PMP Certification Flashcards

ALL (346 cards)

1
Q

What are activity attributes in project management?

A

Detailed info about each activity, such as duration, constraints, predecessors, and more. (Define activities)

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2
Q

What is the activity list used for?

A

A comprehensive list of all activities involved in the project. (Define activities)

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3
Q

What is tracked in the assumption log?

A

All assumptions and constraints relevant to the project. (Develop project charter)

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4
Q

What does the basis of estimates describe?

A

How estimates for schedule, cost, and resources were made, including confidence level and ranges. (Estimate activity duration, estimate costs, estimate activity resources)

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5
Q

What does the change log record?

A

The status and details of all change requests processed or being processed. (Perform integrated change control)

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6
Q

What are cost estimates in a project?

A

Estimated cost for each individual activity. (Estimate costs)

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7
Q

What are cost forecasts used for?

A

Predicts final project cost based on current performance. (Control costs)

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8
Q

What are duration estimates?

A

Time required to complete each activity. (Estimate activity durations)

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9
Q

What is the issue log?

A

A list of project issues with details like status, priority, and resolution. (Direct and manage project work)

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10
Q

What is in the lessons learned register?

A

A collection of lessons captured throughout the project. (Manage project knowledge)

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11
Q

What is a milestone list?

A

Describes major milestones and their significance in the project. (Define activities)

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12
Q

What are physical resource assignments?

A

Allocation of physical resources to specific tasks or work packages. (Acquire resources)

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13
Q

What are project calendars?

A

Calendar showing working days, holidays, and resource availability. (Develop schedule)

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14
Q

What is project communication documentation?

A

Communications based on the plan, covering methods, frequency, and responsible parties. (Manage communications)

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15
Q

What does the project schedule include?

A

A full breakdown of tasks with charts and network diagrams to track progress. (Develop schedule)

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16
Q

What is a project schedule network diagram?

A

A visual showing activity relationships and critical path. (Sequence activities)

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17
Q

What is included in the project scope statement?

A

A clear description of deliverables and boundaries for the project/phase. (Define scope)

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18
Q

What are project team assignments?

A

Assignment of team members to tasks or work packages. (Acquire resources)

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19
Q

What are quality control measurements?

A

Results from the control quality process to check compliance with standards. (Control quality)

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20
Q

What are quality metrics?

A

Specific attributes used to assess whether quality requirements are met. (Plan quality management)

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21
Q

What does a quality report include?

A

Info on quality issues and improvement recommendations. (Manage quality)

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22
Q

What is requirements documentation?

A

Describes all stakeholder requirements for the project. (Collect requirements)

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23
Q

What is a requirements traceability matrix?

A

Table linking requirements to their origins and tracking throughout the project. (Collect requirements)

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24
Q

What is a resource breakdown structure?

A

Categorized view of all project resources by type. (Estimate activity resources)

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25
What do resource calendars show?
Availability of human and physical resources. (Acquire resources)
26
What are resource requirements?
Details the type and quantity of resources needed per task. (Estimate activity resources)
27
What is a risk register?
List of all identified risks and planned responses. (Identify risks)
28
What is a risk report?
Summary of overall project risk exposure. (Identify risks)
29
What is schedule data?
Info used to create the project schedule including assumptions and constraints. (Develop schedule)
30
What are schedule forecasts?
Predictions of project completion date based on current progress. (Control schedule)
31
What is the stakeholder register?
List of all stakeholders with info like roles, influence, and communication needs. (Identify stakeholders)
32
What is a team charter?
Ground rules and values that guide team behavior and decision-making. (Plan resource management)
33
What are test and evaluation documents used for?
Tools for validating and evaluating deliverables. (Manage quality)
34
What is a project?
A temporary effort to create a unique product, service, or result. (PM + Terms)
35
What is project management?
Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to meet project goals. (PM + Terms)
36
What is program management?
Coordinated management of related projects to gain benefits not possible individually. (PM + Terms)
37
What is portfolio management?
Managing grouped projects/programs to meet strategic objectives. (PM + Terms)
38
What is a phase in project management?
A logical group of related activities that results in deliverables. (PM + Terms)
39
What is a deliverable?
A unique, verifiable product, result, or service produced by the project. (PM + Terms)
40
What is the project life cycle?
The stages a project passes through from start to completion. (PM + Terms)
41
What are the two types of project life cycles?
Predictive or Adaptive. (PM + Terms)
42
What is project governance?
A framework for decision-making on a project. (PM + Terms)
43
What are the 3 pillars of project governance?
Structure, Information, People (SIPs). (PM + Terms)
44
Who are stakeholders in a project?
Anyone who may affect, be affected by, or perceive to be affected by the project. (PM + Terms)
45
Who are examples of key stakeholders?
Project Manager, Customer, Team, Sponsor, Functional Managers. (PM + Terms)
46
What is a milestone in a project?
A significant event or achievement marking progress or completion. (PM + Terms)
47
What does task duration refer to?
The amount of time needed to complete a specific task. (PM + Terms)
48
What is a Project Management Office (PMO)?
An organization that standardizes processes and shares tools/resources. (PM + Terms)
49
What does a program manager do?
Oversees multiple projects, senior to PM, resolves project-level conflicts. (PM + Terms)
50
What are functional organizations?
Teams grouped by area of expertise, reporting to functional managers. (PM + Terms)
51
What are matrix organizations?
Mixed authority between PM and functional manager: weak, balanced, strong. (PM + Terms)
52
What are project-oriented organizations?
PM holds full authority, team is assigned full-time to the project. (PM + Terms)
53
What are the 4 types of organizational structures?
Functional, Matrix, Project-Oriented, Hybrid. (PM + Terms)
54
What are the 6 project constraints?
Scope, Schedule, Cost, Risk, Quality, Resources. (PM + Terms)
55
What are the 5 focus areas of a project?
Resources, Communications, Risk, Procurement, Stakeholder Engagement. (PM + Terms)
56
What is the predictive approach?
Linear, detailed planning up front, controlled execution, limited flexibility. (PM + Terms)
57
What is the adaptive approach?
Iterative, flexible, customer-focused, continuous feedback and improvements. (PM + Terms)
58
What is product management?
Strategic planning and lifecycle management of a product or service. (PM + Terms)
59
What is project management?
Managing the successful execution of a project within scope, time, and budget. (PM + Terms)
60
What are risks in a project?
Potential future events that may impact project success. (PM + Terms)
61
What are issues in project management?
Problems that arise during a project and may hinder progress or objectives. (PM + Terms)
62
What are assumptions in project planning?
Beliefs accepted as true for planning and decision-making. (PM + Terms)
63
What are constraints in a project?
Limitations or restrictions that impact project planning or execution. (PM + Terms)
64
What are principles in project management?
Foundational guidelines for decision-making and problem-solving. (PM + Principles)
65
What is stewardship in a project context?
Acting with integrity, care, and compliance to carry out responsibilities. (PM + Principles)
66
What 3 factors affect project teams?
Team agreements, organizational structure, and defined processes. (PM + Principles)
67
What is value in a project?
The ultimate indicator of project success. (PM + Principles)
68
What is the purpose of developing a project charter?
To formally authorize a project or phase. (Initiation)
69
What are the two key business documents for the project charter?
The business case and benefits management plan. (Initiation)
70
What are business documents in project initiation?
Justify why a project should be started. (Initiation)
71
What is a business case?
Justifies project investment—based on demand, requests, needs, or requirements. (Initiation)
72
What is a project benefits management plan?
Outlines the expected benefits and how to measure them. (Initiation)
73
What are agreements in project management?
Contracts between internal or external parties. (Initiation)
74
What information does the project charter document contain and do (when enacted)?
Formally authorizes the project, names the PM, outlines scope, budget, risks, and purpose. (Initiation)
75
What is an assumption log?
A list of assumed truths and constraints affecting the project. (Initiation)
76
What is stakeholder analysis?
Identifies stakeholders and evaluates their interest and influence. (Identify Stakeholders)
77
What is an example of upward influence in a project?
Senior management. (Identify Stakeholders)
78
What is an example of downward influence?
Team members. (Identify Stakeholders)
79
What is an example of outward influence?
Vendors, government, public, or end-users. (Identify Stakeholders)
80
What is an example of sideward influence?
Peers such as other project managers. (Identify Stakeholders)
81
What are the 3 criteria in the Salience Model?
Power, Urgency, and Legitimacy. (Identify Stakeholders)
82
What are the 3 criteria in the Stakeholder Cube?
Interest, Power, and Influence. (Identify Stakeholders)
83
What is the output of the Identify Stakeholders process?
Stakeholder Register. (Identify Stakeholders)
84
What is the project management plan?
Describes how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed. (Develop Project Management)
85
What are the 4 baselines in the project management plan?
Scope, Schedule, Cost, and Performance Measurement. (Develop Project Management)
86
What is product scope?
Features and functions of the product, service, or result. (Plan Scope Management)
87
What is project scope?
The work needed to deliver the product with defined features and functions. (Plan Scope Management)
88
What is gold plating in project management?
Doing extra work beyond the scope. (Plan Scope Management)
89
What is scope creep?
Unauthorized work added to the project scope. (Plan Scope Management)
90
What is the scope management plan?
Describes how scope will be defined, monitored, controlled, and verified. (Plan Scope Management)
91
What is the requirements management plan?
Explains how requirements will be documented, analyzed, and managed. (Plan Scope Management)
92
What is the collect requirements process?
Identifying, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs. (Collect Requirements)
93
What is an affinity diagram?
A tool for grouping and sorting large sets of ideas. (Collect Requirements)
94
What are context diagrams used for?
Visual representation of system interactions with people and processes. (Collect Requirements)
95
What is requirement documentation?
Describes how and why each requirement will be fulfilled. (Collect Requirements)
96
What are examples of requirement documentation components?
Includes stakeholder needs, acceptance criteria, quality needs, objectives, legal/ethical compliance. (Collect Requirements)
97
What is a requirement traceability matrix?
Table linking requirements to their origins to manage changes. (Collect Requirements)
98
What does the define scope process involve?
Creating a detailed description of the project and product. (Define Scope)
99
What is product analysis?
In-depth understanding of the product to improve focus, knowledge, and requirement clarity. (Define Scope)
100
What is the project scope statement?
Detailed outline of deliverables and work needed, helping manage scope and reduce risk. (Define Scope)
101
What 4 details should the project scope statement include?
Product description, project goals, identified risks, acceptance criteria, and constraints/exclusions. (Define Scope)
102
What is the Create WBS process?
Breaking down deliverables and work into smaller, manageable parts. (Create WBS)
103
What are the inputs to the WBS process?
Project management plan, scope statement, requirement documentation, EEFs, and OPAs. (Create WBS)
104
What are the 3 components of the scope baseline?
Project scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary. (Create WBS)
105
What is the WBS dictionary?
A document detailing the content of each WBS element. (Create WBS)
106
What is the Define Activities process?
Identifying and documenting specific actions to complete deliverables. (Define Activities)
107
What is the activity list?
A full list of all scheduled activities for the project. (Define Activities)
108
What is the Sequence Activities process?
Identifying and documenting relationships between project activities. (Sequence Activities)
109
What is the Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)?
Graph showing the flow and sequence of project activities. (Sequence Activities)
110
What are mandatory dependencies (hard logic)?
Work must be completed before the next can begin (e.g., foundation before building walls). (Sequence Activities)
111
What are discretionary dependencies (soft logic)?
Activities linked by best practices or preference, not necessity (e.g., painting and carpeting). (Sequence Activities)
112
What is a lead in scheduling?
The amount of time a successor activity can start before its predecessor finishes. (Sequence Activities)
113
What is a lag in scheduling?
A delay between the end of one activity and the start of the next. (Sequence Activities)
114
What is analogous estimating (top-down)?
Uses historical data to estimate time, cost, or effort. Less accurate but quicker and cheaper. (Estimate Activity)
115
What is parametric estimating?
Uses statistical relationships (e.g., cost per sq ft) for calculating estimates. (Estimate Activity)
116
What is a three-point estimate (PERT)?
Expected duration = (Optimistic + Pessimistic + 4×Most Likely)/6. (Estimate Activity)
117
What is bottom-up estimating?
Estimating each task individually in detail, then rolling it up. (Estimate Activity)
118
What is the Develop Schedule process?
Builds the project schedule by analyzing sequences, durations, and resource needs. (Develop Schedule)
119
What is schedule network analysis?
Uses tools like critical path, what-if, and resource optimization to calculate schedule timelines. (Develop Schedule)
120
What are resource optimization techniques?
Balancing resource usage to avoid over-allocation (e.g., resource leveling). (Develop Schedule)
121
What is the Critical Chain Method?
A scheduling method that emphasizes resource availability and constraints when planning. (Develop Schedule)
122
What is crashing in project scheduling?
Adding resources to shorten activity duration; increases cost and may raise risk. (Develop Schedule)
123
What is fast tracking in project scheduling?
Performing activities in parallel to save time; can increase risk of rework. (Develop Schedule)
124
What does the project schedule include?
Start and end dates for the project and activities; can range from high-level to detailed with assigned resources. (Develop Schedule)
125
What is the Plan Cost Management process?
Defines how costs will be estimated, budgeted, managed, and controlled. (Plan Cost Management)
126
What is value engineering?
Finding a less costly way to achieve project goals without compromising scope. (Plan Cost Management)
127
What is the Estimate Costs process?
Approximating the cost of resources needed to complete the work. (Estimate Costs)
128
What are definitive estimates?
Estimates with a range of –5% to +10%. (Estimate Costs)
129
What are budget estimates?
Estimates with a range of –10% to +25%. (Estimate Costs)
130
What are rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimates?
Broad estimates ranging from –25% to +75%. (Estimate Costs)
131
What is parametric estimating?
Uses statistical relationships from historical data to calculate estimates. (Estimate Costs)
132
What is the Determine Budget process?
Aggregates estimated costs to establish an authorized cost baseline. (Determine Budget)
133
What are contingency reserves?
Funds managed by the PM to address known/unknown risks. (Determine Budget)
134
What are management reserves?
Budget set by management for unknown-unknown risks. (Determine Budget)
135
What are funding limit reconciliations?
Comparing planned vs. actual spending; may lead to schedule adjustments due to budget limits. (Determine Budget)
136
What is a cost-benefit analysis?
Compares cost of activities to expected benefits; benefits should outweigh the costs. (Determine Budget)
137
What is cost of quality?
Total cost of ensuring the product meets quality requirements over its life. (Plan Quality)
138
What is a quality management plan?
Document stating the quality standards and how they will be achieved. (Plan Quality)
139
What is the Plan Resource Management process?
Outlines how to estimate, acquire, and manage resources. (Plan Resource Management)
140
What is included in a resource management plan?
Roles, responsibilities, org chart, and team management strategies. (Plan Resource Management)
141
What is a team charter?
A document outlining expected behavior and team norms. (Plan Resource Management)
142
What is estimate activity resources?
Determining the type and quantity of resources needed for each activity. (Estimate Activity Resources)
143
What is a resource breakdown structure (RBS)?
Hierarchical chart of resource types and categories. (Estimate Activity Resources)
144
What is the Plan Communication Management process?
Developing a strategy for effective project communication. (Plan Communication Management)
145
What is communication requirements analysis?
Evaluating stakeholders’ communication needs. (Plan Communication Management)
146
What is the formula for number of communication channels?
Channels = n(n–1)/2, where n = number of stakeholders. (Plan Communication Management)
147
What is the Plan Risk Management process?
Defines how risk management activities will be carried out. (Plan Risk Management)
148
What is the Identify Risks process?
Listing individual and overall project risks in the risk register and report. (Plan Risk Management)
149
What is a prompt list?
Predefined list of risk categories, often based on RBS. (Plan Risk Management)
150
What is a risk register?
A document listing all identified risks, their causes, categories, and potential responses. (Plan Risk Management)
151
What is a risk report?
Summary of individual and overall project risks. (Plan Risk Management)
152
What is a risk data quality assessment?
Evaluates the reliability, accuracy, and completeness of risk data. (Plan Risk Management)
153
What is the Plan Risk Responses process?
Selecting strategies and actions to address risks. (Plan Risk Responses)
154
What does it mean to escalate a risk?
Elevating the risk to a higher authority outside the project team. (Plan Risk Responses)
155
What does it mean to avoid a risk?
Eliminating the risk entirely. (Plan Risk Responses)
156
What does it mean to transfer a risk?
Shifting the risk to a third party (e.g., insurance, outsourcing). (Plan Risk Responses)
157
What does it mean to mitigate a risk?
Reducing the likelihood or impact of the risk. (Plan Risk Responses)
158
What does it mean to accept a risk?
Acknowledging the risk without taking action unless it occurs. (Plan Risk Responses)
159
What is a fixed price (lump sum) contract?
Buyer pays one set price; seller assumes most of the risk. (Contracts/Agreements)
160
What is a cost-reimbursable contract?
Buyer pays all costs plus a fee; buyer assumes more risk. (Contracts/Agreements)
161
What is the Plan Procurement Management process?
Decides if goods/services will be acquired externally, and defines what, how, and when to procure. (Plan Procurement Management)
162
What is a procurement management plan?
Describes procurement activities and may include a list of prequalified sellers. (Plan Procurement Management)
163
What is a procurement strategy?
Outlines how deliverables will be sourced, contract types, and procurement phases. (Plan Procurement Management)
164
What are bid documents?
Documents used to request proposals from potential sellers. (Plan Procurement Management)
165
What is a procurement statement of work?
Based on scope baseline, it defines buyer needs so sellers can determine suitability. (Plan Procurement Management)
166
What is source selection criteria?
Standards like cost, experience, or location used to choose a seller. (Plan Procurement Management)
167
What is Plan Stakeholder Engagement?
Developing strategies to involve stakeholders effectively. (Plan Stakeholder Engagement)
168
What are the 5 levels of the Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix?
Unaware, Resistant, Neutral, Supportive, Leading. (Plan Stakeholder Engagement)
169
What is a stakeholder engagement plan?
Describes how stakeholders will be engaged and managed throughout the project. (Plan Stakeholder Engagement)
170
What is an issue log?
A record of all problems or issues encountered during the project. (Direct and Manage Project Work)
171
What is the Manage Quality process?
Turning the quality plan into actionable quality assurance activities. (Manage Quality)
172
What is a cause and effect diagram?
Also called Ishikawa or fishbone diagram, used to identify root causes of defects. (Manage Quality)
173
What are tools used to manage quality?
Audits, Design for X, and Problem Solving. (Manage Quality)
174
What is a quality report?
Document listing quality issues and improvement suggestions. (Manage Quality)
175
What are test and evaluation documents?
Checklists used to assess the quality of deliverables. (Manage Quality)
176
What is multi-criteria decision analysis?
A tool for evaluating resources based on factors like cost, experience, skills, and attitude. (Acquire Resources)
177
What are resource calendars?
Show working times, shifts, and resource availability. (Acquire Resources)
178
What are the five stages of Tuckman's Ladder?
Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning. (Develop Team)
179
What are individual and team assessments?
Tools to understand how a team makes decisions, resolves conflict, and builds trust. (Develop Team)
180
What is McGregor's Theory X?
Assumes people avoid work and need to be micromanaged; they lack motivation and responsibility. (Develop Team)
181
What is McGregor's Theory Y?
Believes people are self-motivated, responsible, and capable of self-direction. (Develop Team)
182
What is Theory Z?
Focuses on employee loyalty, well-being inside and outside of work, and long-term employment. (Develop Team)
183
What is Herzberg’s Motivation Theory?
Hygiene factors prevent dissatisfaction; motivators (like achievement) lead to satisfaction. (Develop Team)
184
What are McClelland's 3 Needs?
Achievement, Power, and Affiliation. (Develop Team)
185
What is the Manage Team process?
Tracks performance, gives feedback, resolves issues, and manages changes. (Manage Team)
186
What is the Manage Communication process?
Manages the creation, distribution, and storage of project communications. (Manage Communication)
187
What are examples of project communications?
Status reports, performance updates, baseline comparisons. (Manage Communication)
188
What is work performance information?
Data on deliverable status, forecasts, and change request progress. (Monitor and Control)
189
What is Validate Scope?
Formal process of accepting deliverables with customer/sponsor approval. (Validate Scope)
190
What are the 3 major outputs of Initiating?
Project Charter, Assumption Log, Stakeholder Register.
191
What are 7 major outputs of Executing?
Work Performance Data, Change Requests, Team Performance Assessments, Selected Sellers, Issue Log, Agreements, Lessons Learned Register.
192
What are 4 major outputs of Monitoring/Controlling?
Accepted Deliverables, Work Performance Info, Reports, Approved Change Requests.
193
What are 2 major outputs of Closing?
Final Product and Final Report.
194
What is the major output of Planning?
The full Project Management Plan (everything with “plan” in it).
195
What is Budget at Completion (BAC)?
The total planned budget for the project.
196
What is Planned Value (PV)?
The budgeted value of the work scheduled to be done.
197
What is Earned Value (EV)?
The budgeted value of the work actually completed.
198
What is Actual Cost (AC)?
The actual amount spent on the project so far.
199
What is Cost Variance (CV)?
EV – AC; shows if you're under or over budget (positive = under).
200
What is Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
A key metric used in project management to measure the cost efficiency of a project. CPI = 1.0: You're exactly on budget.
201
What is schedule variance (SV)?
The difference between planned work and actual work completed. Positive = ahead of schedule.
202
What is the schedule performance index (SPI)?
Measures how efficiently the project is meeting schedule. SPI ≥ 1 = on or ahead of schedule.
203
What is estimate at completion (EAC)?
Forecast of the total project cost based on current performance.
204
What is estimate to complete (ETC)?
Forecast of the remaining cost needed to finish the project.
205
What is variance at completion (VAC)?
Difference between the original budget and forecasted total cost. Positive = under budget.
206
What is to-complete performance index (TCPI)?
Efficiency needed to meet budget from current point forward.
207
What is the formula for BAC (Budget at Completion)?
BAC = Original Budget
208
What is the formula for PV (Planned Value)?
PV = Planned % Complete × BAC
209
What is the formula for EV (Earned Value)?
EV = Actual % Complete × BAC
210
What is the formula for AC (Actual Cost)?
AC = Amount already spent on the project
211
What is the formula for CV (Cost Variance)?
CV = EV – AC
212
What is the formula for CPI (Cost Performance Index)?
CPI = EV ÷ AC
213
What is the formula for SV (Schedule Variance)?
SV = EV – PV
214
What is the formula for SPI (Schedule Performance Index)?
SPI = EV ÷ PV
215
What is the formula for EAC (Estimate at Completion)?
EAC = BAC ÷ CPI
216
What is the formula for ETC (Estimate to Complete)?
ETC = EAC – AC
217
What is the formula for VAC (Variance at Completion)?
VAC = BAC – EAC
218
What is the formula for TCPI (To-Complete Performance Index)?
TCPI = (BAC – EV) ÷ (BAC – AC)
219
What should you do after a change request is denied?
Update the change log with the denied status. The change is not treated as an issue.
220
What conflict resolution technique involves postponing the issue?
Withdrawal. It postpones the conflict instead of addressing it immediately.
221
What are common reasons for starting a project?
Meeting legal, regulatory, or social requirements, or fulfilling stakeholder needs.
222
What is the difference between statistical independence and mutual exclusivity?
Independence: one event doesn't affect another. Mutually exclusive: both can't happen together.
223
What are the five stages in Tuckman’s ladder model?
Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning.
224
What is the purpose of an Ishikawa (fishbone) diagram?
To identify the root causes and sub-causes of a problem.
225
Why must the WBS be created before defining project activities?
Because defining and sequencing activities requires understanding the work packages.
226
What happens during the Develop Team and Manage Team processes?
Develop Team improves performance; Manage Team tracks and resolves issues.
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What does process tailoring mean in agile?
Adapting agile practices to better fit the project context or environment.
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What tool is used in Create WBS to break deliverables into work packages?
Decomposition. It breaks project deliverables into manageable components.
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What does the Control Resources process ensure?
That physical resources are used as planned and available when needed.
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What is the goal of the Manage Quality process?
To enhance processes through audits and analysis in the Executing phase.
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How are payment disputes between buyers and sellers typically resolved?
Claims administration. They mediate and resolve the payment dispute.
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What is autocratic decision-making?
A single individual makes the decision for the team and owns the outcome.
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What is the output of the Sprint Planning Meeting?
The Sprint Backlog, which lists all work planned for the upcoming Sprint.
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What is the impact of crashing on project cost?
Costs typically rise due to overtime or added resources.
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What is fast tracking in scheduling?
Executing multiple tasks at the same time to save time.
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What is a retrospective in agile?
A review done after an iteration to identify improvements.
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What is a flowchart used for in project management?
To visualize workflows and show decisions, loops, and paths.
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What does a scatter diagram show?
The correlation or relationship between two variables.
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What does a Pareto chart show?
Pareto (histogram): shows frequency distribution.
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What is the formula for calculating communication channels?
Channels = N(N-1)/ 2, where N is the number of stakeholders.
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What is a metaphor in XP (Extreme Programming)?
A shared analogy that aligns the dev team and customer understanding.
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What does a value stream map help visualize?
It maps how information flows through a process to find inefficiencies.
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What is the purpose of a work performance report?
To show project health and progress in a summarized form.
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What is the difference between analogous and parametric estimating?
Analogous uses historical data; parametric uses mathematical relationships.
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What are the purposes of the business case, project charter, and PM plan?
Business case = why; charter = authorization; PM plan = how to execute.
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What does the risk register contain?
Positive and negative risks with responses and categories.
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What should you do if a change request has already been denied?
Notify the customer that the change can’t be made. Don’t revisit the board.
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What is sunk cost and opportunity cost?
Sunk cost = spent funds; opportunity cost = value of the best alternative not chosen.
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When should you update work performance data?
When the activity is completed. This forms the basis for performance reporting.
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What does it mean if an activity is on the critical path?
It means the activity has zero float and delays will delay the project.
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When should you use a milestone chart?
When you need a simple, high-level timeline for stakeholders.
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What is earned value management (EVM) used for?
To monitor project schedule, cost, and performance trends. | "Are we on track, on time, and on budget?"
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What happens after a change is approved?
It's implemented in Direct and Manage Project Work.
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What does the project scope statement include?
Deliverables, objectives, constraints, assumptions, and exclusions.
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Should a PM approve changes outside the project charter scope?
No, it's outside the project's defined boundaries and not allowed.
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How does velocity help in agile estimation?
It's the average amount of work the team completes per iteration.
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What are the six major constraints in a project?
Scope, Cost, Schedule, Quality, Risk, and Resources. | Some Silly Cats Run Quite Rapidly.
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What should happen when a project is terminated early?
Immediately begin the Close Project or Phase process.
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What is the PERT estimate formula?
PERT = (Optimistic + 4 × Realistic + Pessimistic) ÷ 6.
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What is the difference between a resource breakdown structure and resource requirements?
RBS shows resource types; requirements list quantities and details.
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What is an output of Direct and Manage Project Work?
Work performance data, includes status updates and progress.
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How much slack is on the critical path?
It has zero. Delays on these activities delay the entire project.
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What does it mean to transfer, mitigate, avoid, or accept a risk?
Transfer = shift it; Avoid = eliminate it; Mitigate = reduce it; Accept = do nothing.
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How do crashing, fast tracking, and the critical path method differ?
Crashing adds resources; Fast tracking overlaps tasks; CPM finds the longest path.
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What is the difference between Manage Communications and Plan Communications?
Manage = execution and updates; Plan = creating the communication strategy.
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What is pair programming?
Two people code together, one writes and the other reviews, in real time.
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What is the difference between an iteration and a release in agile?
Iterations may not be releasable; releases group several iterations.
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How long should agile iterations last?
1 to 4 weeks. Longer features should be split into smaller ones.
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Where are new agile change requests added?
The product backlog. The item is prioritized based on its value.
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What factors affect communication technology choices?
Sensitivity, confidentiality, and security requirements of the project info.
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What are mandatory, discretionary, internal, and external dependencies?
Mandatory = required; Discretionary = preferred; Internal = under team control; External = outside dependencies.
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How do you validate vs control scope?
Validate: stakeholders accept work. Control: compare work to the plan.
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When is Control Procurement used vs Plan Procurement?
Control = oversee contracts; Plan = define what to buy and from whom.
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What is the difference between product scope and project scope?
Product scope = features and functions. Project scope = how to deliver them.
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When should you use an RFP, RFQ, or bidder conference?
RFP = complex solutions. RFQ = cost requests. Conferences = clarify requirements.
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What phase is Identify Stakeholders part of?
Initiating process group.
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What does it mean to defer decisions in agile?
Delay decisions until they are absolutely necessary for flexibility.
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What happens in the Determine Budget process?
It calculates the full cost baseline, using tools like financing.
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What is the difference between contingency reserve and management reserve?
Contingency = for known risks. Management = for unknowns and controlled by execs.
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What comes immediately after creating the project charter?
Collect requirements, write the scope statement, then create the WBS.
281
What does a burndown chart show?
How much work remains on the project over time.
282
What tools help organize large numbers of stakeholder ideas?
Affinity diagrams, decomposition, and prototypes.
283
What is the purpose of a focus group or brainstorming session?
To gather expert opinions or generate new ideas collaboratively.
284
What tools gather stakeholder requirements like checklists?
Surveys, checklists, and questionnaires.
285
What does the requirements traceability matrix do?
It tracks requirements back to their business or stakeholder origins.
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When should stakeholder identification and analysis occur in a traditional PM mindset?
Throughout the project, not just at the beginning.
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What must a stakeholder do to change any part of the project management plan?
Submit a formal change request.
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What should be done before taking any project actions in a traditional PM mindset?
Create a plan first.
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Who should be consulted before making decisions in traditional project management?
The project team.
291
What should your final decisions always benefit in traditional project management?
The objectives of the project.
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How should scope changes be assessed?
By evaluating their impact on all other project areas.
293
What estimation approach is preferred in traditional project management?
Bottom-up estimation approach.
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What is the main job of a project manager in the traditional PM mindset?
To be an integrator of all project components.
295
How often should the lessons learned register be updated?
Throughout the entire project.
296
What must be done even for projects that are terminated early?
They still need to be formally closed.
297
Who are the best people to break down the work and determine activity timings?
The project team.
298
When should quality requirements be defined and checked?
Early in the project and checked often.
299
Who are the best people to check deliverables for scope and quality?
The customers.
300
What must be understood before resolving team conflict?
The source of the conflict.
301
How should conflicts between team members be resolved?
In favor of the project objectives.
302
What should be analyzed before sending stakeholder communications?
Stakeholder needs, preferences, frequency, and delivery method.
303
What skill helps analyze feelings and respond effectively to stakeholders?
Emotional intelligence.
304
When should risks be identified in a project?
As early as possible.
305
What are negative and positive risks called?
Threat and Opportunity.
306
What kind of contract should be used with potential sellers?
A mutually beneficial contract.
307
How often should stakeholders be engaged?
Often and regularly.
308
What must be ensured when engaging stakeholders?
That they understand the communication they receive.
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What kind of leader should an Agile PM be?
A servant leader.
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Who documents and prioritizes the product backlog in Agile?
The product owner.
311
What should you do if a product owner refuses to prioritize features?
Train them on prioritization benefits.
312
What is the best form of communication in Agile?
Face-to-face with whiteboards and markers.
313
Why is wall space important for Agile teams?
So they can visualize work with sticky notes, etc.
314
How should information be radiated in Agile?
With large charts and graphs.
315
Who should solve problems on an Agile project?
The project team.
316
How should disagreements be handled in Agile?
By creating a safe space and not punishing dissent.
317
What tool helps limit work in progress in Agile?
Kanban boards.
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What helps keep the team aligned to the big picture in Agile?
Repeat and reinforce the project vision.
319
What should you understand about team members?
What motivates them.
320
What should people understand about project outcomes?
What failure and success will look like.
321
What kind of figure should an Agile PM be?
A central, supportive figure.
322
What values should an Agile PM demonstrate?
Good ethical values.
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How do you review how work was done in Agile?
Conduct a retrospective.
324
What is a feedback loop in Agile?
Applying lessons learned to the next task.
325
What is a key focus when assessing scope change impacts?
Schedule, cost, quality, resources, etc.
326
What approach gives more accurate estimates, bottom-up or top-down?
Bottom-up approach gives more accurate estimates.
327
What does it mean to be an integrator in project management?
Balancing all project components without neglecting any.
328
What must be done at project closure besides paying bills?
Release resources and close formally.
329
Why is updating the lesson learned register important?
To transfer lessons to future projects.
330
What is the goal of defining quality requirements early?
To ensure they are met throughout the project.
331
Why are customers best to check scope and quality?
They are the end users.
332
Why must you tailor stakeholder communication?
To make sure it's clear and effective.
333
How do emotional intelligence skills help PMs?
They help you respond better and solve problems quickly.
334
What is a burnup or burndown chart used for?
To radiate project information visually.
335
What should be avoided when team members disagree?
Avoid punishment and encourage open discussion.
336
Why are co-location and face-to-face communication important?
They enhance understanding and collaboration.
337
How should feedback be used between tasks?
Incorporate it into the next task.
338
How can Agile PMs motivate their teams?
By understanding their needs and motivations.
339
What tool is commonly shown on whiteboards in Agile?
Kanban.
340
What is the role of the product owner in backlog grooming?
To document and prioritize backlog items.
341
Why must you train a product owner on prioritization?
So they understand prioritization's value to the project.
342
Why shouldn't a PM prioritize backlog items themselves?
Because it's not the PM's responsibility.
343
What’s the goal of having ethical values as a PM?
To set a good example and lead with integrity.
344
How should you handle conflicting methods in project tasks?
Choose the method that brings most value.
345
What should you use instead of complex software tools?
Use inclusive tools like whiteboards.
346
Why use a mutually beneficial contract on a project?
To support the project objectives for both parties.