Pleura, Chest Wall, and Miscellaneous Disorders Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

What is the most common benign manifestation of asbestos inhalation?

A

Pleural plaques.

20 to 30 years after initial asbestos exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pleural plaques secondary to asbestosis affects what layer of the pleura?

A

Parietal pleural.

Most common over the diaphragm and lower posterolateral chest wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pleural plaques secondary to interstitial fibrosis affects what layer of the pleura?

A

Visceral pleural.

Along the the major fissures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most common thoracic manifestation of asbestos inhalation?

A

Pleural plaques.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common pulmonary manifestation of asbestosis?

A

Rounded atelectasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the earliest manifestation of the asbestos-related pleural disease?

A

Pleural effusion.
10-20 years after initial exposure.
NOTE: if pleural effusion develops after >20 years, evaluate for mesothelioma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the term for diffuse pleural thickening involving >1/4 of the costal pleural surface?

A

Fibrothorax.
Involve both parietal and visceral pleural.
Follows asbestosis-related pleural effusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is dose related complication of asbestosis?

a. Pleural plaques.
b. Mesothelioma.

A

Mesothelioma.

Pleural plaques are dose related.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most widely used form of asbestos?

A

Chrysotile.

Another form of asbestos is crocidolite.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the imaging features of the malignant mesothelioma?

A

Thick (>1 cm) and nodular diffuse pleural thickening.
Calcification.
Pleural effusion.
Malignant involvement of the mediastinal pleura.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common cause of transudative pleural effusion?

A

Congestive heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the 3 stages of the parapneumonic effusion.

A

Exudative stage: visceral pleural inflammation resulting to increasing capillary permeability.
Fibrinopurulent stage: fibrin deposits which impairs fluid resorption and produces loculations.
Parapneumonic effusion: pleural fibrosis and lung entrapment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the 3 stages of the parapneumonic effusion.

A

Exudative stage: visceral pleural inflammation resulting to increasing capillary permeability.
Fibrinopurulent stage: fibrin deposits which impairs fluid resorption and produces loculations.
Parapneumonic effusion: pleural fibrosis and lung entrapment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe split pleural sign.

A

Split pleural sign: individual visualization of the enhancing visceral and parietal pleural separated by a empyema. Useful sign to differentiate empyema from pulmonary abscess.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of pleural effusion is associated with Meig’s Syndrome?

A

Transudative.

Benign pleural effusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where would be the chylothorax when the thoracic duct is disrupted on its upper segment?

A

Left.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where would be the chylothorax when the thoracic duct is disrupted on its lower segment?

A

Right.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the signs of pneumothorax on supine radiograph?

A

Hyperlucent upper abdomen.
Deep sulcus sign.
Double diaphragm sign.
Epicardial fat pad sign.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most common cause of primary or spontaneous pneumothorax?

A

Marfan syndrome.

In young and middle-aged men.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most common predisposing condition for secondary pneumothorax?

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most common laterality of unilateral pleural effusion.

A

Right-sided pleural effusion.

21
Q

Differentiate a medially-retracted lung versus fallen-lung sign.

A

Fallen lung sign: lateral displacement of atelectatic lung, due to disruption of the proximal bronchi secondary to trauma.

Medially retracted lung: seen in the tension pneumothorax.

22
Q

Pleural calcification secondary to hemothorax and empyema involves what layer?

A

Visceral pleura.

23
Q

Unilateral absence of sternocostal head of the pectoralis major, rib anomalies, and syndactyly.

A

Poland syndrome.

24
What is the most common benign tumor of the chest wall?
Lipoma.
25
What is the most common malignant soft tissue neoplasm of the chest wall?
Sarcomas.
26
What is the rib morphology associated with neurofibromatosis?
Ribbon ribs. | Due to erosion of neurofibroma.
27
Most common cause of bilateral inferior rib notching.
Coarctation of aorta. Juxta ductal type. Rib notching rare in <7 years of age. First two ribs are uninvolved.
28
What are some of the causes of unilateral rib notching?
1. SCA obstruction. | 2. Blalock-Taussig procedure.
29
What are some of the condition associated with superior rib notching?
Paralysis. Rheumatoid arthritis. Systemic lupus erythematosis.
30
What is the most common benign neoplasm of the ribs in adults?
Osteochondroma (exostoses).
31
What is the most common rib malignancy?
Chondrosarcoma.
32
Deformity produced by an elevated and hypoplastic scapula?
Sprengel deformity.
33
Sprengel deformity + omovertebral bone.
Klippel-Feil syndrome.
34
Discuss winged scapula.
Superiorly displaced scapula. Foreshortened appearance on radiograph. Results from disruption of innervation of serratus anterior muscle.
35
Partial or complete aplasia of the clavicle.
Cleidocranial dysostosis.
36
What is the most commonly fractured segment of the clavicle?
Distal third.
37
Differentiate the erosion from rheumatoid arthritis versus from hyperparathyroidism.
RA: distal clavicle is sharply defined and tapers to a point. HyperPTH: widened and irregular.
38
What is the characteristic appearance of the vertebra with sickle-cell anemia?
H-shaped vertebra. | Lincoln Log appearance.
39
What is the characteristic appearance of the vertebra with renal osteodystrophy?
Rugger jersey sign. | Different from the "sandwich vertebrae" of osteopetrosis.
40
What are the imaging findings of pectus excavatum?
1. Heart displaced on the left. 2. Loss of right heart border. 3. Vertically oriented anterior ribs. 4. Medial breast margin sign.
41
Discuss the fluoroscopic or ultrasonographic sniff test.
Positive if there is paradoxical superior movement of the diaphragm with sniffing (due to negative intrathoracic pressure on flaccid diaphragm). Seen in idiopathic phrenic nerve dysfunction.
42
What is the most common diaphragmatic hernia?
Esophageal hernia. | Herniation of the a portion of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus.
43
Discuss Bochdalek hernia.
Persistence of foramen of Bochdalek, defect in the site of embryonic pleuroperitoneal canal. Most common in the left side. Appear as posterolateral mass above the left hemidipahragm.
44
Discuss Morgani hernia.
Defect in the parasternal portion of the diaphragm. Right sided. Appear as cardiophrenic angle mass.
45
What is the most common side of injury of the diaphragm.
Left side. | Liver receives traumatic forces in the right.
46
What are some CT findings suggestive of traumatic diaphragmatic injury.
1. Thickening or retraction of diaphragm away from the site of injury. 2. "Collar" or "waist" sign: narrowing or waist of the diaphragm. 3. "Dependent viscera" sign: contact between the posterior rib and liver or stoamch.
47
What are the imaging findings of the radiation-induced lung disease?
1. Sharply marginated, localized area of airspace opacification that does not conform to the lobar/segmental anatomic boundaries. 2. Adhesive atelectasis due to loss of surfactant by damaging type 2 pneumocytes.
48
Rheumatoid arthritis and SLE produce what type of pleural effusion?
Exudative pleural effusion.
49
What does the presence of air-fluid level in post-pneumonectomy space suggest?
Bronchopleural fistula.