Pneumonias & Respiratory Infections Flashcards

(99 cards)

1
Q

Organisms responsible for typical bacterial pneumoniae

A
S.pneumoniae
H.influenzae
M.catarrhalis
S.aureus
K.pneumoniae
P.aeruginosa
C.burnetti
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Organisms responsible for atypical bacterial pneumoniae

A
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Chlamydia pneumoniae
Chlamydia psittaci
Legionella pneumophilia
Burkholderia cepacia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Viruses that can cause pneumonia

A

Orthomyxoviridae (influenzavirus)

Coronaviridae (SARS, MERS)

Bunyaviridae (hantavirus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fungi that can cause pneumonia

A

Aspergillus spp.
Histoplasma capsulatum
Coccidioides immitis
Blastomycoses dermatides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Morphology of S.pneumoniae

A

Gram-positive diplococci (lancet shaped)

Encapsulated

Alpha-hemolytic

Optochin sensitive, bile-soluble

Urinary antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most common cause of community acquired pneumonia (CAP)

A

S.pneumoniae

[S.pneumo is also most common cause of meningitis, otitis media, and sinusitis]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Presentation of CAP caused by S.pneumoniae

A

Fever, chills, cough, dyspnea, weakness

RUST COLORED SPUTUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment for S.pneumoniae

A

Macrolides

Ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe S.pneumoniae vaccine given to kids vs. adults

A

Give kids <2 the protein conjugated vaccine [elicits IgG (T cell) response]

Give adults pure polysaccharide vaccine [elicits IgM (B cell) response]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Morphology of H.influenzae

A

Gram-negative coccobacilli

Encapsulated or no capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Media on which H.influenzae can be grown

A

Chocolate agar (H.influenzae requires factors V and X)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What patient populations are at increased risk of H.influenzae infection?

A
Sickle cell
Asplenic
Smokers
COPD
Immunocompromised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of vaccine is the H.influenzae (Hib) vaccine?

A

Polysaccharide vaccine — given to infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Treatment for H.influenzae prophylaxis vs. infection

A

Rifampin = prophylaxis for kids w/ close contacts

Ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Morphology of M.catarrhalis

A

Gram-negative coccobacillus

Fastidious, aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Patient populations at higher risk of infection with M.catarrhalis

A

Smokers
COPD
Asthmatics
Malignancies

Generally exacerbates predisposing conditions then forms pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Morphology of S.aureus

A

Gram positive cocci

Catalase positive
Coagulase positive

Beta-hemolytic

Protein A — binds IgG, inhibiting complement acitvation and phagocytosis

Mannitol fermenting; gold/yellow in culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Presentation of pneumoniae caused by S.aureus

A

Patchy infiltrates on CXR, most commonly following a URI (especially influenza virus!)

SALMON COLORED SPUTUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Treatment for pneumoniae caused by S.aureus

A

Vancomycin (MRSA)

Nafcillin (non-MRSA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Morphology of K.pneumoniae

A

Gram-negative bacillus

Immotile; surrounding by polysaccharide capsule

Urease positive

Lactose fermenting

Anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Agar on which K.pneumoniae can be grown

A

Forms pink mucoid colonies on MacConkey agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pt populations at increased risk of K.pneumoniae

A

Alcoholics (aspiration PNA!)
Asplenic
Immunocompromised

[K.pneumoniae is often nosocomial and multi-drug resistant]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Presentation of pneumonia caused by K.pneumoniae

A

Presents with CURRANT JELLY SPUTUM

May see cavitary lesions similar to TB (or bulging fissure)

Can be lobar or necrotizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Morphology of P.aeruginosa

A

Gram negative bacillus

Motile (swarming)

Catalase positive

Obligate aerobe

Forms biofilms

Produce characteristic blue-green pigment (pyocyanin and pyoverdin); grape-smelling

Thrives in aquatic environments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
P.aeruginosa is a common cause of nosocomial infections, and a major cause of lung infection and respiratory failure in _______ and ______ patients
Cystic fibrosis Bronchiectasis
26
Treatment options for P.aeruginosa infection
Piperacillin Ticarcillin Fluoroquinolones Aminoglycosides + Beta-lactams
27
Morphology of Coxiella burnetti
Gram-negative Obligate intracellular Endospores Animal reservoirs — risk in farmers, shepherds, cattle birthers, vets at risk
28
Describe infection caused by Coxiella burnetti
Q fever — abrupt high unremitting fever, myalgias, headache, dry cough, granulomatous hepatitis (no jaundice) May have mild pneumonia, or rapidly progress to respiratory distress Leukocytosis and thrombocytopenia Can also cause endocarditis and/or maculopapular rash
29
Morphology of mycoplasma pneumoniae
No cell wall; cell membrane w/ cholesterol Obligate intracellular IgM cold agglutinins
30
Agar on which mycoplasma pnuemoniae can be grown
Eaton’s agar
31
Presentation of infection with mycoplasma pneumoniae
Presents with dry cough; CXR shows reticulonodular or “patchy” infiltrate, often appearing more severe than pt symptoms Generally self-limiting, usually follows URI Also may see bullous myringitis Common in military recruits living in close quarters; commonly in adults <30 y/o
32
Treatment for infection with M.pneumoniae
Macrolides
33
Morphology of Chlamydia pneumoniae
Gram negative Obligate intracellular; no cell wall Elementary bodies = extracellular infectious form (vs. reticulate bodies, the intracellular replicating form seen as intracytoplasmic inclusions on microscopy — Giemsa stain)
34
Preferred method for detection of Chlamydia bacteria
Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
35
Presentation of infection with Chlamydia pneumoniae
Often follows URI, similar presentation to mycoplasma, but presents with HOARSENESS
36
Treatment for infection with chlamydia pneumoniae
Macrolides (particularly azithromycin) Tetracyclines (particularly doxycycline)
37
Morphology of Legionella pneumophilia
Gram negative bacillus Oxidase positive Silver stain required for visualization
38
Agar on which Legionella can be grown
Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract (BCYE) agar with cysteine and iron
39
Describe infection caused by Legionella including CXR and presenting sx/lab findings
Pontiac fever — acute, self-limiting respiratory disease with mild flu-like symptoms CXR often shows patchy unilobar infiltrates that progress to consolidation May present with HYPONATREMIA, headache, confusion, diarrhea, high fever (>39) diagnosed using urine Ag test
40
Major risk factor for Legionella infection
Smoking
41
Treatment for infection with Legionella pneumophilia
Macrolides Fluoroquinolones
42
Morphology of Chlamydia psittaci, and its reservoir
Gram-negative Obligate intracellular, no cell wall Reservoir = birds — transmitted via bird droppings (can see in pet shop owners, vets, ducks, turkeys)
43
Presentation of Chlamydia psittaci infection
Abrupt headache, dry cough, myalgias, dyspnea Can have EPISTAXIS and SPLENOMEGALY CXR indistinguishable from many bacterial and viral pneumonias
44
Tx of Chlamydia psittaci
Macrolides (particularly azithromycin) Tetracyclines (particularly doxycycline)
45
Morphology of Burkholderia cepacia
Gram-negative bacillus Catalase positive Non-lactose fermenter
46
Agar on which Burkholderia cepacia can be grown
BC agar (has crystal violet and bile salts - colonies are pearly gray)
47
Pt populations at increased risk of Burkholderia cepacia
Cystic fibrosis Bronchiectasis Found on hospital equipment and irrigation systems Very hard to tx, multi-drug resistant
48
Morphology of orthomyxoviridae (influenzavirus)
Negative-sense ssRNA virus Enveloped
49
Orthomyxoviridae includes influenzavirus A, B, and C. It replicates inside the _____ of host cells and has genomes comprised of ____________. The ________ of influenza A regulates H+ concentration around the virus, producing the proper pH for viral uncoating
Nucleus; 8 RNA segments M2 proton channel
50
Describe HA and NA associated with orthomyxoviridae
HA promotes viral entry — binds sialic acid residues on host cells NA cleaves sialic acid residues —> release of virus from host cells
51
Antigenic drift vs. antigenic shift
Antigenic drift is d/t point mutations in the viral genome —> changes in HA and NA glycoproteins —> epidemics Antigenic shift — when segments of genomes from different strains combine to form novel genome —> pandemics
52
Presentation of orthomyxoviridae infection
Fever, chills, myalgias, nasal congestion, coryza, nonproductive cough, fever (>38), LAD, diffuse pneumonitis, hypoxemia, leukopenia
53
After a viral infection with influenzavirus, there is increased susceptibility to a superinfection, particularly with _____ or _____
S.aureus | S.pneumoniae
54
Types of flu vaccine
Killed injectable Live intranasal [associated with small risk of GBS — ascending paralysis]
55
The rapid flu test is suboptimal, and diagnosis by _____ is preferred
PCR
56
Treatment options for influenzavirus infection
Amantadine/rimantadine inhibit M2 proton channel of influenza A virus, impeding viral uncoating Oseltamivir/zanamivir can inhibit NA, preventing release from host cells
57
______ in contraindicated in children with a viral infection
Aspirin [risk of Reye’s syndrome — encephalopathy, fatty liver, hepatic failure]
58
Morphology of coronaviridae
Positive-sense ssRNA virus Enveloped - helical capsule
59
What is MERS?
Middle Eastern Respiratory Syndrome — caused by infection with coronaviridae Fever, cough, dyspnea, diarrhea, abd pain, SEVERE ARDS presentation Fecal-oral transmission Hx of travel to middle east, especially Saudi Arabia
60
What is SARS?
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome — caused by infection with coronaviridae Initial flu-like symptoms — cough, dyspnea, severe hypoxia; can progress rapidly to ARDS Hx of travel to China, Hong Kong, Taiwan
61
Morphology and transmission of Hantavirus (bunyaviridae)
Negative-sense RNA virus Obtain envelope from golgi body membrane of host cells Genomes comprised of 3 circular RNA segments Zoonotic — transmitted via feces, urine, and saliva of rodents
62
Presentation of infection with Hantavirus
Prodromal phase mimics many flu-like syndromes; rapidly progresses to cardiopulmonary syndrome with respiratory distress Thrombocytopenia, leukocytosis, elevated LDH, bilateral pulmonary infiltrates May cause pulmonary edema d/t increased capillary permeability May cause hypotension leading to prerenal azotemia or ARF May cause hemorrhagic fever
63
Morphology and transmission of aspergillus spp
Catalase positive Septate hyphae that form 45-degree angle branches Transmitted via spore inhalation
64
Signs/symptoms of aspergillus colonization in the lung
May cause fever, hemoptysis, and cough Aspergillomas (“fungus balls”) typically develop in old pulmonary cavities (from TB, sarcoid, emphysema, etc.)
65
What is ABPA?
Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis Type I HSR Presents with migratory pulmonary infiltrates, wheezing, and increased serum IgE Most commonly CF and asthma pts
66
Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis typically occurs in _____ and _____ patients; it can spread hematogenously to kidneys, endocardium, brain, skin, and paranasal sinuses, causing infection and infarction
Immunosuppressed; neutropenic
67
Treatment of aspergillus spp infection
Voriconazole | Amphotericin B
68
Morphology of Histoplasma capsulatum
Microconidia Dimorphic fungus (yeast in body, mold in natural environment) Narrow-based budding
69
Transmission of Histoplasma capsulatum; where is it endemic?
Bat and bird droppings (caves, chicken coops, etc.) - transmitted via inhalation of mold spores Endemic to midwestern and east central US, near Ohio and Mississippi River valleys
70
Detection of Histoplasma capsulatum
Macrophages phagocytize the yeast form in the lungs — these small oval yeast forms can be seen within macrophages on microscopy Can also be detected in body fluids such as serum or urine
71
Clinical manifestations of Histoplasma capsulatum infection
Presents as mild cough, fatigue, weight loss, upper lung lobe cavitations (coin lesion); clinically resembles secondary TB Can cause variety of calcific deposits in the lungs (i.e., calcified mediastinal/hilar LNs) Associated with ERYTHEMA NODOSUM May also see HSM — seen with disseminated infection (primarily in immunocompromised)
72
Treatment of Histoplasma capsulatum
Azoles Amphotericin B
73
Morphology, transmission, and endemic regions of coccidioides immitis
Dimorphic fungus Transmitted via inhalation of mold spores found in soil Endemic to southwest US (California, New Mexico, Arizona) and Northern Mexico
74
Coccidioides immitis can be seen in tissue samples as large, yeast-like spherules containing ______
Endospores
75
Clinical manifestations of coccidioides immitis infection
Causes San Joaquin Valley fever and community acquired PNA Chest pain, cough, fever, arthralgia CXR may be unremarkable, or show unilateral infiltrates, ipsilateral hilar LAD, or pulmonary nodule formation Associated with ERYTHEMA NODOSUM Disseminated infection in immunocompromised — skin, bones, meningitis
76
Treatment of coccidioides immitis infection
Azoles (particularly itraconazole and fluconazole) Amphotericin B
77
Morphology, transmission, and endemic regions of Blastomycoses dermatides
Dimorphic fungus Broad-based budding Transmitted via inhalation of mold spores Endemic to eastern and central US near Ohio and Mississippi River Valleys and Great Lakes region
78
Clinical manifestations of blastomycoses dermatides
CXR findings vary, most commonly patchy opacities or densities Can lead to pulmonary granuloma formation Disseminated infection in immunocompromised — skin, bone, GU involvement
79
Detection of blastomycoses dermatidis
Detected in body fluids such as urine
80
Tx of blastomycoses dermatides
Azoles (particularly itraconazole and fluconazole) Amphotericin B
81
Primary location of infection, CXR/CT pattern, US pattern, and organisms associated most often with Lobar PNA
Location: alveoli CXR/CT: Dense consolidation; air bronchograms US: Consolidation (often extensive); dynamic air bronchograms Organisms: S.pneumoniae, K.pneumoniae, Legionella
82
Primary location of infection, CXR/CT pattern, US pattern, and organisms associated most often with bronchopneumonia
Location: bronchi CXR/CT: Patchy opacities US: patchy B-lines, may have some consolidation Organisms: WIDE variety of bacteria — mycoplasma, chlamydia, staph, pseudomonas
83
Primary location of infection, CXR/CT pattern, US pattern, and organisms associated most often with interstitial PNA
Location: interstitium CXR/CT: diffuse hazy opacities; septal thickening US: patchy B-lines; may have some consolidation Organisms: viruses, PJP, mycoplasma
84
Which pneumonia-causing organism has “fried-egg” appearance on microscopy?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
85
What 2 bacterial species are grown on chocolate agar?
Haemophilus influenzae Neisseria meningitidis
86
Empiric abx regimen for community acquired pneumonia
1. Ambulatory — macrolide (if pt can’t tolerate, go with doxycycline) 2. Possible drug-resistance — Fluoroquinolone or Macrolide + Beta-lactam 3. Hospitalized pts — Fluoroquinolone 4. ICU — fluoroquinolone + antipneumococcal beta-lactam (3rd gen cephalosporin or ampicillin sulbactam); add piperacillin-tazobactam, cefepime, or a “penem” for pseudomonal coverage
87
What lab can be ordered to aid in differentiating between viral and bacterial PNA?
Procalcitonin [calcitonin precursor that becomes elevated in proinflammatory stimuli, especially those bacterial in origin]
88
What criteria are used to determine whether pt with PNA needs to be admitted?
``` CURB-65 Severity Score: Confusion = 1 pt BUN >20 = 1 pt RR >30 = 1 pt BP <90syst or <60diast = 1 pt Age >65 = 1 pt ``` 0-1 pts = low risk; outpatient tx 2 pts = short inpatient hospitalization or closely supervised outpatient tx 3-5 = severe; hospitalization required. Consider ICU admission
89
What are the lactose fermenting bacteria?
Fast fermenters: Klebsiella, E.coli, Enterobacter Slow fermenters: Citrobacter, Serratia
90
Non-enveloped, icosahedral dsDNA virus that causes the common cold, viral keratoconjunctivitis, pharyngitis; dx by viral culture, direct assay, or enzyme immunoassay
Adenovirus
91
What bacteria can be detected by urinary antigens?
S.pneumoniae Legionella
92
Bacteria to consider in neutropenic and CF pts
Pseudomonas
93
Bacteria to consider in asplenic pts
Klebsiella S.pneumoniae H.influenzae Neisseria spp [susceptible to encapsulated organisms]
94
Bacteria to consider in smokers, COPD
Moraxella catarrhalis | Haemophilus influenzae
95
Bacteria to consider in alcoholics
Klebsiella
96
Bacteria to consider in bird handlers
C.psittaci
97
Criteria for hospital acquired PNA (HAP)
Infection acquired during hospital stay (>48 hrs)
98
Criteria for healthcare associated PNA (HCAP)
Hospitalized for at least 2 days within the last 90 days OR In the last 30 days: nursing home, infusions, dialysis pts, wound care OR Family member with multidrug resistant organism
99
Criteria for ventilator associated PNA (VAP)
ET intubation with 2 of the following: Fever, Leukocytosis, Purulent sputum New or progressive opacity on CXR