PMLS 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Is the process of collecting blood using Incision or puncture method, also called Venesection?

A

Phlebotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Used leeches for bloodletting or micro surgical replantation

A

Leeching or Hyrudotheraphy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Performed bloodletting to treat illness

A

Barber-surgeon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Greek word: Plebos which means?

A

Vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Greek word: Temnien which means?

A

to cut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In stone Ages they used this to cut vessles and drain blood

A

Crude Tools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

They practice phlebotomy as Bloodletting

A

Ancient Egyptians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Greek Physician that believes in Four Humors

A

Hippocrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

WHAT ARE THE FOUR HUMOR AND THEIR HEALTH BALANCED

A

EARTH- blood and brain
WATER-yellow bile and gallbladder
AIR- phlegm and lungs
FIRE- blackbile and spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

alternative med to ease the pain and inflammation

A

Cupping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

WHAT ARE THE BASIC CONCEPT OF COMMUNICATION IN HEALTH CARE SETTING?

A

VERBAL COMMUNICATION
NON-VERBAL COMMUNICATION
ACTIVE LISTENING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

AN INSTITUTION THAT HAS PERMANENT INPATIENT BED WITH 24 -HOUR SERVICE

A

HOSPITAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Size differences of the RBCs

A

RED BLOOD CELL DISTRIBUTION WIDTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

WHAT IS THE TWO MAJOR AREA IN CLINICAL ANALYSIS AREAS IN LABORATORY?

A

Anatomical and Surgical Pathology
Clinical Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This clinical area performs the blood and blood forming tissue

A

Hematology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

hemoglobin level and red cell count

A

Hct or Hematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Values that rule out anemia

A

Hgb or Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Erythropoetic activity

A

red Blood Cell Count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

leukocyte response

A

WHITE BLOOD CELL COUNT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

chemotherapy and radiation conditions

A

platelet count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

changes in the appearance or quantity of specific cell type

A

Differential white blood cell count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

show the changes in RBC size, wieght, and Hgb content

A

Indices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Weight of the Hgb in the Cell

A

MEAN CORPUSCULAR HEMOGLOBIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

to determine the size of the cell

A

MEAN CORPUSCULAR VOLUME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

concentration of the hemoglobin per unit volume of RBCs

A

MEAN CORPUSCULAR HEMOGLOBIN CONCENTRATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

THIS IS THE ABILITY OF BLOOD TO FORM AND DISSOLVE CLOTS

A

COAGULATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Liver diseases or deficiency in Vit. K

A

Prothrombin Time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Fibrinogen Level in the blood

A

Fibrinogen Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Amount of fibrin degradation products in the blood

A

Fibrin Split products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Thrombin and Plasnin activity

A

D-dimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

adequacy of heparin activity

A

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Amounts of certain chemical in the blood sample

A

Chemistry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

user to check for anemia and diseases of the small intestine

A

Vitamin B12 amd Folate Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

check levels that indicates gout and renal problem

A

Uric acid test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

early diagnosis of small myocardial infarction

A

Troponin 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

serve as index in the evaluation of atherosclerosis and lipid metabolism disorder

A

Triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

to check liver and kidney disorders

A

total protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Screens patient for the presence of prostate cancer

A

Prostate specific antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

check lungs, kidney and liver dysfunction

A

Lactate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

determine glycosylated hgb level

A

Hemoglobin A1C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Liver Damage

A

Alanine aminotransferace Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Alpha-fetoprotein levels in pregnant women

A

Alpha-fetoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

amount of alkaline phosphatase enzyme in the blood stream

A

Alkaline Phosphatase Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

shows the level that could lead to either pancreatitis or pancreatic carcinoma

A

Lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

could indicate cirrhosis and hepatitis

A

ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

could indicate liver disease cholesystisis

A

amylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

used to check diabetes

A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

shows the sodium values

A

Electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

monitors therapeutic range to avoid toxic levels for drugs

A

Drug Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

to indicate renal impairment or muscular dystrophy

A

Creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

check muscle damage

A

Creatinine Kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Shows adrenal hypo and hyperfunction

A

Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

indicates risk of cardiovascular disease

A

Total Cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Amount of Calcium in the blood

A

Blood Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

to help diagnose and manage certain type of cancer

A

Carcinoembryonic Antigen Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

level of CRP

A

C-reactive Protein High Sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

acid base balance by measuring the pH, partial pressure of the carbon dioxide and oxygen

A

Arterial Blood Gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Serum and autoimmune reactions in the blood

A

Serology and Immunology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the studies of serology and immunology

A

Bacterial Studies
Viral Studies
General Studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The hormone is present when patient is pregnant

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

screens human immunodeficiency virus

A

Anti-HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

a confirmatory test for CMV antibody

A

Cyromegalovirus Antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

indicates rheumatoid arthritis

A

Rheumatoid Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

when positive , it indicative syphilis but still need confirmation

A

Rapid Plasma Reagin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

confirms Syphilis

A

FTA-ABS

66
Q

shows the presence of antibodies to specific organisms

A

Febrile Agglutination Test

67
Q

check cases of atypical

A

Cold Agglutination

68
Q

Test urine specimen

A

Urinalysis

69
Q

3 division of Urinalysis

A

Physical Evaluation
Chemical Evaluation
Microscopic Evaluation

70
Q

hematuria could be due to hemorrhage, infection, or trauma

A

blood

71
Q

helps differentiate between obstructive jaundice and hemolytic jaundice

A

Bilirubin

72
Q

Glucosoria maybe result of diabetes mellitus, renal impairment

A

Glucose

73
Q

unconteolled diabetes

A

Ketones

74
Q

Indicates UTI a lot of Neutrophils

A

Leukocyte

75
Q

indicates acid base balance

A

pH

76
Q

microorganisms in body fluids and tissue

A

Microbiology

77
Q

Etiology unknown intestinal disorders

A

Ova and Parasite

78
Q

allow microbial therapy while waiting for culture results

A

gram stain

79
Q

if there is a growth of pathogenic microorganisms

A

Culture and sensitivity

80
Q

shows the presence of helicobacter pylori

A

Campylobacter-like Organism Test

81
Q

indicative of Bacteremia or septicaemia

A

blood culture

82
Q

blood for transfusion

A

Blood bank/Immunohematology

83
Q

What are the blood bank tests?

A

Antibody Screen
Direct antihuman-globulin test
ABO and Rh Type
Type and Crossmatch
Compatibility Testing

84
Q

When Microorganisms invades the body

A

Infection

85
Q

disease causing microbe

A

Pathogen

86
Q

Can spread thru person to person

A

Communicable Disease

87
Q

usually caused by infected personnel, patients, visitors, food, drugs or equipment

A

Healthcare-associated infection

88
Q

usually caused by infected personnel, patients, visitors, food, drugs or equipment

A

Healthcare-associated infection

89
Q

Pathogenic microbe such as virus, bacteria, fungus, protozoa, and rickettsia

A

Infectious Agent

90
Q

place where the microbe could grow

A

Reservoir

91
Q

wherein infectious agent can leave

A

Exit Pathway

92
Q

Airborne, direct or indirect contact, droplets, vector and vehicle

A

Means of transmission

93
Q

An infectious Agent enters a host

A

Entry Pathway

94
Q

Who is prone to infection

A

Susceptible Host

95
Q

Essential Part of standard precautions

A

Hand Hygiene

96
Q

2 methods of Hand Hygiene

A

Routine Hand washing
Hand Antisepsis

97
Q

Proper Donning

A

Lab gown
Cap
Facemask
Gloves

98
Q

Proper Doffing

A

Gloves
Gown
Cap
Face Mask

99
Q

what are the blood borne pathogen?

A

Hepatitis B Virus
Hepatitis D Virus
Hepatitis C Virus

100
Q

Refers to any material that could be harmful to ones health

A

Biohazard

101
Q

Used to prevent and protect clinical laboratories crom harmful incident caused by laboratory specimen that are potentially hazard

A

Biosafety

102
Q

Biohazard Symbol and Radiation Symbol

A

Draw it in bond paper

103
Q

biohazard exposure routes

A

Airborne
Ingestion
Non-intact skin
Percutaneous
Permucosal

104
Q

How to prevent airborne disease

A

1.Observed proper handling practices
2. Wear PPE Properly
3. Use safety shield and guards

105
Q

How to prevent Ingestion disease

A
  1. Wash hand properly
  2. Avoid Hand to mouth Activity
  3. avoid placing item in the mouth
106
Q

How to prevent Non-intact skin disease

A
  1. Cover skin breaks or cuts with non-permeable
107
Q

How to prevent percutaneous disease

A
  1. use needle safety device
  2. wear heavy duty utility gloves when cleaning broken glass
  3. never never handle broken glass with bare hands
108
Q

How to prevent Permucosal Disease

A
  1. Observe proper handling to avoid aerosols and splashes
  2. avoid rubbing and touching eyes, nose, and mouth
109
Q

potential hazard dealing with electrical equipment

A

Electric Shock

110
Q

Potential Hazard Dealing with fire

A

Fire

111
Q

Five Classes of Fire

A

A-WATER BASED
B-BLOCKING OXYGEN TO SNUFF OUT
C-NON-CONDUCTING AGENT
D-POWDER AGENT IR SAND
K-AGENTS THAT PREVENT SPLASHING, COOLING AND SMOOTHERING FIRE

112
Q

Should never be done in storing chemicals

A
  1. storing chemicals above eye level
  2. adding water to acid
  3. Mixing chemicals indiscriminately
  4. Storing chemical in unlabeled containers
  5. Pouring chemicals into used or dirty containers
  6. using chemicals in ways other than their intended uses
113
Q

Symptoms of Shock

A

pale, clammy skin, rapid and weak pulse, increase and shallow breathing, expression less face and blank stare

114
Q

done in a person suffering from cardiac arrest

A

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

115
Q

Component of Personal Wellness

A

Personal Hygiene
Proper Nutrition
Enough Sleep
Regular exercise
Proper Post
Time to Relax

116
Q

How to use Fire Extinguisher

A

PASS
PULL
AIM AT BASE OF FIRE
SQUEEZE HANDLE
SWEEP SIDE TO SIDE

117
Q

Responsible for transporting throughout the body oxygenated blood from the heart ang lungs via arteries

A

Circulatory System

118
Q

Main Components of Circulatory System

A

Cardiovascular System
Lymphatic System

119
Q

Give me the Four Chamber of Heart

A

LEFT ATRIUM
RIGHT ATRIUM
LEFT VENTRICLE
RIGHT VENTRICLE

120
Q

it is a fluid filled sac that Sorrounded the four chamber of heart

A

Pericardium

121
Q

Enumerate the layers of the heart

A

Epicardium
Myocardium
Endocardium

122
Q

Lines the valves and interior Chambers this is the thin layer of epithelial cell the inner layer of the heart

A

Endocardium

123
Q

Pumps the blood into the arteries by contracting this is the thick layer cardiac muscles in the middle layer of the heart

A

Myocardium

124
Q

thin watery membrane on the outer layer of the heart and covers the heart and is attached to pericardium

A

Epicardium

125
Q

Upper right chamber, recieved deoxygenated blood in the body

A

Right Atrium

126
Q

Lower Right chamber, recieves blood form the right atrium and pumps it into the pulmonary artery

A

Right Ventricle

127
Q

Upper lEft chamber, recieves oxygenated blood from the Lungs and oumps it into the left ventricle

A

Left Atrium

128
Q

Lower left chamber and it recieves blood from the left atrium and pumps it into the aorta

A

Left Ventricle

129
Q

aortic valve located at the entrance of the aorta it closes the left ventricle relaxes Preventing blood from flowing back to the left ventricle

A

Left Semilunar valve

130
Q

Pulmonary or pulmonic valve located at the entrance of the pulmonary artery it closes when right ventricle relaxes preventing blood from flowing back to the right ventricle

A

Right Semilunar valve

131
Q

bicuspid or mitral valve located between the left atrium and the left ventricle

A

left av valve

132
Q

tricuspid valve between the right atrium and right ventricle it closes the right ventricle contracts preventing from to the right atrium

A

Right AV valve

133
Q

partition that separates the right form left atria

A

Interatrial septum

134
Q

separates the right and left ventricle

A

Interventincular Septum

135
Q

heart recieves blood supply through the left and right coronary arteries and the coronaey veins returns oxygen-depleted blood form the heart muscle back tto the heart

A

Coronary Circulation

136
Q

Systole and Diastole

A

Cardiac Cycle

137
Q

Send electric impulses throughout the myocardium

A

Electrical conduction system

138
Q

Represents of the cardiac cycles activity

A

Electrocardiogram

139
Q

Lubb Dupp

A

Origin of the hearts sound

140
Q

The average rate is 72 bpm and the cardiac outout refers to the volume of bloob pumped per minutes

A

Heart rate or cardiac output

141
Q

a rhythmic throbbing resulting from the alternating expansion and contraction of the artery

A

pulse

142
Q

exerted by the blood on walls of the vessel measure by sphygmomanometer

A

blood pressure

143
Q

Inflammation of pericardial sac

A

pericarditis

144
Q

known as heart attack

A

myocardial infarction

145
Q

chronic progresaive condition that affects the pumping power of the heart muscle

A

congestive heart failure

146
Q

bacteria enter and resides in the heart lining

A

Bacterial Endocarditis

147
Q

murmuring sound

A

aortic stenosis

148
Q

chest pain resulting from reduced blood flow to the heart

A

Angina Pectoris

149
Q

List of diagnosis for heart disease

A

Arterial Blood Gases
Aspartate aminotransferace
Cholesterol
Creatinine Kinase
Digoxin
ECG
LDH LACTATE DEHYDROGENASE ISOENZYMES
microbial cultures
myoglobin
potassium
Triglycerides
Troponnin T

150
Q

Is the loop consisting of a network of blood vessels through which blood is circulated to the rest of body

A

Vascular System

151
Q

2 Main Division of Vascular system

A

Pulmonary Circulation
Systemic Circulation

152
Q

Moves the blood between the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs

A

Pulmonary Circulation

153
Q

Moves the oxygenated blood and nutrients from the ventricle of the heart to the rest of the body

A

Systemic Circulation

154
Q

What are the structures of the heart

A

Arteries
Arterioles
Veins
Venules
Capillaries

155
Q

Fine hair-like blood vessles that connect arterioles and veins

A

Capillaries

156
Q

Very small vein that collect blood from the capillaries

A

Venules

157
Q

Tube with thin walls that carry deoxygenated blood from tissue to the heart

A

Veins

158
Q

Small diametet blood vessels that branch out from the arteries and lead to the capillaries

A

Arterioles

159
Q

Thick walled blood vessels that carry oxygen-rich blood from the heat to the tissues of the body

A

Arteries

160
Q

blood vessel structure

A

Layer (Tunica adventitia, Tunica media, Tunica intima)
Lumen
Valves

161
Q

space inside the blood vessel where the blood flow

A

Lumen

162
Q

Found in the vein these are thin Membranous leaflets that prevent backflow of blood

A

Valve