Pneumonia and TB Review Flashcards

1
Q

What drugs can you treat outpatient CAP with? (in general)

A

Macrolide > Azithromycin or Clarithromycin(acute hypersensitivity reactions)

Respiratory fluoroquinolone > Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin

3rd generation cephalosporin > cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, cefpodoxime;

A beta-lactam > Amoxicillin; amoxicillin-clavulanate; Ampicillin

Doxycycline (which is a tetracycline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of organisms typically cause CAP?

A

Strep pneumoniae

Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

Chlamydia pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What medication would you give to previously healthy patients who have not taken antibiotics within the past 3 months? (to treat outpatient pneumoniae with CAP)

A
  1. Macrolide (azithromycin or clarithromycin)

2. Doxycyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What medications would you prescribe to patients with comorbid medical conditions or use of antibiotics within the previous 3 months. (Outpatient CAP)

A
  1. Levofloxacin, moxifloxacin
  2. 3rd generation Cephalosporin
  3. Macrolide plus a beta-lactam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are all the drugs you can use to treat inpatient pneumonia with for treatment of CAP?

A

Antipneumococcal beta-lactam > cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, or ampicillin-sulbactam, aztreonam

Antipseudomonal beta-lactam > piperacillin-tazobactam, imipenem, meropenem

Aminoglycoside > Amikacin

Azithromycin

Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin, as a single agent

Vancomycin

Linezolid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What drugs are used to treat inpatient CAP who are allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics?

A

Moxifloxacin or Levofloxacin plus aztreonam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some drugs used to treat inpatient s with CAP for patients that are at risk for Psudomonas infection?

A

An antipneumococcal cephalosporin
Antipseudomonal beta-lactam (piperacillin-tazobactam, imipenem, meropenem
Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are drugs used to treat inpatient CAP in cases were you need to treat ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)

A

Imipenem or Meropenem, piperacillin/tazobactam or cefepime;

Gentamicin; and

Vancomycin or linezolid (MRSA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Be able to reproduce this chart.

A

Reproduce chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Be able to reproduce this chart. Fluoroquinolones

A

Reproduce this chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the MOA of Anti pneumococcal agents like Penicillins and cephalosporins?

A

Bind penicillin-binding proteins(PBPs)
Prevent transpeptidation
Inhibit cross-linking of bacterial cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give the mechanism by which there is resistance to penicillin and cephalosporins

A

Degradation by bacterial penicillinases (beta lactamases)

Mutation of PBP

Down regulation of porins channel(gram –ve)

Upregulation of efflux channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the adverse effects of Penicillins and cephalosporins?

A

Adverse effect:

Hypersensitivity reactions,

Cross reactivity rxns

GI distress and maculopapular rash (ampicillin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Be able to reproduce this chart.

A

Reproduce chart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Be able to reproduce this chart.

A

Know things in red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give MOA, characteristic of drug and AE charted out in these drugs.

A

Reproduce charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the way to treat nosocomial pneumonia in which there is a low risk for multiple drug-resistant pathogens?

A

Ceftriaxone, Gemifloxacin, Moxifloxacin, Levofloxacin, Ciprofloxacin, Ampicillin-sulbactam, piperacillin-tazobactam, Ertapenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a way to treat nosocomial pneumonia in which there is a higher risk for nosocomial pneumonia?

A
  1. Antipseudomonal coverage
    Cefepime, Imipenem, meropenem, piperacillin-tazobactam,
    Penicillin –allergic patients>aztreonam
  2. A second antipseudomonal
    Levofloxacin, gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin
  3. Coverage for MRSA
    Vancomycin or linezolid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the medications of choice of anaerobic pneumonia and lung abscess?

A

Clindamycin or amoxicillin-clavulanate.

Penicillin (amoxicillin) or penicillin G plus metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some signs that may show that a patient may have a history of predisposition to aspiration?

A

poor dentition

foul-smelling purulent sputum (in many patients)

Infiltrate in dependent lung zone, with single or multiple areas of cavitation or pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who should a polyvalent pneumococcal vaccine be given to?

A

Age 65 years or older or any chronic illness that increases the risk of CAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does having a polyvalent pneumococcal vaccine benefit a patient with pneumonia?

A

contains common strains of S pneumoniae and has the potential to prevent or lessen severity of majority of pneumococcal infections in immunocompetent patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is the seasonal influenza vaccine beneficial?

A

effective in preventing severe disease due to influenza virus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is seasonal influenza vaccine administered (frequency) and to what groups of people?

A

administered annually to persons at risk for complications of influenza infection

age 65 years or older,

residents of long-term care facilities,
patients with pulmonary or cardiovascular disorders etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the drugs used to treat Influenza A and Influenza B

And Just influenza A

A

Influenza A and Influenza B -> Oseltamavir or Zanamavir

Influenza A -> Amantadine or Rimantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Reproduce this chart on TMP/SMX MOA, Dosage, clinical use, and adverse events.

A

Reproduce chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Jeopardy Round. What type of pathogen is describe by the following characteristics?

1. Acid-fast bacilli
Slow growing(intracellular), Can become dormant
Rapidly active (wall of cavitary lesion). 
  1. Mostly reside inside macrophage, not all drugs reach.
  2. Cell wall is made of mycolic acid, its impermeable to many drugs.
  3. Develop resistance (more if single or two drugs used).
  4. Combination therapy needed (usually 3-4 drugs).
  5. Slow response, treatment requires months to years (Usually 6 or 9 months, or up to 2 years for TB bones).
  6. Poor compliance due to prolonged treatment, cost & symptomatic relief.
A

What are some major characteristics of mycobacteria TB?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some first line anti-TB drugs?

A

Isoniazid(H)
Rifampin(R)
Pyrazinamide(Z)
Ethambutol(E)

TB+ HIV
Rifabutin

Less CYP Interaction
Rifapentine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some second-line anti-TB drugs?

A

Cycloserine
Ethionamide

Streptomycin(S)
Amikacin
Capreomycin
Clarithromycin

Ofloxacin
Levofloxacin
Moxifloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the MOA of Isoniazid?

A

Prodrug activated by catalase-peroxidase (coded by Kat G).

Activated metabolite inhibits the enzyme ketoenoylreductase (coded by inh A), required for mycolic acid synthesis.

Blocks synthesis of Mycolic Acids for mycobacterial cell wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is Isoniazid (INH) bacteriostatic or bactericidal? (explain.)

A

Bactericidal in growing cells, rapidly dividing and bacteriostatic against slow growing.

32
Q

What are the clinical uses of Isoniazid?

A

Prophylaxis– Used alone for TB exposure, tuberculin convertors

Combination chemotherapy for TB– With ethambutol, rifampin, or pyrazinamide

33
Q

ROA of Isoniazid?

A

oral admin

34
Q

INH is acetylated in the liver why is this important to know?

A

Because there are fast acetylators and slow acetylators

Fast acetylators may require higher doses, “Fast” acetylators–50% of US Blacks and Whites, most Eskimos, Asians, Native Americans, t1/2 for “Fast acetylators < 1.5 hrs,
Slow acetylator are predisposed to toxicity(particularly peripheral neuritis) “slow” acetylators– t1/2 > 3 hrs

35
Q

In what disease may you have to alter dosing in isoniazid. Which one will you not have to?

A

alter dosing in hepatic, not renal disease.

36
Q

What are the adverse effects of Isoniazid?

A

Hepatotoxicity

Peripheral and central neuropathy

37
Q

What can cause an individual to be resistant to treatment with Isoniazid?

A

deletion of KatG gene in mycobacterium

38
Q

Why is B6 deficiency related to use of Isoniazid?

A

B6 is a cofactor for hepatic transaminase which is increased with INH therapy. Leads to B6 def which leads to decreased detoxification of ammonia causing neuropathies.

39
Q

What is the MOA of Rifampin?

A

Inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis via DNA dependent RNA polymerase

40
Q

Is Rifampin bactericidal or bacteriostatic/

A

cidal

41
Q

What are the clinical uses of Rifampin?

A

Combination chemotherapy for active disease of TB

Single agent prophylaxis for INH-intolerant patients

42
Q

A patient with tuberculosis develops bright orange-red urine and calls his physician in a panic because he is afraid he is bleeding into the urine. The patient has no other urinary tract symptoms. Which of the major 1st line TB medications is most likely to produce this side effect?

A

Rifampin

43
Q

A 19 year old woman is diagnosed with TB before prescribing a drug regimen, you take a careful medication history because one of the drugs commonly used to treat TB induces microsomal cytochrome P450 enzymes in the liver. Which major 1st line TB drug is this?

A

rifampin

Rifampin induces cytochrome P450 enzymes, which cause a significant increase in the elimination of drugs

44
Q

What are the adverse effects of rifampin?

A

Inducer of microsomal enzymes CYP450:
Hepatotoxic
“Flu-like” syndrome
Gives orange colour to body fluids

45
Q

D/I of Rifampin?

A

E+P >Contraceptive pills failure
Phenytoin> epilepsy
Methadone > withdrawal syndrome
Anti retroviral > treatment failure

46
Q

MOA of Ethambutol. Bacteriostatic or cidal?

A

Inhibits synthesis of mycobacterial cell wall component arabinoglycan
Inhibition of arabinosyl transferase.
Bacteriostatic

47
Q

What are the adverse effects of ethambutol?

A

Dose-dependent and reversible optic neuritis,

decreased visual acuity, central scotoma, loss of red-green differentiation

hyperuricemia

retrobulbar neuritis

48
Q

What patients is ethamutol contraindicated in?

A

Children

49
Q

Does Pyrazinamide act as a bacteriostatic or Bactericidal? What organisms does it act on?

A

Bactericidal; Acts only on intracellular mycobacteria

Effective against slowly replicating bacteria and in the acidic medium

50
Q

MOA of Pyrazinamide?

A

unknown

51
Q

AE of Pyrazinamide

A

Hyperuricemia

(common, major) gouty attack

porphyria, photosensitivity

52
Q

When is Streptomycin used to treat TB? Is it used now?

A

biliary TB, severe organ TB

only for severe life-threatening cases, now used less frequently

53
Q

Is Streptomycin bactericidal or static and what organisms is it most effective against?

A

Bactericidal, effective only against extracellular bacilli, i.m injection,

54
Q

Adverse effects of Streptomycin.

A

adverse effects typical of aminoglycoside

Nephrotoxicity- renal failure
Ototoxicity

55
Q

MOA of Rifabutin

A

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and interferes with DNA synthesis in M. tuberculosis.

56
Q

Which is the less potent CYP450 inducer Rifabutin or Rifampin?

A

Rifabutin is a less potent CYP450 inducer

57
Q

Which has the longest half-life? Rifabutin or Rifapentine?

A

Rifapentine

58
Q

Rifabutin and Rifapentine main benefit. (What are they treating against) What type of bacteria is it most effective against?

A

Prevention and Treatment of disseminated atypical mycobacterial infection AIDS patients

More effective against Mycobacteriam avium complex (MAC).

59
Q

Why are anti TB drugs that are considered second line in this category?

A

toxicity outweighs therapeutic effects except for highly resistant strains

60
Q

Name some second-line anti-TB drugs.

A
Cycloserine
Ethionamide
Amikacin
Capreomycin
Clarithromycin
Ofloxacin
Levofloxacin
Moxifloxacin
Para-aminosalicylic acid
61
Q

MOA Cycloserine

A

Inhibits cells wall synth

62
Q

A/E Cycloserine

A

Most serious side effects during the 1st 2 weeks of treatment (25%) are peripheral neuropathy and CNS dysfunction, including depression and psychosis

63
Q

Neurologic toxicity associated with Cycloserine is minimized by what drug?

A

pyridoxine

64
Q

Ethionamide MOA? What drug is it chemically related to?

A

Chemically related to Isoniazid, blocks the synthesis of mycolic acid

65
Q

A/E of Ethionamide?

A

Intense gastric irritation, neurologic symptoms (Pyridoxine given) and hepatotoxicity

66
Q

What is the clinical use of Amikacin; Capreomycin?

A

MDR TB

67
Q

What is the clinical use of clarithromycin related to TB?

A

non tubercular atypical mycobacteria

68
Q

What is the clinical use of Ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, moxicfloxacin related to this section specifically can be used to treat what?

A

MAC and HIV patient

69
Q

What are Drugs used for Leprosy?

A

Sulfones and Dapsone

70
Q

Sulfones MOA? Does it have bactericidal or static action?

A

inhibit the synthesis of folic acid by M. leprae, and exhibit a bacteriostatic action

71
Q

What is the purpose of using Dapsone for treatment of leprosy?

A

used in combination with Rifampin, with or without clofazimine to prevent resistance

72
Q

A/E Sulfones and Dapsone?

A

G.I.T. disturbances, Peripheral Neuropathy, Optic neuritis, Blurred vision, Proteinuria and Nephrotic syndrome, Lupus-like syndrome and Hematologic toxicity.

Patients with G-6-P Dehydrogenase deficiency may exhibit hemolytic anemia

73
Q

What is the benefit of using Clofazimine that we discussed in this section?

A

Bacteriostatic against M. leprae, and is active against M. avium intracellulare.

Approved for use in combination with Dapsone and Rifampin for the treatment of Lepromatous leprosy.

Used often to Sulfone-resistant patients

74
Q

MOA of Clofazimine?

A

The drug enhances the phagocytic activity of Neutrophils and Macrophages, and reduces the motility of Neutrophils and the ability of Lymphocytes to transform.

75
Q

A/E Clofazimine

A

GIT disturbances such as anorexia

Photosensitivity, skin discoloration (ranging from re-brown to nearly black)

May elevate hepatic enzyme levels and may cause hepatitis