefighter? B) What are typical duties that a firefighter performs? C) Describe a stressful situation and how you handled it. D) Do you have an emergency medical technician certificate?

C) Describe a stressful situation and how you handled it.

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, promotional examinations should be carefully constructed to eliminate bias in order to: A) Facilitate a faster process B) Reduce the potential of legal issues C) Decrease the potential applicant pool D) Reduce the amount of time needed to take the test

B) Reduce the potential of legal issues

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a purpose of an occupational safety and health committee? A) Develop the health and safety program B) Implement the health and safety program C) Study and review safety and health matters D) Discipline employees for violating health and safety rules

C) Study and review safety and health matters

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a core requirement of a health and safety program? A) Incentive plans B) Infection control procedures C) Individual needs assessments D) Contract physical fitness trainers

B) Infection control procedures

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the accepted approach for a hearing conservation plan is to protect members from exposure to noises equal to or exceeding _________ over an eight-hour Time Weighted Average. A) 60 dB B) 85 dB C) 95 dB D) 120 dB

B) 85 dB

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, a public fire and life safety education program should include a purpose and scope statement and that should be: A) Included in comprehensive-risk approach documentation B) Made available in teletypewriter telecommunication format C) Translated into every language spoken within the service’s region D) Included in an organization’s mission statement and strategic plan

D) Included in an organization’s mission statement and strategic plan

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the scope of an organization’s fire and life safety education programs should: A) Reflect the service area’s needs B) Mirror what was done in previous years C) Require minimum personnel to implement D) Be similar to surrounding jurisdiction’s programs

A) Reflect the service area’s needs

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a benefit to having members deliver public education programs within local response districts? A) Reduces the chances for language barriers B) Reduces the assumptions of risk by the organization C) Opportunity to recruit individuals to apply to the organization D) Opportunity to interact directly with people from local neighbourhoods

D) Opportunity to interact directly with people from local neighbourhoods

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when implementing a fire and life safety program it is important to maintain close relationships with community groups: A) To identify opportunities for public education B) So that funding for programs can be justified C) So that data for analysis can be easily collected D) To identify individuals who have broken fire and life safety codes

A) To identify opportunities for public education

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when dealing with residents who are angry or upset, chief officers should: A) Remain calm and in control B) Walk away from the individual C) Escort the individual out of the building D) Raise their voices and take a defensive posture

A) Remain calm and in control

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what should be done when a complaint from the public is voiced during an emergency operation? A) The complaint should be ignored B) The complaint should be immediately addressed C) The resolution should wait until the incident is terminated D) Law enforcement should be brought in to deal with the complaint

C) The resolution should wait until the incident is terminated

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, all customer concerns or complaints should be resolved: A) Under the watch of law enforcement B) Under the supervision of legal counsel C) As thoroughly and as slowly as possible D) As reasonably and as quickly as possible

D) As reasonably and as quickly as possible

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, for the community risk reduction element of emergency response to be effective, it must be coupled with: A) Community fact-finding activities B) An informal organizational structure C) Other community risk reduction elements D) Economic disincentives for the organization

C) Other community risk reduction elements

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, inspections and code enforcement programs were created because of fires that resulted in: A) Negative publicity B) The need for mutual aid C) High life or property loss D) Increased insurance rates

C) High life or property loss

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when an organization has a mutual aid agreement, response: A) Is automatically dispatched to nearby incidents B) Is always legally required, regardless of circumstances C) May be generally delayed in order to determine whether it is truly needed D) May be optional if it will reduce the ability of an organization to protect their own community

D) May be optional if it will reduce the ability of an organization to protect their own community

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, during an automatic response, resources from participating jurisdictions are dispatched to: A) An agreed-upon staging area near the incident scene B) An undisclosed staging location within the jurisdiction C) A common area used for all automatic responses in the area D) An area half way between the incident scene and their assigned location

A) An agreed-upon staging area near the incident scene

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, joint training for major incidents involving multiple organizations or agencies is based on: A) Automatic aid agreements B) Change management concepts C) Incident Management Team concepts D) Occupational Health and Safety standards

C) Incident Management Team concepts

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a step taken by the Incident Commander at an incident? A) Interview possible witnesses B) Identify the incident priorities C) Determine whether laws were broken D) Determine the budget constraints of the incident

B) Identify the incident priorities

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which situation would require a written incident action plan? A) Haz Mat incident B) Small ground cover fire C) Single home residential fire D) Medical call for a heart attack

A) Haz Mat incident

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the tactical worksheet is the basis for the development of a(an): A) Legal mandate B) Incident action plan C) Fire inspection program D) Fire and life safety program

B) Incident action plan

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, actions taken outside the incident action plan’s scope are referred to as freelancing and: A) May place responders in jeopardy B) Must be approved by two other responders C) Are sometimes necessary in incident response D) Can be taken only by senior, experienced responders

A) May place responders in jeopardy

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the operational strengths and weaknesses of an incident response are determined by the: A) Reimbursement logs B) Post-incident analysis C) Number of casualties D) Reaction of the public

B) Post-incident analysis

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what is one function of the post-incident analysis critique? A) Provide the public with justification for the organization’s actions B) Allow company and chief officers to display their leadership roles C) Review the quality of customer service provided during the incident D) Determine which participating personnel should be punished for negative actions

C) Review the quality of customer service provided during the incident

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, developing plans and strategies using an all-hazard approach ensures that: A) Capabilities exist to handle any emergency B) Each individual responder is cross-trained to handle any response C) The public is aware of the capabilities and limitations of responders D) Mutual aid partners will be involved in every emergency incident in the jurisdiction

A) Capabilities exist to handle any emergency

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, one reason that an all-hazards approach to emergency management is important is that: A) An all-inclusive list of disasters can never be completely complied B) An all-inclusive list of disasters needs to cover every possible situation C) Public and private emergency management entities treat disasters differently D) Reimbursement for disaster response depends in part on the all-hazards preplanning

A) An all-inclusive list of disasters can never be completely complied

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, emergency management activities are broken into four phases that: A) Are distinct and do not overlap with one another B) Often overlap and run concurrently with one another C) Have to be completed within an allotted amount of time D) Can be divided into eight operational response elements

B) Often overlap and run concurrently with one another

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what emergency management phase is a continuous process involving efforts to identify threats and consequences before an emergency? A) Recovery B) Response C) Mitigation D) Preparedness

D) Preparedness

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, why is it critical that resources are deployed within a structured response model? A) To ensure that there are duplicates of all resources deployed B) To help the public know who to trust in an emergency situation C) To make quantifying response reimbursement easier for mutual aid organizations D) To avoid the convergence of unrequested resources to a large-scale emergency scene

D) To avoid the convergence of unrequested resources to a large-scale emergency scene

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, emergency services organizations should create relationships with outside agencies before an incident occurs to ensure that: A) Liability is addressed and specific personnel are available B) Capabilities are understood and proper request channels are followed C) Resources and roles are duplicated during an actual emergency response D) Non-disclosure agreements are signed and background checks performed

B) Capabilities are understood and proper request channels are followed

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, one of the primary determining factors in a successful response and recovery to a disaster or large-scale incident is: A) An excessive budget B) Pre-incident planning C) Redundant resources D) Establishing multiple command structures

B) Pre-incident planning

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what facilities must an emergency operations centre provide to on-scene personnel regardless of the length of the incident? A) Rest and relief areas B) Family readiness centres C) Public media staging areas D) At least five operational zones

A) Rest and relief areas

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what should be a chief officer’s final goal in workplace diversity/inclusion programs? A) Eliminate any workplace conflicts so that all employees are satisfied B) Create a workplace demographic that mirrors national demographics C) Create a work environment that appreciates and respects diversity of all organizational members D) Reduce the likelihood of the organization becoming involved in civil litigation regarding employment

C) Create a work environment that appreciates and respects diversity of all organizational members

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, an inclusive and diverse workforce improves organizational functioning by increasing the: A) Tax dollars from minority communities B) Overall staffing levels of the organization C) Perspectives available for problem solving D) Number of individuals from the prominent dominant demographic group

C) Perspectives available for problem solving

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, succession planning should be developed in conjunction with: A) Pre-incident plans and operational budgets B) Annual evaluation and departmental reorganization plans C) Professional development and continuing education plans D) Community development and fire and life safety education plans

C) Professional development and continuing education plans

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, succession planning maintains employee morale and retention because employees: A) Can see a clearly defined career path B) Do not have to plan their career path C) Can be assured of further promotions D) Are aware of the career paths of co-workers

A) Can see a clearly defined career path

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when determining organizational needs, the goal should be for all responders to be trained: A) To the minimum standards B) Well above local AHJ (agency having jurisdiction) standards C) Well above the minimum standards D) To at least 90% of the minimum standards

C) Well above the minimum standards

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, if a lack of education is noticed among personnel who are likely candidates for advancement, the organization should: A) Identify and coach individuals to establish educational goals B) Remove the individuals from being a candidate for advancement C) Place those candidates at the bottom of the list for advancement D) Promote those candidates with the understanding that they will receive further education

A) Identify and coach individuals to establish educational goals

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, training delivered in an electronic format enables personnel to: A) Complete training with a minimum of effort B) Earn overtime pay while completing training C) Complete training during downtime at the station D) Utilize techniques learned during an on-going incident

C) Complete training during downtime at the station

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, an organization’s behavioural health program should include a stress crisis intervention team to provide the necessary support for the affected member after incidents involving: A) Mass casualties B) Long work shifts C) Community outreach D) Unified command structures

A) Mass casualties

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, member assistance programs are developed to provide tools to cope with: A) Issues that directly deal with the organization and its members B) The stress of working in a high-risk profession to members and their families C) Job searches and interviews when members voluntarily leave the organization D) The stress of working in a high-risk profession to members employed more than one year

B) The stress of working in a high-risk profession to members and their families

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, peer-support programs have become a fire and emergency services best practice in response to: A) Decreasing responder retention rates B) The increasing rate of responder suicide C) The risk of responder on-scene fatalities D) Responders failing to meet national training standards

B) The increasing rate of responder suicide

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what should a chief officer do when a member shows signs of stress or other emotional problems? A) Place the member on unpaid leave B) Recommend use of the member assistance program C) Report the member’s issues to others in the organization D) Wait and see if the member can resolve issues on their own

B) Recommend use of the member assistance program

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which term refers to ‘any arrangement of materials that presents the potential for harm’? A) Risk B) Hazard C) Danger D) Liability

B) Hazard

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which term refers to ‘a measure of the probability and severity of adverse effects that result from an exposure to a hazard’? A) Risk B) Hazard C) Danger D) Liability

A) Risk

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when identifying risks, the chief officer should compile a list of the organization’s emergency and nonemergency operations and duties that includes the: A) Best possible conditions or events B) Worst possible conditions or potential events C) Conditions or events that have previously occurred D) Conditions or events that garner provincial or national attention

B) Worst possible conditions or potential events

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what aspect of risk evaluation can be measured by lost time away from work and the cost of damage? A) Liability B) Severity C) Frequency D) Cost/benefit

B) Severity

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when prioritizing risks, which risks would be high priority items deserving immediate action? A) Risks with low probability of occurrence and serious consequences B) Risks with high probability of occurrence and serious consequences C) Risks with low probability of occurrence and non-serious consequences D) Risks with high probability of occurrence and non-serious consequences

B) Risks with high probability of occurrence and serious consequences

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when prioritizing risks, which risks can be placed near the bottom of the action-required list? A) Serious incidents with low likelihood of occurrence B) Serious incidents with high likelihood of occurrence C) Non-serious incidents with low likelihood of occurrence D) Non-serious incidents with high likelihood of occurrence

C) Non-serious incidents with low likelihood of occurrence

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which risk control technique does not eliminate risk, but reduces the likelihood of occurrence and the severity? A) Risk transfer B) Risk avoidance C) Control measures D) Intermittent measures

C) Control measures

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the intent of a risk management plan is to develop a: A) Strategy for reducing inherent risks associated with operations B) Strategy for reducing community dissatisfaction with operations C) Method to eliminate the majority of risks associated with operations D) Method to eliminate the majority of hazards associated with operations

A) Strategy for reducing inherent risks associated with operations

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, in which phase of risk management plan implementation are the actual results of a risk management plan compared to its desired results? A) Revision B) Creation C) Evaluation D) Monitoring

D) Monitoring

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what would indicate that the risk management plan is effective? A) No change or increase in the number of injuries B) Reduction in medical leave taken or lost-time injuries C) Decrease in costs of other activities in the department D) Increase in the use of family and medical leave by employees

B) Reduction in medical leave taken or lost-time injuries

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, how can chief officers and public information officers create and maintain a positive image for the organization? A) Use social media to share positive safety messages B) Encourage members of the news media to tour every incident scene C) Ask operations personnel to conduct media briefings instead of chief officers or the PIO D) Donate money to political candidates who are most likely to support the organization’s mission

A) Use social media to share positive safety messages

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is protocol for media operating at an emergency incident? A) Restrict photographers from taking potentially negative photos B) Provide all media personnel with personal protective equipment C) Stage or pose for media photographers to get good pictures of an incident D) Allow properly credentialed media personnel to witness and document an incident

D) Allow properly credentialed media personnel to witness and document an incident

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, police and fire officials can deny media personnel entrance to a crime scene or incident scene: A) To avoid any potential negative publicity B) Whenever they feel the incident is too gruesome C) To protect evidence that is being collected and processed D) Whenever they do not want to deal with media personnel

C) To protect evidence that is being collected and processed

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what type of information at an incident scene cannot be released to the media or the public? A) Patient’s gender or age B) Number of victims involved C) Patient’s medical conditions D) Names of the businesses involved

C) Patient’s medical conditions

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, how can social media be beneficial with regard to enhancing the organization’s public image? A) It provides an additional method for organization members to interact with the public B) Organization members can link their personal social media accounts so the public can befriend them C) Organization leaders can interact with political candidates and community leaders in a public, transparent manner D) It provides a place for members of the public to access fire department resources, such as copies of the organization’s SOPs

A) It provides an additional method for organization members to interact with the public

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, ‘Unified Command’ (UC) allows agencies to be a part of the UC without losing or giving up agency authority, responsibility, or accountability while: A) Establishing common incident objectives and strategies B) Maintaining individual agency incident objectives and strategies C) Assisting with the incident objectives and strategies of multiple agencies within the UC D) Establishing both individual agency and Unified Command incident objectives and strategies

A) Establishing common incident objectives and strategies

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, fire and emergency services organizations should establish relationships with provincial and local agencies and areas of apparent conflict should be: A) Avoided during interagency planning B) Resolved during interagency planning C) Addressed once they become an issue D) Resolved independently by the fire chief or agency lead

A) Avoided during interagency planning

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, in which type of incident would interagency contact between local and federal agencies occur? A) Terrorism event B) Localized wildfire C) Medical transport call D) Apartment complex fire

A) Terrorism event

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, if a governing body poses a question that a fire department liaison cannot answer, the liaison should: A) Admit the answer is not currently known B) Attempt to answer the question as best they can C) Deflect the question and answer another question D) Ask to rephrase the question into one they can answer

A) Admit the answer is not currently known

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, fire and emergency services community involvement means: A) Donating warm or unused equipment to community charities and organizations B) Being involved in the community as it directly relates to the organization’s mission statement C) Asking members to spend personal time, not organization time, being involved in the community D) Potentially being involved in the community in ways not directly related to the organization’s mission statement

D) Potentially being involved in the community in ways not directly related to the organization’s mission statement

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, chief officers should learn about the characteristics of the community they serve so they can develop culturally sensitive services and processes necessary to: A) Avoid potential litigation with community members B) Win local, provincial, and national awards for the organization C) Support delivery of effective fire prevention and emergency services D) Encourage community members to lobby politically for the organization

C) Support delivery of effective fire prevention and emergency services

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, a long-term plan would include set goals in a specific area such as: A) Developing an inspection schedule for equipment and cross-training personnel in inspection duties B) Shifting hazardous responsibilities and pre-incident planning for high-value properties C) Purchasing real estate for future facilities, fulfilling staffing requirements, and response time benchmarks D) Creating a fixed schedule for electrical system inspections and assigning new personnel to the inspection department

C) Purchasing real estate for future facilities, fulfilling staffing requirements, and response time benchmarks

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, chief officers should have a plan prepared in case government mandates or adoption of NFPA standards require: A) A change in the labour / management agreement B) Personnel to retire due to change in maximum age limits C) A change in benefits that the organization offers to new hires D) The organization to hire or reassign personnel in order to meet minimum staffing levels

D) The organization to hire or reassign personnel in order to meet minimum staffing levels

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what process do fire officers use to make decisions on the fire ground about saving lives and property? A) Gap analysis B) Risk analysis C) Trends analysis D) Hazards analysis

B) Risk analysis

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, why should training activities be publicized within an organization? A) To meet local and provincial legal requirements B) To recruit new members to the organization C) So that instructors can pick what courses they want to teach D) So that all personnel are aware of opportunities and training goals

D) So that all personnel are aware of opportunities and training goals

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, why is input from incident commanders and supervisors important in program and course-level evaluations? A) They often determine the budgets of the programs B) They work with individuals who complete the programs C) They want to ensure their opinions are taken into account D) They are more political and can lobby for additional funding

B) They work with individuals who complete the programs

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, a hazard is a condition, substance, or device that: A) Can directly cause injury or loss B) Is indirectly related to injury or loss C) Increases the likelihood for failure or loss D) Always exists but is not necessarily dangerous

A) Can directly cause injury or loss

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, building codes, fire codes, and zoning restrictions can reduce the consequences of _______ hazards. A) Natural B) Secondary C) Behavioural D) Intentional

A) Natural

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the first step in determining occupancy related hazards is to: A) Survey residents in the community B) Survey the types of buildings in the community C) Analyze national trends in occupancy-related hazards D) Understand building codes, fire codes, and locally adopted amendments

D) Understand building codes, fire codes, and locally adopted amendments

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when preparing an all-hazards plan for a disaster or hostile event” A) The plan should be approved by individuals in the fusion centre B) Potential hazards should be listed in order of perceived public importance C) Potential hazards should be identified by physical and geographic characteristics D) The plan should be approved by individuals in the emergency operations centre

C) Potential hazards should be identified by physical and geographic characteristics

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, NFPA 3000 provides guidance and planning resources for: A) Terrorism pre-incident planning B) Technological disaster planning C) Incidents involving suspected arson D) Major incidents involving active shooter situations

D) Major incidents involving active shooter situations

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, chief officers can refer to NFPA 3000 for: A) Requirements and planning resources for training facilities B) Operation and recovery procedures for natural and technological disasters C) Guidelines specific to a chief officer’s political and community involvement D) Preparedness, response, and recovery procedures that focus on contractual and mutual aid agreements for active shooter/hostile event response

D) Preparedness, response, and recovery procedures that focus on contractual and mutual aid agreements for active shooter/hostile event response

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what is the primary focus of an emergency operations centre (EOC)? A) Rehabilitation services for log-term incidents B) Decontamination and staging for long-term incidents C) Multiagency coordination of information and resources to support incident management activities D) Intra-jurisdictional coordination of information and resources to support incident management activities

C) Multiagency coordination of information and resources to support incident management activities

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what is one function of an emergency operations centre (EOC)? A) The EOC retains command of the incident so that no single agency is overtaxed B) A centralized communications system allows senior management to command widespread operations C) The EOC provides physical and personnel resources to major incidents, such as a strike team or task force D) A centralized rehabilitation area allows all responders to receive the same level of care and monitoring during the incident

B) A centralized communications system allows senior management to command widespread operations

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, who determines when an incident can be declared terminated? A) First responding agency B) Agency having ultimate authority C) Any agency involved in the incident D) Agency with the most personnel at the incident

B) Agency having ultimate authority

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the first objective for restoration of services after a disaster is the restoration of: A) Public utilities B) Transportation services C) Normal business activities D) Fire and emergency services

D) Fire and emergency services

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, products of combustion travel upward toward the top of a building. If fire does not generate enough heat to cause the smoke to rise to the top of the building, the temperature of the smoke will eventually equal that of the surrounding air. When this equalization of temperature occurs, the smoke loses its buoyancy, ceases to rise, and forms layers of smoke within the building. This is known as: A) Stack effect B) Stratification C) Heat intensity and compartmentation D) Ceiling jets, or mushrooming

B) Stratification

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, the natural vertical movement of heat and smoke (convection) in tall structures is known as _______________. This occurs because of differences in the density of the air inside and outside of these buildings (due to temperature differences inside and outside the structure). The greater the difference between the inside and outside temperature and the greater the building height, the greater the effect will be. A) Stack effect B) Stratification C) Heat intensity and compartmentation D) Ceiling jets, or mushrooming

A) Stack effect

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, when heat, smoke, and other products of combustion rise until they encounter a horizontal obstruction, they will spread laterally until they encounter a vertical obstruction, then bank downward. This is known as __________________. A) Stack effect B) Stratification C) Heat intensity and compartmentation D) Ceiling jets, or mushrooming

D) Ceiling jets, or mushrooming

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, the construction of high-rise apartment buildings helps protect adjoining apartments and common halls, but provides an extremely hot environment for firefighters. Fires in tightly sealed highrise compartments may become ventilation controlled and flash over when a window fails or when firefighters open a door to make entry to a fire room. This is known as ______________. A) Stack effect B) Stratification C) Heat intensity and compartmentation D) Ceiling jets, or mushrooming

C) Heat intensity and compartmentation

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, there are several other variables that involve wind, which of the following is not a relevant variable? A) Height and shape of the structure B) Barometric pressure C) Wind speed D) Wind direction

B) Barometric pressure

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, firefighters must remember that steel structural members elongate when heated. A 50-foot (15 m) beam may elongate by as much as ___ inches (____ mm) when heated to a room temperature of about 1,000°F (538° C). A) 2 inches, 50 mm B) 4 inches, 100 mm C) 6 inches, 150 mm D) 10 inches, 255 mm

B) 4 inches, 100 mm

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, which of the following about wind driven fires is incorrect? A) Wind velocity may be negligible at ground level but reach significant force at upper levels, so firefighters cannot base tactical decisions on fire conditions that may occur many stories below the emergency floor B) This effect is triggered when a door is left ajar and a window suddenly breaks under intense heat and a blast of wind C) The instant combination of fire and wind can blast fireballs across rooms and down corridors without warning, In these situations, tremendous volumes of fire and high heat conditions can quickly consume compartmented occupancies and advance into public hallways D) If windows in the fire area are intact, firefighters on attack lines do not need to maintain coordination with those tasked with ventilation from the floor above the fire or adjacent compartmented areas

D) If windows in the fire area are intact, firefighters on attack lines do not need to maintain coordination with those tasked with ventilation from the floor above the fire or adjacent compartmented areas

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, in a report published in 2009 by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), a number of full-scale experiments were conducted in a seven- story building in New York City. Which of the following were identified? A) Wind conditions need to be considered in size-up; wind speeds of 10 to 20 mph are high enough to create wind-driven effects in buildings with an uncontrolled flow path B) Controlling doors is a basic yet effective way to interrupt the flow path in a building. Care should be taken when opening stairwell doors leading to the fire floor. If after opening the door a few inches there are rapid changes in the volume or velocity of the smoke in the hallway, the door should quickly be closed C) Positive-pressure ventilation fans always improved stairwell conditions, but were not able to reverse the direction of wind-driven fires. Positive-pressure ventilation was successful when used in conjunction with controlling doors, window control devices, and nozzles operated from the floor below the fire D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, in a report published in 2009 by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), a number of full-scale experiments were conducted in a seven- story building in New York City. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) In other tests, water was applied externally from either below or outside the fire room window. In all cases, application of water suppressed enough fire in the room to reduce corridor and stairwell temperatures by at least 50 percent B) Controlling doors is not effective way to interrupt the flow path in a building C) Wind conditions need to be considered in size-up; wind speeds of 10 to 20 mph are high enough to create wind-driven effects in buildings with an uncontrolled flow path D) Positive-pressure ventilation fans always improved stairwell conditions, but were not able to reverse the direction of wind-driven fires. Positive-pressure ventilation was successful when used in conjunction with controlling doors, window control devices, and nozzles operated from the floor below the fire

B) Controlling doors is not effective way to interrupt the flow path in a building

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, standpipe systems are divided into three classes based on NFPA 14, Standard for the Installation of Standpipes and Hose Systems. Which of the three classes are designed only for fire department personnel or other trained personnel? A) Class I B) Class II C) Class III D) All of the above

A) Class I

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, a full evacuation of a high-rise structure may be deemed necessary, but it will be a labour-intensive and lengthy effort. Which of the following is not a best practice when fully evacuating a high rise? A) Designate fire attack stairwells and evacuation stairwells B) Establish a Rapid Ascent Team C) Use the emergency voice communication system to direct residents out D) Create refuge stops on specific floors to allow evacuees to rest

D) Create refuge stops on specific floors to allow evacuees to rest

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, there are many problems to contend with during the evacuation of a high-rise building. Which of the following cause significant problems with evacuation? A) Locking exit doors B) Counterflow C) Stairway exit capacity D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, in other special high-rise occupancies, a person’s ability to evacuate may be hindered by age or medical condition. In hospital and nursing facilities, ___________________ procedures are generally used for patients who are nonambulatory. A) Limited/Partial evacuation B) Shelter in place C) Full evacuation D) None of the above

B) Shelter in place

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, a strategic priority during high-rise operations will be gaining access to and monitoring building systems. Which of the following is a building system firefighters should control? A) HVAC systems B) Communications systems C) Elevators D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, the primary responsibility of the first-arriving company is to locate and identify the emergency and determine its scope. The first arriving fire unit must address the following except: A) Make a rapid initial size-up of readily visible conditions B) Utilize the Voice Communication System to update residents C) Confirm verbal occupant reports and information from the Fire Alarm Control Panel (FACP) D) Assume command and request any immediately needed resources

B) Utilize the Voice Communication System to update residents

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, for effective command, control, and relief of operating forces, it is essential that an IC be stationed at ground level. Some departments prefer a position on the exterior 200 feet (60 m) from the building. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the IC? A) Establish command organizations B) Develop preliminary strategy C) Use the Voice Communication System to update residents D) Determine the level of resources needed to implement strategy

C) Use the Voice Communication System to update residents

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, firefighters have been injured or even killed as a result of misuse of elevators during a fire. Which of the following is not a safety consideration for using elevators at a high-rise call? A) Only consider using elevators if the fire is above the 3rd floor B) Do not use an elevator to travel to the fire floor. Stay at least two floors below the fire floor or according to department policy C) Never use an elevator that has been exposed to water. Do not squeegee water into the elevator shaft D) Do not overload cars; allow no more than six firefighters per car

A) Only consider using elevators if the fire is above the 3rd floor

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, firefighters have been injured or even killed as a result of misuse of elevators during a fire. Which of the following is not a safety consideration for using elevators at a high-rise call? A) Never take an elevator below ground level B) Maintain the ability to communicate by radio or other means at all times C) Use elevators for occupant evacuation as soon as possible, even if fire is not under control D) Be certain that the IC knows which unit’s are entering an elevator and the car in which they enter

C) Use elevators for occupant evacuation as soon as possible, even if fire is not under control

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, which of the following about wind-driven fires in high-rises is correct? A) The overwhelming majority of civilian fatalities in high-rise residential occupancies occur when fire spreads beyond the room of origin B) Wind-driven fire conditions are unique to the top floors of high-rise buildings C) Where the door to the fire room is open and a stairwell door is also open, a flow path may be created that pulls intense heat and fire into the corridor D) Wind-driven fires can hasten fire spread, quickly changing a room and contents fire into a ‘blowtorch’ of fire extending from the room of origin into a common corridor or stairwell with an open door

B) Wind-driven fire conditions are unique to the top floors of high-rise buildings

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, which of the following is correct about breaking glass at a high-rise fire? A) Breaking glass in high rise buildings can be a danger to firefighters inside the structure as well as firefighters and bystanders at ground level B) Glass falling from a high-rise may land approximately 200 feet (66m) from the base of the building C) After the window is broken, the area in front of the window (not the opening itself) should be blocked with a desk or chair to prevent firefighters from approaching the dangerous opening D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, the situational report given periodically as needed throughout the incident to update Incident Command is known as a __________ report. A) C.A.N. – Conditions, Actions, and Needs B) Status update C) Priority radio traffic D) P.A.N. – Position, Activities, and Needs

A) C.A.N. – Conditions, Actions, and Needs

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, use of plain English in radio communications transmissions. No 10-codes or agency specific codes are used when using this language: A) Formal communication B) Clear text C) Informal communication D) Downward communication

B) Clear text

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, smoke leaving the structure has four key attributes, they are: A) Amount, Rate, Direction, and Colour B) Volume, Velocity, Density and Colour C) Volume, Velocity, Direction, and Colour D) Amount, Rate, Direction, and Intensity

B) Volume, Velocity, Density and Colour

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, _______ _________ defines materials that aren’t necessarily burning, but are chemically degraded by heat. A) Incomplete combustion B) Off-gassing C) Off-aggregating D) Pyrolytic decomposition

D) Pyrolytic decomposition

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, hostile event warning signs that include: yellowish-gray smoke emitting from cracks and seams with bowing black-stained windows along with sucking and puffing from the cracks and seams would indicate a: A) Flashover B) Explosive growth phase C) Backdraft D) Smoke explosion

C) Backdraft

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, hostile event warning signs that include: increase in smoke speed, ghosting, laminar flow of smoke that is becoming turbulent and smoke flowing from hallways and stairways faster than a firefighter can move would indicate a: A) Flashover B) Flame-over C) Backdraft D) Smoke explosion

B) Flame-over

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, hostile event warning signs that include: smoke that is being trapped in a separate space above the fire, signs of growing fire and signs of smoke starting to pressurize would indicate a: A) Flashover B) Flame-over C) Backdraft D) Smoke explosion

D) Smoke explosion

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, hostile event warning signs that include: dense smoke that appears to have totally filled a building (floor to ceiling), smoke that rapidly speeds up when an exterior door is opened, and exhaust flow paths that intermittently puff or try to suck air would indicate: A) Flashover B) Explosive growth phase C) Backdraft D) Smoke explosion

B) Explosive growth phase

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, hostile warning event signs that include: turbulent smoke flow that has filled a compartment, vent-point ignition and a rapid change in smoke volume and velocity (getting worse in seconds) would indicate a: A) Flashover B) Explosive growth phase C) Backdraft D) Smoke explosion

A) Flashover

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, ____________ occurs when smoke reaches sustaining temperatures that are above the fire point of prevalent gases. The gases can suddenly ignite when touched by an additional spark or flame. Fire spread changes from flame contact across content surfaces to fire spread through the smoke. This hostile event is known as a: A) Flashover B) Backdraft C) Flame-over D) Smoke explosion

C) Flame-over

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, ___________ occurs when oxygen is introduced into a closed, pressurized space where fire products are above their ignition temperature. This hostile event is known as a: A) Flashover B) Backdraft C) Flame-over D) Smoke explosion

B) Backdraft

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, ____________ occurs when a spark or flame is introduced into trapped smoke that is below its ignition temperature but above its flashpoint. This hostile event is known as a: A) Explosive growth phase B) Backdraft C) Flame-over D) Smoke explosion

D) Smoke explosion

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, _____________ occurs when air is introduced to a ventilation-limited fire. It can include smoke flame-over in flow paths and flashover of individual rooms that are heat saturated. This hostile event is known as: A) Explosive growth phase B) Backdraft C) Flame-over D) Smoke explosion

A) Explosive growth phase

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, occurs when radiant heat reflected within a room or space. All surfaces reach their ignition temperature at virtually the same time due to rapid heat buildup in the space. This hostile event is known as: A) Flashover B) Explosive growth phase C) Backdraft D) Flame-over

A) Flashover

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, which of the following about smoke characteristics is incorrect? A) The thicker the smoke, the more explosive it is B) Faster smoke is further from the seat of the fire C) Fire that emits very little visible smoke is hot, well ventilated and clean-burning D) Black smoke indicates hot smoke, regardless of material involved

B) Faster smoke is further from the seat of the fire

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, which of the following about smoke characteristics is incorrect? A) Thick black smoke in a compartment reduces the chance of life sustainability B) Smoke can either be turbulent or laminar C) Smoke cannot be used to help find the location of the fire in a building D) Smoke follows the path of least resistance

C) Smoke cannot be used to help find the location of the fire in a building

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, you are onscene and notice brown smoke emanating from the structure. What does this indicate to you? A) Early heating or ‘filtered’ smoke B) Warning sign of impending collapse in lightweight wood buildings C) Warning sign of impending Backdraft D) A proper air mixture has been achieved for a smoke explosion

B) Warning sign of impending collapse in lightweight wood buildings

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, low-volume white smoke from more than one location of a large building would indicate: A) Sulfur compounds, a warning sign of impending backdraft B) Working fire deep within C) Warning sign of impending flashover D) Flame-pushed smoke, fire nearby that is well ventilated

B) Working fire deep within

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, thin, black, fast smoke would indicate: A) Warning sign of impending flashover B) Heat-pushed smoke that has traveled a distance or has had the carbon/hydrocarbon filtered C) Flame-pushed smoke; fire nearby that is well ventilated D) Unfinished wood reaching late heating

C) Flame-pushed smoke; fire nearby that is well ventilated

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, you are onscene and notice brown smoke emanating from the structure. What does this indicate to you? A) A proper air mixture has been achieved for a smoke explosion B) Early heating or ‘filtered’ smoke C) Warning sign of impending backdraft D) Usually a sign that a contents fire is transitioning into a structure fire

D) Usually a sign that a contents fire is transitioning into a structure fire

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, dirty white smoke with velocity would indicate: A) Warning sign of impending flashover B) Heat-pushed smoke that has traveled a distance or has had the carbon/hydrocarbon filtered C) Flame-pushed smoke; fire nearby that is well ventilated D) Unfinished wood reaching late heating

B) Heat-pushed smoke that has traveled a distance or has had the carbon/hydrocarbon filtered

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, which of the following about smoke characteristics is incorrect? A) Smoke that is getting faster (and turbulent), thicker, and darker is a sign that things are getting worse B) No firefighters should be in black fire; they should immediately cool and withdraw C) Colour can be filtered by distance or resistance, so rely on velocity for the true heat story D) Turbulent smoke that fills a compartment is a warning sign of a smoke explosion

D) Turbulent smoke that fills a compartment is a warning sign of a smoke explosion

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, Type III building types are known as: A) Ordinary B) Noncombustible C) Fire Resistive D) Wood frame

A) Ordinary

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, Type I building types are known as: A) Ordinary B) Noncombustible C) Fire Resistive D) Wood frame

C) Fire Resistive

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, Type II building types are known as: A) Ordinary B) Noncombustible C) Fire Resistive D) Wood frame

B) Noncombustible

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, Type V building types are known as: A) Ordinary B) Noncombustible C) Fire Resistive D) Wood frame

D) Wood frame

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, determining whether a fire is a ‘contents’ or ‘structure’ fire is imperative. Which of the following fires would not be considered a content fire that could become ‘structural’? A) A content fire in unfinished basement B) Fire in concealed spaces C) A mattress fire in a bedroom D) Attic fire

C) A mattress fire in a bedroom

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, what truism is incorrect when determining evaluating time before a structure will collapse? A) Age deterioration or the lack of care and maintenance will not influence collapse B) The lighter the structural elements, or heavier the imposed load, the faster the structure comes down C) Brown or dark smoke coming from lightweight engineered wood products means that time is up D) Wet (cooled) steel buys time

A) Age deterioration or the lack of care and maintenance will not influence collapse

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, which of the following is not a sign or indicator of potential collapse? A) Bulges and bowing of walls, sagging floors and roofs B) Significant kitchen fire with no extension C) Large volumes of fire impinging on structural components D) Deterioration and cracks of mortar joints and masonry

B) Significant kitchen fire with no extension

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, when establishing a collapse zone, the rule is to create a zone that is ____ to _____ times the height of the structure. A) 1 to 2 times the height of the structure B) 1.5 to 2 times the height of the structure C) 1.5 to 3 times the height of the structure D) 2 to 3 times the height of the structure

C) 1.5 to 3 times the height of the structure

According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, Solar (PV) Modules (Panels) can include: A) Modules integrated into shingles B) A stand alone system C) Flat roof with ballasted or attached installation D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, which of the following is NOT part of a Photovoltaic System? A) Combiner Box B) AC Connect C) Inverter D) Generation Meter

B) AC Connect

According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, which of the following is incorrect with regards to an AC Disconnect? A) The AC disconnect switch may contain breakers or fuses B) The alternating current (AC) disconnect is a switch that is used to shut off powewr from the building to the combiner box C) Even with the AC disconnect shut off, the solar panels, wires and cables with the conduit may be energized D) All are correct

B) The alternating current (AC) disconnect is a switch that is used to shut off powered from the building to the combiner box

According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, an _____________ is a device that is used to convert the direct current (DC) being generated by the solar panels into alternating current (AC) A) AC Connect B) Combiner Box C) Generation Meter D) Inverter

D) Inverter

According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, the primary function of the _________________ disconnect switch is to shut down power from the solar panels to the inverter. A) direct current (DC) B) Generation Meter C) alternating current (AC) D) Solar Modules

A) direct current (DC)

According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, which of the following is correct regarding battery banks? A) Battery backup systems are not permitted for directly connected facilities B) Battery banks are present and located in systems that are NOT tied back into the grid C) Multiple battery banks can be found in closets, basements, crawl spaces, sheds and other unsuspected or unmarked locations D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, which of the following is true regarding Photovoltaic Systems? A) Solar panels cannot be shut off B) There is always an electrical shock hazard C) Damage to panels from firefighting tools may result in both electrical and fire hazards D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, which of the following is incorrect regarding Photovoltaic Systems? A) Smoke from burning panels may release extremely hot, toxic fumes when involved in fire B) A single solar panel does not produce enough electricity to kill a person C) Metallic conduits may become live if cables and/or conduit damage has occurred D) Solar thermal systems generate very hot fluids. Damage to a solar thermal panel system may expose personnel to a risk of scalding burns

B) A single solar panel does not produce enough electricity to kill a person

According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, UL experiments found that with a 10 degree fog patter, the nozzle could be used as close as ___ feet (__ meters) on systems energized up to 1000 volts DC. A) 2 feet (0.6 meters) B) 3 feet (1.0 meters) C) 5 feet (1.5 meters D) 7 feet (2.1 meters)

C) 5 feet (1.5 meters

According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, which of the following is not a Tactical Consideration for a Photovoltaic System incident? A) A 360 degree survey of the scene is key to the decision-making process for the incident B) An incident in the night is not as dangerous as the light from the moon cannot produce dangerous levels of electricity C) Call the local utility company to disconnect the electrical service D) Ventilation is to be directed by the Incident Commander, who may consider the opposite side of the roof, horizontal or positive pressure ventilation

B) An incident in the night is not as dangerous as the light from the moon cannot produce dangerous levels of electricity

According to IFSTA’s Structural Firefighting: Initial Response Strategy and Tactics; the compartment surrounding the burning fuel plays an important role in fire development, impacting available ventilation, access to additional fuel, and heat losses and gains. Compartment fire development depends upon whether the fire is fuel-limited or ventilation-limited. What definition is correct regarding fuel-limited fires. A) Rapid transition from the growth stage to the fully developed Stage B) When sufficient oxygen is available for flaming combustion. The fuel’s characteristics, such as heat release rate (HRR) and configuration, control the fire’s development C) Fires that have access to all of the fuel needed to maintain combustion, yet the fire does not have access to enough oxygen to continue to burn and spread D) Results of inefficient combustion of fuel; the less efficient the combustion, the more products of combustion are produced rather than burned during the combustion process

B) When sufficient oxygen is available for flaming combustion. The fuel’s characteristics, such as heat release rate (HRR) and configuration, control the fire’s development

According to IFSTA’s Structural Firefighting: Initial Response Strategy and Tactics; the compartment surrounding the burning fuel plays an important role in fire development, impacting available ventilation, access to additional fuel, and heat losses and gains. Compartment fire development depends upon whether the fire is fuel-limited or ventilation-limited. What definition is correct regarding ventilation-limited fires. A) Results of inefficient combustion of fuel; the less efficient the combustion, the more products of combustion are produced rather than burned during the combustion process B) Rapid transition from the growth stage to the fully developed Stage C) Fires that have access to all of the fuel needed to maintain combustion, yet the fire does not have access to enough oxygen to continue to burn and spread D) When sufficient oxygen is available for flaming combustion. The fuel’s characteristics, such as heat release rate (HRR) and configuration, control the fire’s development

C) Fires that have access to all of the fuel needed to maintain combustion, yet the fire does not have access to enough oxygen to continue to burn and spread

According to IFSTA’s Structural Firefighting: Initial Response Strategy and Tactics; fires develop through four stages, they are: A) Flash Point, Growth, Rollover, and Decay B) Incipient, Growth, Fully Developed, and Decay C) Incipient, Growth, Rollover, and Decay D) Ignition Source, Open Burning, Fully Developed, and Decay

B) Incipient, Growth, Fully Developed, and Decay

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, ________ is the difference in electrical potential between two points in a circuit. It is the force that causes the flow of electricity, and it is measured in volts. Can be compared to waterpressure. A) Voltage B) Current C) Resistance D) Grounding

A) Voltage

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, ___________ is similar to the effect of friction on the flow of water inn a pipe. (Water flows more freely in a large pipe than a small one.) Different materials have different resistance to theflow of electricity. Very high resistance materials are called insulators, while the low resistance materials are called conductors. Resistance is measured in ohms. A) Voltage B) Current C) Resistance D) Grounding

C) Resistance

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, ________ is the process of mechanically connecting isolated wires and equipment to the earth, with sufficient capacity to carry any fault current and to ensure the wires and equipmentremain at the same potential (same voltage) as the earth (ground). A) Voltage B) Current C) Resistance D) Grounding

D) Grounding

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, ________ is a flow of electrical charge. It can be compared to the rate of flow of water in a pipe. Current is typically measures in amperes (or amps). A) Voltage B) Current C) Resistance D) Grounding

B) Current

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, overloading of electrical conductors and motors accounts for the majority fires caused by ___________. There is a danger when the amount of electrical current exceedsthe capacity conductors and equipment are designed to carry. A) Arcing B) Overheating C) Voltage D) None of the above

B) Overheating

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, related electricity on the ground to a rippling water in a pool is attempting to explain the effectknown as “ ______ gradient”. It is also referred to as “ground gradient” A) Current B) Voltage C) Potential D) Resistance

C) Potential

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, the further apart that “X” and “Y” are, the greater the electrical contact hazard. This effect is referred to as “ potential” A) Ground B) Step C) Fault D) Gradient

B) Step

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, in a manner similar to step potential, electricity would flow through your body if you were to place your hand on an energized source, while your feet were at some distance apart from the source. The electricity would flow through the hand, arm, chest, abdomen, leg and foot to the ground. The difference in voltage (potential difference) in this case is referred to as “ ______ potential” A) Ground B) Step C) Fault D) Touch

D) Touch

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, any victim of electrical shock should be assessed for the following effects of the body except for: A) Contraction of chest muscles, causing breathing difficulty and unconsciousness B) Respiratory distress caused by temporary paralysis of the respiratory center C) Permanent blindness from the sheer brilliance of the flash called “dazzle” D) Burns to tissue at the entrance and exit points

C) Permanent blindness from the sheer brilliance of the flash called “dazzle”

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, portable Generators should be of the ________ _________ type. A) Insulated neutral B) Bonded negative C) Bonded neutral D) Bonded positive

C) Bonded neutral

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, mounted power inverters and generators must be to the vehicle frame and all supply circuits from the generator must be protected by ground fault circuit interrupters (GFCI) A) Bolted B) Bonded C) Epoxied D) Fixed

B) Bonded

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following equipment may create an arcing situation where there is open energized equipment? A) Stretchers B) Oxygen/Trauma Bags C) Portable radios D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, hich of the following is correct, a single wooden pole transmission line will range in voltage from: A) 500,000 V B) 230,000 V C) 115,000 – 230,000 V D) 69,000 – 115,000 V

D) 69,000 – 115,000 V

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, an easy to remember rule for working around live high voltage transmission lines is to keep at least ___ metres (___ft.) away. A) 3 metres, 10 ft. B) 5 metres, 16 ft. C) 6 metres, 20 ft. D) 10 metres, 33 ft.

C) 6 metres, 20 ft.

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, bystanders should be back at least ____ metres (____ ft.) A) 3 metres (10 ft.) B) 5 metres (16 ft.) C) 10 metres (33 ft.) D) 15 metres (50 ft.)

C) 10 metres (33 ft.)

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, a fallen wire lies on top of, or under a vehicle with one or more people inside, the driver is unable to move the vehicle or the vehicle will not move, which of the following instructions is correct? A) Instruct the driver to “Stay in the vehicle….” Until the electrical utility personnel arrive B) Continually monitor the safe zone, secure the area and keep people away C) A vehicle’s tires may smoke or explode from heating up, but do not advise leaving the vehicle except in the event of fire D) All of the Above

D) All of the Above

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, keep bystanders and non-emergency persons at least ____ metres (_____ ft.) from a vehicle tire pyrolysis incident. A) 15 metres (50 ft.) B) 50 metres (165 ft.) C) 100 metres (330 ft.) D) 200 metres (660 ft.)

C) 100 metres (330 ft.)

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, a standard precautionary approach to fighting wood pole fires includes the following except: A) Use a straight stream at 550 kpa (80 psi) at the nozzle B) Wear full turnout gear and SCBA C) Position apparatus upwind and out of the line of fire of a vehicle’s tires D) Evacuate people located in path of smoke plume and at safe distances from a ground gradient grid or tire explosion

A) Use a straight stream at 550 kpa (80 psi) at the nozzle

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, what action for fighting a fire on power line equipment is incorrect: A) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres (33 ft.) back. Attempt to determine the voltage involved. If you aren’t certain, assume the highest voltage B) DO NOT apply a straight water stream directly on the fire. Electricity can travel through the stream and back to the nozzle C) Use foam on live electrical equipment. Foam is not a good electrical conductor D) Set the nozzle to produce fog (minimum 30 degree pattern) and ensure the designed pressure stays at or above 700 Kpa or 100 psi) at the nozzle

C) Use foam on live electrical equipment. Foam is not a good electrical conductor

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, an underground live power line is damaged by digging machinery. Which of the following is incorrect? A) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres (33 ft.) back B) Determine the safe zone (15 metres, 49 ft.), secure the area, inform other emergency responders and keep people back C) Call the electrical utility. Give the location and provide the number of the nearest transformer or switching kiosk. Numbers are stenciled on the unit usually in yellow lettering D) Tell the operator of the machinery to “Stay in the machine. We are contacting the electrical utility”

B) Determine the safe zone (15 metres, 49 ft.), secure the area, inform other emergency responders and keep people back

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, _____ _____ are metal conduits that are used within substations to carry the electricity from transformers to other devices inside the substation. A) Substation Conservators B) Explosion Vents C) Porcelain Bushings D) Bus Bars

D) Bus Bars

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, you have responded to a call with an injured person who has entered a substation. What action would you not do? A) Calmly, tell the person to move to the fence if they are able B) Cut the fence to gain patient access C) Call the local electrical authority for assistance and follow their instructions including waiting for their arrival D) When the electrical utility personnel arrive, initiate rescue under their direction

B) Cut the fence to gain patient access

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, the minimum recommended distance for Fire Fighting inside Electrical Substations Switchyards is ____ m, ____ ft. A) 3 metres, 10 ft. B) 5 metres, 16 ft. C) 10 metres, 33 ft. D) 15 metres, 50 ft.

C) 10 metres, 33 ft.

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, the majority of fires in substations involve combustible insulating oil used in transformers, circuit breakers, and capacitors. This insulating oil has a minimum flash point of 145 C (293 F) and will generate temperatures in excess of ______°C, (_______°F) A) 750°C, (1382°F) B) 1000°C, (1850°F) C) 1100°C, (2012°F) D) 1250°C, (2282°F)

B) 1000°C, (1850°F)

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, you are responding to a fire at a substation or switchyard and you suspect PCBs in the fire, which of the following actions should you not do? A) Consult the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) B) Use dry chemical, CO2 or foam if possible C) Provide ‘stay-in-place’ direction for people located in path of the smoke plume D) Provide for liquid runoff containment

C) Provide ‘stay-in-place’ direction for people located in path of the smoke plume

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, when rescuers or fire fighters are working from an aerial device, it is essential to maintain the limits of approach of ____ metres, (___ ft.) from the power line A) 2 metres, 7 ft. B) 3 metres, 10 ft. C) 5 metres, 16 ft. D) 10 metres, 33 ft.

B) 3 metres, 10 ft.

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following Hazards in electrical vaults is in correct: A) Large volumes of thick toxic black smoke B) Fire C) No risk of Explosion D) Flying debris

C) No risk of Explosion

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, access for emergency responders can be difficult. Which of the following is correct, emergency responders should never attempt to remove anyone from inside a vault unless: A) They are certain that the power is off B) The victim is not in contact with an electrical power source C) None of the above D) Both A & B are correct

D) Both A & B are correct

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following is not a fire hazard in illegal ‘Grow Ops’? A) High heat producing equipment placed on or near building combustibles B) Improper use of Lithium-ion batteries C) Overloaded circuits with inadequate or bypassed overload protection D) Use of undersized extension cords

B) Improper use of Lithium-ion batteries

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following is not an entanglement hazards in illegal ‘Grow Ops’? A) Use of undersized extension cords B) Improperly installed low-hanging flexible ducting C) Improperly strung unprotected wiring D) Batteries or capacitors randomly positioned and wired together

A) Use of undersized extension cords

Platoon Chief Exam 2024 Flashcards

(594 cards)