Please Flashcards

(386 cards)

1
Q

Pre-eclampsia moderate/high risk aspirin management

A

Take daily from 12 weeks to birth

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2
Q

Threadworm management

A

Mebendazole single dose for child and entire household

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3
Q

What is associated with decreased incidence of hyperemesis gravid arum?

A

Smoking

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4
Q

Main risk of termination of pregnancy and when does it happen?

A

Infection - unlikely to occur soon after the procedure

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5
Q

Iron therapy in pregnancy

A

First trimester 110
Second 105
Post partum 100

Management - oral ferrous sulphate - continue treatment 3 months after iron deficiency is correct to replenish stores

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6
Q

Treating pyrexia in non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction

A

Paracetamol

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7
Q

Child coughing at night

A

Whooping cough/ Pertussis

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8
Q

Management of pertussis/whooping cough

A

Clarithromycin

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9
Q

Management of bell’s palsy

A

Prednisolone

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10
Q

Layers of the abdominal wall

A

Skin
Subcutaneous fascia
Abdominal muscles - external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominus
Peritoneum
Uterus

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11
Q

Categories of C sections

A

Category 1
an immediate threat to the life of the mother or baby
examples indications include: suspected uterine rupture, major placental abruption, cord prolapse, fetal hypoxia or persistent fetal bradycardia
delivery of the baby should occur within 30 minutes of making the decision
Category 2
maternal or fetal compromise which is not immediately life-threatening
delivery of the baby should occur within 75 minutes of making the decision
Category 3
delivery is required, but mother and baby are stable
Category 4
elective caesarean

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12
Q

Features of acute sinusitis

A

Facial pain worse on leaning forward
Nasal discharge
Nasal obstruction

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13
Q

Management of acute sinusitis

A

analgesia
intranasal decongestants or nasal saline may be considered but the evidence supporting these is limited
NICE CKS recommend that intranasal corticosteroids may be considered if the symptoms have been present for more than 10 days
oral antibiotics are not normally required but may be given for severe presentations.
The BNF recommends phenoxymethylpenicillin first-line, co-amoxiclav if ‘systemically very unwell, signs and symptoms of a more serious illness, or at high-risk of complications’

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14
Q

Management of chronic rhino sinusitis

A

avoid allergen
intranasal corticosteroids
nasal irrigation with saline solution
Red flag: unilateral, epistaxis

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15
Q

Acute sinusitis timeline

A

<12 weeks

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16
Q

Sinuses of the head

A
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17
Q

Mechanism of methotrexate

A

antimetabolite that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines.

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18
Q

Side-effects of methotrexate

A

mucositis
myelosuppression
pneumonitis
pulmonary fibrosis
liver fibrosis

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19
Q

Anti-emetic: chemo

A

Ondansetron

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20
Q

Anti-emetic: reduced gastric motility

A

metoclopramide

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21
Q

Anti-emetic: raised intracranial pressure

A

Cyclizine

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22
Q

Discitis: common organisms

A

Staph aureus

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23
Q

Discitis: investigations and management

A

MRI and 6-8 weeks of IV antibiotics

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24
Q

Calculating anion gap

A

(sodium+potassium)-(bicarb+chloride)

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25
Red traffic light: tachypnoea
>60 in any age
26
Main side effect of nasal decongestants
Tachyphylaxis
27
Hand, foot and mouth disease cause
Coxsackie
28
Peutz-Jegher management
Conservative
29
Palliative care: secretions
Hyoscine hydrobromide
30
Palliative care: hiccups
Chlorpromazine
31
Palliative care prescribing: agitation and confusion
first choice: haloperidol
32
Management of metastatic spinal cord compression
Oral dexamethasone
33
SVCO management
dex and endovascular stenting is often the treatment of choice to provide symptom relief
34
Vincristine
Peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, myelosuppression
35
Cisplatin
HOP Ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia
36
Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Can be idiopathic or due to subarachnoid haemorrhage, injury, or meningitis. Presents with marked mental slowness, apathy, wide-based gait, and urinary incontinence. Ventriculoatrial shunting only benefits patients with prominent neurological signs and relatively mild dementia but frequently leads to complications.
37
Breast cancer tumour marker
CA153
38
Neutropenic sepsis
Temperature >38oC and neutrophil count <0.5≈109/L. Treat empirically with piperacillin/tazobactam (see p352).
39
Frontotemporal dementia:
Features: Personality changes, behavioural and language difficulties.
40
Hypertensive retinopathy features on fundoscopy
Keith-Wagener Classification Stage 1: Mild narrowing of the arterioles Stage 2: Focal constriction of blood vessels and AV nicking Stage 3: Cotton-wool patches, exudates and haemorrhages Stage 4: Papilloedema
41
Management of intrahepatic cholestasis in pregnancy
Ursodeoxycholic acid
42
When does the anomaly scan happen?
18-20+6 weeks
43
What type of murmur would you hear in pregnancy? Is this pathological?
Systolic murmur - it's normal
44
Maternal corticosteroids
Dexamethasone
45
Management of a woman with known Group B streptococcus during labour?
Intrapartum antibiotics - Benzylpenicillin is antibiotic of choice.
46
Management of shoulder dystocia
Call for help! McRoberts' manoeuvre episiotomy Suprapubic pressure Rubin's manoeuvre Zavanelli's manoeuvre
47
Diagnose please and management
Herpes zoster keratitis and oral aciclovir
48
Diabetic retinopathy findings
Brandon Norman Chases Mad Hoes Blot haemorrhages Neovascularisation Cotton wool spots Microaneurysms Hard exudate
49
FRONTAL HEADACHE WHICH HAS DEVELOPED FOLLOWING AN UPPER RESPIRATORY TRACT INFECTION WHICH IS WORSE ON LEARNING FORWARDS!
Sinusitis
50
Management of sinusitis
analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline. Intranasal corticosteroids if symptoms have been present more than 10 days. Oral phenoxymethylpenicillin if symptoms are severe.
51
DVLA driving rules: first unprovoked/isolated seizure
6 months if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met then this is increased to 12 months
52
DVLA: patients with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures
12 months
53
DVLA: syncope : single episode, explained and treated
4 weeks
54
DVLA: syncope single episode, unexplained:
6 months off
55
DVLA: syncope more than 2 episodes
12 months off
56
DVLA: TIA/Stroke
1 month off
57
DVLA: multiple TIAs over short period of times
3 months off
58
DVLA: craniotomy e.g. For meningioma:
1 year off driving
59
DVLA: craniotomy for pituitary tumour
6 months off
60
DVLA: CABG
1 month off
61
DVLA: ACS
1 month off
62
DVLA: Pacemaker insertion
1 week off
63
DVLA: defirbillator for ventricular arrythmia
6 months off
64
DVLA: defibrillator for prophylaxis
1 month off
65
DVLA: heart transplant
6 weeks off
66
What would you find on LP of MS?
Oligoclonal bands
67
Acute phase treatment of MND
High dose steroids IV or Oral methylprednisolone for 5 days.
68
Parkinson's drugs and their MOA
Levodopa Carbydopa MAO-B Inhibitors - sellegiline COMT inhibitors - tolcapone Amantadine
69
Ankle reflexes
S1-S2
70
Knee reflexes
L3-L4
71
Biceps reflexes
C5-C6
72
Triceps reflexes
C7-C8
73
Intrahepatic cholestasis: when should you deliver? and why?
37 weeks - due to risk of stillbirth
74
What are the 5 principles of the mental capacity act?
BiQWAS 1. A person must be assumed to have capacity unless it is established that he lacks capacity 2. A person is not to be treated as unable to make a decision unless all practicable steps to help him to do so have been taken without success 3. A person is not to be treated as unable to make a decision merely because he makes an unwise decision 4. An act done, or decision made, under this Act for or on behalf of a person who lacks capacity must be done, or made, in his best interests 5. Before the act is done, or the decision is made, regard must be had to whether the purpose for which it is needed can be as effectively achieved in a way that is less restrictive of the person's rights and freedom of action B - best interst I - idiot decisions T - take steps to make sure they dont have capacity A - assume capacity unless established that they dont T - take least restrictive option on the patient's rights and freedom of action.
75
How would you assess capacity?
A person must be able to: Understand Retain Make a decision Communicate the decision back. URMC
76
What is section 2?
28 days AMHP + 2 doctors
77
What is section 3?
6 months AMHP + 2 doctors
78
What is Section 4?
72 hours GP and AMHP
79
What is section 5(2)?
A patient who is a voluntary patient in hospital can be legally detained by a doctor for 72 hours
80
What is section 5(4)?
Similar to section 5(2), allows a nurse to detain a patient who is voluntarily in hospital for 6 hours
81
What is a section 135?
A court order can be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety
82
What is a section 136?
Someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder can be taken by the police to a Place of Safety Can only be used for up to 24 hours, whilst a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged
83
Acute bronchitis management
Analgesia Good fluid intake Abx - doxycycline if systemically unwell.
84
Most common infective causes of COPD exacerbations (2)
Haemophilus influenzae and streptococcus pneumoniae
85
Management of infective exacerbation of COPD
Prednisolone for 5 days Amoxicillin is antibiotic of choice. Nebulised SABA and Ipatropium bromide IV hydrocortisone may be used instead of prendisolone IV theophylline NIV or BiPaP if type 2 respiratory failure occurs.
86
Presentation of ARDS
Low oxygen saturations High respiratory rate Dyspnoea Bilateral lung crackles
87
Presentation and management of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
Presentation: bronchiectasis and eosinophilia. Management: Oral glucocorticoids
88
Which areas of the lungs are most affected in aspiration pneumonia?
Right middle and lower lung lobes.
89
Asthma: stepping down treatment
Consider every 3 months
90
Causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
Sarcoidosis and TB. Lymphoma
91
What is bronchiectasis?
Permanent dilation of the airways due to chronic infection or inflammation
92
Management of bronchiectasis
Physical training - inspiratory muscle training Antibiotics for exacerbations Bronchodilators Surgery for selected cases
93
Most common organisms in patients with bronchiectasis
Haemophilus influenza Pseudomonas aeruginosa Klebsiella Strep pneumoniae
94
Causes of widened mediastinum
Thoracic aortic aneurysm Lymphoma Teratoma Tumours of the thymus
95
Causes of widened mediastinum
Thoracic aortic aneurysm Lymphoma Teratoma Tumours of the thymus
96
Causes of widened mediastinum
Thoracic aortic aneurysm Lymphoma Teratoma Tumours of the thymus
97
Severity of COPD
Stage 1: Mild: >80% Stage 2: Moderate: 50-79% Stage 3: Severe: 30-49% Stage 4: Very severe: <30%
98
COPD: general management
Smoking cessation Annual influenza vaccine One-off pneumococcal vaccine Pulmonary rehabilitation
99
List 5 causes of haemoptysis
Lung cancer TB PE Granulomatosis with polyangitis Goodpasture's syndrome Bronchiectasis
100
Management of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Pulmonary rehabiliation
101
What condition causes red-current jelly sputum?
Klebsiella
102
In what group of patients is Klebsiella pneumoniae more common in?
Diabetics and alcoholics
103
What complications are common in Klebsiella pneumonia?
Lung abscesses and empyema
104
Common causes of klebsiella pneumonia
Aspiration
105
Common organisms causing lung abscesses
Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella, pseudomonas aeruginosa
106
First line investigation for lung cancer
Chest x-ray
107
Investigation of choice for lung cancer
CT scan
108
Small cell lung cancer: paraneoplastic syndromes
ADH ACTH Lambert-Eaton syndrome
109
Squamous cell lung cancer: paraneoplastic syndromes
Parathyroid hormone related protein Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy Hyperthyroidism due to ectopic TSH
110
Adenocarcinoma of the lung: paraneoplastic syndromes
Gynaecomastia Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
111
Features of lambert eaton syndrome
Diplopia, ptosis, slurred speech
112
Aortic aneurysm screening
One USS at the age of 65 for males only. <3cm - no follow up 3-4.4 - follow up every year 4.5-5.4 - every 3 months > 5.5 or >1 cm growth in one year - urgent referral to vascular
113
Lung cancer referral criteria
>40 and unexplained haemoptysis or have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer
114
Causes of upper zone pulmonary fibrosis
CHARTS Coal workers pneumoconiosis Hypersensitivity pneumonitis Ankylosing spondylitis Radiation TB Sarcoidosis/silicosis
115
Causes of lower zone pulmonary fibrosis
Methotrexate Idiopathic Amiodarone Asbestosis
116
List 5 absolute contraindications for thrombolysis
Previous intracranial haemorrhage Pregnancy Oesophageal varices Active bleeding Seizure at onset of stroke
117
List 5 relative contraindications for thrombolysis
Major surgery in past two weeks Concurrent anticoagulation INR >1.7 Active diabetic haemorrhagic retinopathy
118
How would you differentiate between a transudative and exudative pleural effusion?
Light's criteria: Exudate: >30g/L, transudate <30g/L Exudate: raised pleural LDH, pleural protein/serum protein >0.5
119
Assessment of pneumonia
CURB 65 Confusion Urea >7 Resp >30 Blood pressure <90 systolic, <60 diastolic >65 years old 0 - treat at home 1 or 2 - consider hospital assessment 3-4 - urgent admission to hospital
120
Management of pneumonia
Low severity - amoxicillin Moderate to high severity - amoxicillin and clarithromycin
121
Pneumonia: after care
Repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks after clinical resolution
122
Management of primary pneumothorax
>2 cm rim of air -> aspiration If this fails -> chest drain
123
Management of secondary pneumothorax
<1 cm -> admit for 24 hours and give oxygen 1-2 cm rim of air-> aspiration >50 years old and >2cm rim of air -> chest drain
124
Sarcoidosis features
Erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, lupus pernio, hypercalcaemia, non-caseating granulomas.
125
Diagnosis of sarcoidosis
ACE levels
126
Management of sarcoidosis
Steroids
127
Management of tension pneumothorax
Needle decompression and chest drain
128
Shockable rhythms
VT/pulseless VF
129
Non-shockable rhythms
Asystole/PEA
130
When should you defibrilate in shockable rhythms?
Single shock by 2 minutes of CPR If cardiac arrest is witnessed - up to three successive shocks followed by CPR
131
When should you administer adrenaline?
1mg as soon as possible for non-shockable rhythms After 3rd shock in shockable rhythms and repeat every 3-5 minutes
132
When should amiodarone be administered?
After 3rd shock in VF/pulseless VT and 5th shock
133
Reversible causes of cardiac arrest
4 Hs and 4 Ts hypoxia hypothermia hypo/hyperkalaemia hypovolaemia Tension pneumothorax Toxins Tamponade Thrombosis
133
Reversible causes of cardiac arrest
4 Hs and 4 Ts hypoxia hypothermia hypo/hyperkalaemia hypovolaemia Tension pneumothorax Toxins Tamponade Thrombosis
134
Anaphylaxis adrenaline doses
<6 months: 100-150 micrograms 6 months - 6 years: 150 micrograms 6-12 years - 300 micrograms >12 - 500 micrograms Repeat every 5 minutes
135
First line investigation for prostate cancer
MRI
136
Management of prostate cancer
Surveillance External beam radiotherapy Brachytherapy GnRH agonists (goserelin), androgen receptor blockers, bilateral orchidectomy Surgery - radical prostatectomy
137
Management of pericarditis
NSAIDs or cholchicine
138
What's the management of supraventricular tachycardia?
Adenosine - avoid in asthmatics
139
Side-effects of amiodarone
Slate grey appearance Liver fibrosis Pulmonary fibrosis Bradycardia Peripheral neuropathy
140
Features of aortic regurgitation
Early diastolic murmur Collapsing pulse De Musset's sign
141
Management of aortic stenosis
Asymptomatic - observe Symptomatic - valve replacement
142
What is brugada syndrome? And management?
Inherited cardiovascular disease - autosomal dominant - common in asians. Sudden cardiac death Management - implantable cardiac pacemaker
143
Cardiac tamponade triad
Hypotension Raised JYP Muffled heart sounds
144
How would differentiate cardiac tamponade vs constrictive pericarditis?
Pulsus paradoxus - abnormally large drop in BP during inspiration Not present in constrictive pericarditis
145
What would you see on ECG in cardiac tamponade
Electrical alternans
146
Chronic heart failure management
ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker Second line - spironolactone
147
Management of hypertension: diabetes
ACE inhibitors or ARBs (first-line)
148
HOCM: echo findings
MR SAM ASH Mitral regurgitation Systolic anterior motion Asymmetrial hypertrophy
149
What valve is most affected in IE?
Mitral valve
150
Causes of IE
Staph aureus Staph epidermis - in patients with prosthetic heart valves
151
Criteria for IE
Duke's Infective endocarditis diagnosed if pathological criteria positive, or 2 major criteria, or 1 major and 3 minor criteria, or 5 minor criteria Two positive blood cultures showing organisms consistent with IE Persistent bacteraemia from two blood cultures taken 12 hours apart Evidence of endocardial involvement positive echocardiogram (oscillating structures, abscess formation, new valvular regurgitation or dehiscence of prosthetic valves), or new valvular regurgitation Minor criteria predisposing heart condition or intravenous drug use microbiological evidence does not meet major criteria fever > 38ºC vascular phenomena: major emboli, splenomegaly, clubbing, splinter haemorrhages, Janeway lesions, petechiae or purpura immunological phenomena: glomerulonephritis, Osler's nodes, Roth spots
152
Complications: MI
Cardiac arrest Cardiogenic shock Chronic heart failure Tachyarrythmias Bradyarrythmias Pericarditis - Dressler's syndrome Left ventricular aneurysm Left ventricular free wall rupture VSD MR
153
Management of orthostatis hypotension
Fludrocortisone
154
Cause of rheumatic fever
Streptococcus pyogenes
155
Diagnosis of rheumatic fever
Duke's criteria - ACCE FRAPP Diagnosis is based on evidence of recent streptococcal infection accompanied by: 2 major criteria 1 major with 2 minor criteria Major criteria erythema marginatum Sydenham's chorea: this is often a late feature polyarthritis carditis and valvulitis (eg, pancarditis) Minor criteria raised ESR or CRP pyrexia arthralgia (not if arthritis a major criteria) prolonged PR interval
156
Management of rheumatic fever
Oral Pen V and NSAIDs
157
Management of ventricular tachycardia
Amiodarone Lidocaine (second-line)
158
Wolf-Parkinson-White Syndrome - management
Amiodarone, flecanide Radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway
159
Management takayasu's arteritis
Steroids
160
Glue ear management
Grommet insertion and adenoidectomy
161
Management of Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
Oral aciclovir and steroids
161
ENT referral criteria
>45 and unexplained neck lump or persistent hoarseness of voice Oral cancer Consider a suspected cancer pathway referral (for an appointment within 2 weeks) for oral cancer in people with either: unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than 3 weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck. Consider an urgent referral (for an appointment within 2 weeks) for assessment for possible oral cancer by a dentist in people who have either: a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia
162
Treatment of vestibular neuronitis
Buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine Vestibular rehabilitation exercises for patients who experience chronic symptoms.
162
Meniere's: type of hearing loss
Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss
163
How would you differentiate between a posterior cerebellar stroke and vestibular neuronitis?
HiNTs exam: Nystagmus Vertical skew Head impulse test
164
Elderly patient - dizziness on head extension
Vertebrobasilar ischaemia
165
Acute sensorineural hearing loss management
Urgent referal to ENT
166
Most common bacterial cause of otitis media
Haemophilus influenza is most common cause of bacterial otitis media.
167
Management of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Epley Brant Daroff Betahistine
168
Risk factors for glue ear
Acute otitis media Barotrauma Eustachian tube dysfunction Adenoidal inflammation
169
How would you visualise the vocal cords on examination?
Laryngoscopy
170
Where do pharyngeal pouches form?
Killian's dischinence
171
Argyll-Robertson pupil
Classically associated with neurosyphilis or diabetes mellitus (which do not apply to this patient), an Argyll-Robertson pupil is typically small, irregular, and unresponsive to light.
172
Holmes- Adie pupil
Dilated pupil Absent ankle/knee reflexes
173
Management of anterior uveitis
Steroid eye drops and cycloplegic (mydiatric) drops
174
Management of infective conjunctivitis
Chloramphenicol
175
Most common causative organism for bacterial keratitis in contant lense wearers and management
Pseudomonas aeruginosa - same day referral to eye specialist in contact lens wearers. Management - topical antibiotics
176
Optic neuritis - features, investigation and management
MS, diabetes, syphylis. Poor discrimination of colours (particulalrly red), pain on eye movement, RAPD and central scotoma. Ivestigation with MRI brain and orbits with contrast. Management: high dose steroids.
177
Horner's syndrome: central lesion causes
Stroke Syringomyelia Multiple sclerosis Tumour Encephalitis
178
Horner's syndrome: pre-ganglionic lesion causes
Pancoast's tumour Thyroidectomy Trauma Cervical rib
179
Horner's syndrome: post-ganglionic lesions causes
Carotid artery dissection Carotid aneurysm Cavernous sinus thrombosis Cluster headache
180
Management of acute epiglottitis
Ceftriaxone and dexamethasone
181
Status epilepticus managementA
ABCDE Benzo (first-line). Repeat after 10-20 mins. Phenytoin infusion Induction with propofol
182
Cerebral palsy: spastic - location of lesion and management
Paraventricular white matter - oral diazepam. baclofen
183
Cerebral palsy: dyskinetic - location of lesion
Basal ganglia and substantia nigra
184
Cerebral palsy: ataxic - location of lesion
Cerebellum
185
What are a small minority of patients likely to develop in chicken pox?
Group A strep necrotising fasciitis.
186
What would you find on duodenal biopsy in coeliac's disease?
villous atrophy crypt hyperplasia increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes
187
Pregnant female presenting with severe abdominal pain, low-grade fever, tachycardia and vomiting with background of fibroids.
Red degeneration of fibroids. Management is supportive, with rest, fluids and analgesia.
188
Management of constipation in children
Polyethylene and movicol Add Senna in addition to movicol if constipation does not resolve in 2 weeks.
189
Emergency treatment of Croup
High flow oxygen and nebulised adrenaline
190
Features of cystic fibrosis
Meconium ileus, malabsorption, recurrent chest infections, male infertility, female sub fertility, short stature, steatorrhoea.
191
Management of cystic fibrosis
Chest physiotherapy, high calorie, high fat diet, pancreatic enzymes.
192
Diagnosis of cystic fibrosis
Sweat test
193
Chemical changes seen in diabetic ketoacidosis in children
Hyponatraemia, low bicarminate and hypokalaemia
194
Management of cerebral oedema
Slow IV fluids, IV mannitol and IV hypertonic saline
195
Unresolved DKA after 24 hours?
Refer to paediatric endocrinologist
196
Atopic eczema in children
Avoid irritants Topical emollients Topical steroids
197
Umbilical hernias management in children
Umbilical hernias: Usually self-resolve, but if large or symptomatic perform elective repair at 2-3 years of age. If small and asymptomatic peform elective repair at 4-5 years of age.
198
Meckel's diverticulum presentation
Abdominal pain, rectal bleeding (most common cause of painless GI haemorrhage in children), intestinal obstruction
199
Complications of mumps in children
Pancreatitis Orchitis SSNHL Meningitis
200
Complications of perthes disease
Osteoarthritis and premature closure of the growth plates
201
Presentation and management of pyloric stenosis
Hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic akalosis. Projectile vomiting, dehydeation and constipation. USS diagnosis. Ramstedt's procedure.
202
Features of PDA and management
Wide pulse pressure Collpasing pulse Continuous machine like murmur Management: Indomethacin or NSAIDs
203
Management of Group B Strep in neonatal sepsis
Benzylpenicilin or gentamicin
204
Group B strep prophylaxis in pregnancy
Benzylpenicillin
205
What are koplik's spots indicative of?
Measles
206
Shaken baby syndrome
Retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, encephalopathy
207
Breech baby
Refer for pelvic USS at 6 weeks to check for DDH
208
Turner's syndrome
SWAB Primary amenorrhoea Bicuspid aortic valve Short stature Webbed neck
209
Diagnosis of SUFE
AP and laternal views - internal fixation
210
Common fractures associated with NAI
- Radial - Humeral - Femoral
211
When should pregnant women have a whooping cough and influenza vaccine?
16-32 weeks
212
Painless abdominal mass in a child with haematuria?
Wilm's tumour
213
What procedure is done for intestinal malrotation?
Ladd's procedure
214
How does intestinal malrotation present?
Bile stained vomit
215
T2DM + abnormal liver tests?
Non-alcoholic liver disease
216
Investigation for Wilson's disease
Serum ceruloplasmin (reduced)
217
Features of Wilson's disease and management
Kayser-Fleicher rings Psychiatric problems Liver cirrhosis/hepatitis Haemolysis Management - penicillamine
218
Anti-HbC indicated?
Caught - previously or acutely
219
Gene affected in haemachromatosis
HFE gene - family testing required
220
Management for haemachromatosis
Venesections Desferioxamine
221
Mesenteric ischaemia vs ischaemic colitis
Mesenteric ischaemia due to thrombus and affects small bowel - requires urgent surgery Ischaemic colitis - multifactorial causes and affects large bowel - conservative management
222
Primary biliary cirrhosis - antibodies and management
IgM and Anti-mitochondrial Ursodeoxycholic acid and cholestyramine for pruritis
223
Management of constipation in patients with IBS
Isaghula husk
224
Investigation for alcoholic liver cirrhosis
Fibroscan
225
Maximum alcohol units and advise
if you do drink as much as 14 units per week, it is best to spread this evenly over 3 days or more
226
test recommended for H. pylori post-eradication therapy
Urea breath test
227
Management of Crohn's disease - induction of remission and maintenance regime
Induction of remission: Oral/IV hydrocortisone Mesalazine Azathioprine or mercaptopurine/ Methotrexate Maintenance: azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line to maintain remission +TPMT activity should be assessed before starting methotrexate is used second-line
228
Investigation and management for achalasia
Oesophageal monometry, barium swallow Management: balloon dilation, Heller cardiomyotomy if persistent
229
Management of alcoholic ketoacidosis
Saline and thiamine infusion
230
Management of alcoholic hepatitis (Acute)
Prednisolone
231
Management of ascites
Restrict dietary sodium Spironolactone Ciprofloxaclin if ascitic protein >15g/L TIPS
232
Antibodies found in autoimmune hepatitis and management
Anti-nuclear antibodies and/or smooth-muscle antibodies Management: prednisolone and liver transplantation
233
Change in barrett's oesophagus and management
Squamous -> columnar metaplasia. Managemnet: High dose PPI, endoscopic surveillance with biopsies. If any grade of dysplasia is identified endoscopic intervention is offered - ablation is first-line, endoscopic mucosal resection
234
Management of carcinoid tumours
Octreotide
235
Management of hepatic encephalopathy
Lactulose and rifaximin
236
What is melanosis coli
Pigmentation of the bowel wall due to laxative abuse
237
Investigation of primary sclerosing cholangitis
MRCP/ERCP pANCA positive Increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma and colorectal cancer
238
Small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome - risk factors, diagnosis and management
Risk factors: diabetes Diagnosis: hydrogen breath test Management: rifaximin
239
Diagnosis of helicobacter pylori
CLO testing, urea breath test
240
Management of acute pancreatitis
IV fluids, Nil by mouth and NG tube
241
Management of Von Willebrand Disease
Tranexamic acid for mild bleeding Desmopressin
242
Investigation for phaechromocytoma
Urine metnephrines
243
Diabetes: sick day rules
Increase frequency of blood glucose monitoring to four hourly or more frequently Encourage fluid intake aiming for at least 3 litres in 24hrs If unable to take struggling to eat may need sugary drinks to maintain carbohydrate intake If a patient is taking oral hypoglycaemic medication, they should be advised to continue taking their medication even if they are not eating much. If a patient is on insulin, they must not stop it due to the risk of diabetic ketoacidosis.
244
Campylobacter jejuni management
Clarithromycin
245
Signs of digoxin toxicity and management
Anorexia, confusion, nausea/vomiting, gynaecomastia Management: digibind
246
Features of hypothyroidism
BRADYCARDIC Bradycardia Reflexes slowed Ataxia Dru skin/thin hair Yawning Coma Ascites Round puffy eyes Defeated demeanor Immobile Congestive heart failure
247
Management of myoedema coma
Thyroxine and IV hydrocortisone Correct hypoglycaemia Rehydrate and oxygen if needed
248
Management of thyroid storm
IV fluids Beta blocker Digoxin Carbimazole + iodine Hydrocortisone Infection - Abx
249
Most common thyroid cancer in young patients and management
Papillary - thyroidectomy + node excision +/- radio
250
What thyroid cancer is associated with MEN2
Medullary Test for phaechromocytoma
251
What is MODY?
T2DM in young patients
252
LADA?
Autoimmune diabetes developing later in life
253
Differentiating between T1DM and T2DM
C-peptide
254
Diagnosis of diabetes
Fasting >7 Random >11 HbA1C >48 Symptomatic - one test Asymptomatic - two seperate occasion
255
Diagnosing pre-diabetes
6.1-6.9 42-47
256
Antibodies for hashimoto's
Anti-TPO and anti-thyroglobulin
257
Management of myoedema coma and thyrotoxicosis
258
DPP4
Sitagliptin GI upset Pancreatitis
259
Pioglitazone
Thiazolidinedoine Weight gain fluid retention CONTRAINDICATED IN HEART FAILURE INCREASED RISK OF BLADDER CANCER
260
Sulfonylurea
Gliclazide Weight gain Hypoglycaemia
261
SGLT2 inhibitors
Empagliflozin Weight loss urinary and genital infections Normoglycaemic ketoacidosis
262
GLP1 mimetics
Exenatide GI upset Weight loss Risk of hypoglycaemia
263
Investigation of cushings
Dexamethasone suppresion test In pituitary adenoma - ACTH and cortisol will be suppressed
264
Signs and symptoms of adrenal insufficiency
Salt craving Hyperpigmentation of palmar creases Nausea Vomiting Anorexia Hypotension
265
Investigating Addisons
Short synacthin test
266
Management of Addison's
IV hydrocortisone and flurdocortisone
267
Conn's syndrome features
Hypertension Hypokalaemia Metabolic alkalosis
268
Prolactinomas features
Male: galactorrhoea, impotence Female: Amenorrhoea, infertility, galactorrhea
269
Prolactinoma investigation and management
MRI Bromocriptine Transphenoidal surgery
270
Paediatric inguinal hernia
<1 year - high risk of strangulation - refer for urgent surgery over 1 year of age are at lower risk and surgery may be performed electively
271
Peripheral arterial disease
Clopidogrel and statin
272
Ventricular tachycardia: management
Haemodynamically unstable: DC cardioversion Stable: Amiodarone
273
Management of peripheral arterial disease
Statin and clopidogril Exercise
274
PTSD vs acute stress disorder
PTSD >1 month
275
PTSD management
trauma focused CBT and SSRI
276
Acute stress disorder
Trauma focused CBT
277
Management of anorexia nervosa
individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED) Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA) specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). Family therapy in children. CBT second line
278
Bipolar disorder: management
Lithium remains the mood stabilizer of choice. An alternative is valproate management of mania/hypomania consider stopping antidepressant if the patient takes one; antipsychotic therapy e.g. olanzapine or haloperidol management of depression talking therapies (see above); fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice
279
calluses on the knuckles or back of the hand due to repeated self-induced vomiting
Russell's sign
280
De Clerambault's
Erotomania - patient believes a famous person is in love with them
281
Cotard syndrome
Patient believes that they or parts of their body are dead or non-existent
282
S/E of ECT
Short term memory loss Cardiac arrhythmias Nausea Headache memory loss of events prior to ECT
283
Indications and contraindications for ECT
severe depression refractory to medication (e.g. catatonia) those with psychotic symptoms Contraindicated in raised intracranial pressure
284
Meningitis and raised intracranial pressure
Do CT head first
285
Management of Generalised anxiety disorder
NICE suggest a step-wise approach: step 1: education about GAD + active monitoring step 2: low-intensity psychological interventions (individual non-facilitated self-help or individual guided self-help or psychoeducational groups) step 3: high-intensity psychological interventions (cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation) or drug treatment. See drug treatment below for more information step 4: highly specialist input e.g. Multi agency teams Drug treatment NICE suggest sertraline should be considered the first-line SSRI if sertraline is ineffective, offer an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)
286
What are the five stages of grief
Denial: this may include a feeling of numbness and also pseudohallucinations of the deceased, both auditory and visual. Occasionally people may focus on physical objects that remind them of their loved one or even prepare meals for them Anger: Bargaining Depression Acceptance DABDA
287
S/E of lithium
nausea/vomiting, diarrhoea fine tremor nephrotoxicity: polyuria, secondary to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus thyroid enlargement, may lead to hypothyroidism ECG: T wave flattening/inversion weight gain idiopathic intracranial hypertension leucocytosis hyperparathyroidism and resultant hypercalcaemia
288
Lithium monitoring
Check lithium levels 12 hours post dose. weekly until concentrations stable and then every 3 months Thyroid and renal function every 6 months
289
Reversal of opioids
Naloxone
290
Reversal of benzodiazepines
Flumazenil
291
Reversal of TCAs
IV bicarbonate
292
Reversal of lithium
Mild to moderate - IV fluids Severe - haemodialysis
293
TCA S/E
Dry mouth Blurred vision Constipation Urinary retention
294
Features of Addisonian crisis
Hyponatraemia Hyperkalaemia Hypoglycaemia
295
Most common cause of Addison's disease
Autoimmune
296
Causes of SIADH
S - small cell lung cancer I - infection (meningitis, pneumonia) A - abscess (cerebral oedema) D - drugs (carbemazepine, SSRIs H - haemorrhage (subarachnoid)
297
Confirmation of ovulation in investigating infertility
To confirm ovulation: Take the serum progesterone level 7 days prior to the expected next period if menstrual cycle is not 28 days If 28 days - day 21 progesterone
298
Booking visit
8 - 12 weeks (ideally < 10 weeks) Booking bloods/urine FBC, blood group, rhesus status, red cell alloantibodies, haemoglobinopathies hepatitis B, syphilis HIV test is offered to all women urine culture to detect asymptomatic bacteriuria
299
Early scan
11 - 13+6 weeks Early scan to confirm dates, exclude multiple pregnancy Down's syndrome screening including nuchal scan
300
Anomaly scan
18 - 20+6 weeks
301
First dose of Anti-D injection
28 weeks
302
Baby in transverse lie
External cephalic version
303
Amniocentesis time
15 weeks
304
Chorion villus sampling
11-13+6 weeks Transabdominally or transvaginally
305
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension - population and management
Obese females Weight loss Acetazolamide
306
Monochorionic diamniotic management and delivery
scan every 2 weeks 36-37+6
307
Diamniotic dichorionic management and delivery
Scan every 4 weeks 37-38/40
308
Gestational diabetes screening
24-28 weeks OGTT
309
Neonatal hypoglycaemia
Babies need close monitoring for neonatal hypoglycaemia, with regular blood glucose checks and frequent feeds. The aim is to maintain their blood sugar above 2 mmol/l, and if it falls below this, they may need IV dextrose of nasogastric feeding.
310
Gestational hypertension
>20 weeks No proteinuria
311
Folic acid dose and timing
Normal 400mcg - before contraception to 12 weeks >30 BMI, high risk NTD - 5mg before contraception to 12 weeks
312
Signs of labour
Show (mucus plug from the cervix) Rupture of membranes Regular, painful contractions Dilating cervix on examination
313
Di-George Syndrome
CATCH-22 mnemonic: C – Congenital heart disease A – Abnormal facies (characteristic facial appearance) T – Thymus gland incompletely developed C – Cleft palate H – Hypoparathyroidism and resulting Hypocalcaemia 22nd chromosome affected
314
Reactive arthritis
Urethritis Arthritis Conjunctivitis Aseptic joint aspiration with raised WBC
315
How would you manage hyperacute graft rejection
Remove the ting
316
Prophylaxis for contacts of meningitis
Rifampicin or ciprofloxacin
317
Syphillis organism
Trepanema pallidum
318
Bilateral upper and lower motor limb weakness
Rule out hypoglycaemia before doing CT head
319
Treatment of Conn's syndrome due to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
Spironolactone
320
Treatment of Conn's syndrome due to adrenal adenoma
Surgery
321
Side-effects of antipsychotics
Parkinsonism (procyclidine) Tardative diskinesia (tetrabenazine) Acute dystonia (procyclidine) Akisthesia (bisoprolol) Weight gain Reduced seizure threshold Impaired glucose tolerance Increased stroke and VTE Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
322
Treatment of colorectal cancer: sigmoid colon
High anterior resection
323
Treatment of colorectal cancer: low/high rectum
Anterior resection
324
Treatment of colorectal cancer: anal verge
Abdomino-peroneal excision of the rectum
325
Treatment of colorectal cancer: Descending colon
Left hemicolectomy
326
Treatment of colorectal cancer: Caecal, ascending or transverse colon
Right hemicolectomy
327
What is Hartmann's procedure?
Used in emerency situations, where there is bowel perforation and the risk of failure of the colon-to-colon anastamosis is high, a temporary end colostomy is created and reversed at a later date.
328
Most common type of bladder cancer
Transitional cell carcinoma
329
Bladder cancer referral criteria
Aged over 45 with unexplained visible haematuria, either without a UTI or persisting after treatment for a UTI Aged over 60 with microscopic haematuria (not visible but positive on a urine dipstick) PLUS: Dysuria or; Raised white blood cells on a full blood count
330
Diagnosis of bladder cancer
Cystoscopy
331
Management of bladder cancer
Transurethral resection of bladder tumour (TURBT) Radical cystectomy Chemo Radio
332
Successful wide local excision of breast cancer with normal margins and no lymph node metastasis, next step
Radiotherapy to prevent recurrence
333
Bronchiolitis: immediate transfer to hospital if:
Apnoea Grunting Central cyanosis O2 <92 >70 RR
334
Management of intertrochanteric fracture
Dynamic hip screw
335
Management of subtrochanteric fractures
Intramedullary device
336
Management CKD induced proteinuria
ACE inhibitors
337
Triad of infectious mononucleosis and diagnosis
Sore throat, pyrexia and lymphadenopathy Monospot test
338
Management of infectious mononucleiosis
Rest during the early stages, drink plenty of fluid, avoid alcohol simple analgesia for any aches or pains consensus guidance in the UK is to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture
339
Blood transfusion threshold in ACS
80
340
Platelet transfusion threshold
10
341
Herpes and pregnancy
Oral aciclovir until delivery and then c-section
342
Newly diagnosed grave's in primary care
Propranolol
343
Sickle cell crisis
Analgesia Abx Blood transfusion
344
Acute graft failure
Acute graft failure (< 6 months) usually due to mismatched HLA. Cell-mediated (cytotoxic T cells) usually asymptomatic and is picked up by a rising creatinine, pyuria and proteinuria other causes include cytomegalovirus infection may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants
345
Concomitant oral opioids should not be prescribed whilst a patient is using an opioid PCA
:)
346
ASA Grade: Healthy, non-smoking, no or minimal alcohol use
ASA 1
347
ASA Grade: current smoker, social alcohol drinker, pregnancy, obesity (BMI 30 - 40), well-controlled Diabetes Mellitus/Hypertension
ASA 2
348
ASA grade: poorly controlled Diabetes Mellitus/Hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity (BMI > 40), active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history (>3 months) of Myocardial infarction, Cerebrovascular accidents
ASA 3
349
ASA grade: recent (< 3 months) of Myocardial infarction, Cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischaemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis
ASA 4
350
ASA grade: ruptured abdominal/thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intra-cranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology or multiple organ/system dysfunction
ASA 5
351
ASA grade: A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes
ASA 6
352
When do you fix undescended testis?
1 year old
353
Fluid resuscitation in burns
Parkland formula (Crystalloid only e.g. Hartman's solution/Ringers' lactate) Total fluid requirement in 24 hours = 4 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)) 50% given in first 8 hours 50% given in next 16 hours
354
Maintenance fluids in adults
25-30 ml/kg/day of water and approximately 1 mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium and chloride and approximately 50-100 g/day of glucose to limit starvation ketosis
355
Risk of fluid overload in 0.9% sodium chloride
Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis
356
What is cyclothymia?
Milder form of bipolar - hypomania rather than mania and more frequent highs and lows
357
Management of Alzheimer's
Neostigmine Memantine (second-line)
358
Treatment of MRSA
Vancomycin Teicoplanin Linezolid
359
Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis
CREST syndrome: Calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia Anti-centromere antibodies
360
Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis
SCL-70 scleroderma affects trunk and proximal limbs predominately Renal complications - ACE inhibitor
361
Management of gout in renal impairement
Colchicine or intra-articular steroids
362
Abx with risk of tendon ruptures
Quinolones - ciprofloxacin
363
Management of reactive arthritis
NSAIDs
364
Refeeding syndrome
Hypokalaemia Hypophosphotaemia Hypomagnasaemia
365
Types of febrile convulsions
<15 minutes, generalised, no recurrence and complete recovery within an hour. Complex: 15-30 minutes, focal seizure, may repeat within 24 hours Febrile status epilepticus: >30 minutes
366
What is the difference between congenital adrenal hyperplasia and androgen insensitivity syndrome?
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia - lack of 21 hydroxylase enzyme which causes underproduction of cortisol and aldosterone and overproduction of androgens from birth. Abnormal genitalia seen in children. Female features: tall, facial hair, absent periods, deep voice, early puberty. Male features: tall, deep voice, large penis, small testicles, early puberty. Management: cortisol replacement (hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Androgen insensitivity syndrome - XY but externally female. Amenorrhoea, Raised LH Normal or raised FSH Normal or raised testosterone levels (for a male) Raised oestrogen levels (for a male) Management: bilateral orchidectomy, oestrogen therapy.
367
Management for crohn's
Inducing: Oral pred Mesalazine Azathio or mercapto/ methotrexate Maintaning: aza/mercapto
368
Management for UC
UC management: inducing remission. Mesalazine (first-line) (oral or rectal) Prednisolone (second line) Maintaining remission: Mesalazine (oral or rectal) Azathioprine or mercaptopurine
369
Meningitis in children <3months
Group B strep E.coli
370
Mumps complications
Orchitis Pancreatitis Parotitis SSNHL Meningitis
371
Scarlet fever management
Pen V for 10 days
372
Neonatal hypoglycaemia management
Management depends on the severity of the hypoglycaemia and if the newborn is symptomatic * asymptomatic o encourage normal feeding (breast or bottle) o monitor blood glucose * symptomatic or very low blood glucose o admit to the neonatal unit o intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose
373
Kawasaki's management
High dose aspirin and IV immunoglobulins
374
Myasthenic crisis management
Plasmaphoresis and IV Immunoglobulins
375
Gullian- barre management
IV immunoglobulins
376
Wernicke's encephalopathy
CAN OPEN Confusion Ataxia Nystagmus Ophthamoplegia PEripheral Neuropathy
377
IgA vs post-streptococcus
IgA= three letters= 3 days Post-streptococcal = 17 letter = (2-3 weeks)
378
>1 cm growth aneurysm asymptomatic management
Elective vascular surgery not urgent
379
HIV - lung infection and prophylaxis
Pneumocistic jirovecii - co-trimoxazole
380
At what point should a second drug (in combination with metformin) be added to lower this patient's HbA1c?
>58
381
Side effect of anastrazole
Osteoporosis
382
Haemodynamically unstable AF >48 hours
DC cardioversion
383
Seborrhoeic dermatitis - features and management
Features eczematous lesions on the sebum-rich areas: scalp (may cause dandruff), periorbital, auricular and nasolabial folds otitis externa and blepharitis may develop Face and body management topical antifungals: e.g. ketoconazole topical steroids: best used for short periods