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General Orders/FSS > Policies > Flashcards

Policies Flashcards

1
Q

TDD may only be deployed on vehicles with _______.

A

4 or more tires

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2
Q

TDD cannot be used on _______.

A

motorcycles or ATVs

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3
Q

All user emails must be approved by who?

A

The Major

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4
Q

Copies of work emails must be requested how?

A

A written request to Information Systems

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5
Q

What is incident command system (ICS)?

A

It is a method of organizing response resources and a combined management by a designated commander

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6
Q

What is a civil disturbance?

A

It is an interruption/disruption of normal activities by a group.

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7
Q

What are some resources that will respond to a civil disturbance?

A

SWAT, EFF, PIO, SIU

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8
Q

What is the responsibility of the incident commander?

A

Command post, obtain maps, security at all public facilities, divert traffic, consult with SAO, and PBSO Legal

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9
Q

What is OC?

A

It is not a chemical agent

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10
Q

If there is a disturbance at the jail, what is the appropriate response?

A

Watch commander coordinates with the corrections division

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11
Q

During a civil disturbance, where are the arrestees taken?

A

All arrestees go to CJ and each with their own case number

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12
Q

To be a night club, you must have one of two criteria?

A

You must charge a cover charge or other fee, or have minimum drink purchase

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13
Q

What are the other criteria to be considered a night club?

A

1) Having a dance floor or open area, 2) open anytime between 2300 to 0800, 3) maximum capacity over 150, 4) advertises for events, 5) has a platform for music or other entertainment

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14
Q

What are security officer requirements for night clubs?

A

One security officer in the interior and one on the exterior for each 150 people in attendance

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15
Q

What is the amount of deputies for a night club?

A

a minimum of 2 deputies and one thereafter for each additional 150 people in attendance

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16
Q

Security requirements for a night club do not apply if ______.

A

the night club has had less than 4 incidents requiring law enforcement response attributed to events held

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17
Q

What are exceptions to the 21 and over rule for night clubs?

A

Persons are employed by the night club, if alcohol has stopped, or if attendee is current/active duty military

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18
Q

What are the 5 dispositions with an IA investigation?

A

1) exonerated, 2) substantiated, 3) unfounded, 4) unsubstantiated, 5) sustained

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19
Q

What is garrity?

A

They are compelled statements that cannot be used to form a basis of a criminal prosecution. They are for the agency and questions must be specifically, directly and narrowly related to the performance of duties.

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20
Q

A complaint that is received must be forwarded to IA within how many days?

A

5 days

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21
Q

IA investigates the following:

A

1) UOC-serious injury, 2) corruption, 3) breach of civil rights, 4) moral turpitude, 5) criminal conduct (as directed by the sheriff), 6) in custody death, 7) officer involved shootings, 8) anything deemed by Sheriff

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22
Q

What is the EIS in the general orders for UOC, complaints, signal 33 and 10-31?

A

For complaints-5 in 2 years, UOC-5 in 1 year, Signal 33-3 in 5 years, 10-31-5 in previous year (conflicts with EIS manual)

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23
Q

What is considered immediate family per EAP G.O.?

A

If living in same house, spouse/domestic partner and unmarried children (including step) under 19 (Under 25 if full time student)

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24
Q

What is an unlawful assembly?

A

3 or more persons meet to commit breach of the peace/unlawful act

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25
Q

What is FCFA?

A

Florida Contraband Forfeiture Act

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26
Q

Notify Forfeiture within?

A

24 hours

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27
Q

What is the principal objective with forfeiture?

A

LE

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28
Q

Forfeiture of real property is approved through _____.

A

Legal

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29
Q

Who is the workplace coordinator?

A

IA Commander

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30
Q

What are the minimum hours pilots must have?

A

100 hours in single engine, 250 hours of helo time. Must also have commercial pilot’s license and Class 2 medical certificate

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31
Q

Delinquent report notification requires member to correct in how many days?

A

2 days

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32
Q

Definition of news media does NOT include _____ who?

A

Freelance reporters

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33
Q

Upon notification of a sexual predator, PBSO will notify schools within one mile within what time frame?

A

48 hours

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34
Q

To be eligible for FMLA, an employee must have worked how many months and how many hours?

A

12 months, 1250 hours

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35
Q

Employees are eligible for how many weeks of FMLA?

A

12 weeks

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36
Q

For active duty military serious injury, how many weeks f FMLA?

A

26 weeks

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37
Q

For adoption/newborn, must use what kind of time for FMLA?

A

Holiday/annual time. Sick is an option.

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38
Q

Information about a juvenile charged with a misdemeanor cannot be released unless _____.

A

They have 3 prior misdemeanor convictions

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39
Q

Annual leave can be used after how many months of service?

A

3 months

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40
Q

Longevity leave starts at how many years of service?

A

5 years-16 hours, 8 hours every year after up to 10. Then every 5 years after with a max of 40 years.

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41
Q

What is the number of days of sick leave until you have to use FMLA?

A

more than 10

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42
Q

If calling in sick, must give how much notice when feasible?

A

1 hour

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43
Q

For donated sick time, employee must submit form how many days prior to exhausting time?

A

10 days

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44
Q

Commander must submit the request for donated time for that employee how many days prior?

A

7 days

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45
Q

First and second request for donated sick time approved through and inclusive of _____.

A

The colonel

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46
Q

What constitutes the abuse of sick time in a calendar year?

A

12 days

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47
Q

How is sick time paid out when leaving PBSO on good terms?

A

1) 5-10 years-50% 2) 10-25 years-100% of the first 480 hours, then 50% of remaining 3) 25 years or more-100% up to 1200 hours

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48
Q

How many days are allowed for bereavement of qualified family members?

A

4 days for in Florida, 5 days outside of Florida

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49
Q

What are the 9 levels of control?

A

1) Officer presence, 2) Verbalization, 3) Soft control, 4) Aerosol subject restraints (ASR), 5) Hard control (punches and impact weapon), 6) Canine, 7) Less lethal , 8) DFSG, 9) Deadly force

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50
Q

Six Levels of resistance

A

1) Psychological intimidation, 2) Verbal non-compliance, 3) Passive resistance, 4) Active resistance, 5) Active aggression, 6) Deadly force

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51
Q

Blue teams are completed for ____?

A

Any control technique or complaint/visible injury to arrestee.

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52
Q

Impact weapons are used to ______, not create injury.

A

temporarily disable

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53
Q

Six Additional requirements for the use of all less lethal weapons

A

1) complete offense report, 2) identify the effects, 3) articulate circumstances leading to the application, 4) first aid taken or offered, 5) photos when practical, 6) EMS called to scene

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54
Q

ASRs are used when ______.

A

when it’s reasonable and necessary

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55
Q

ASR refresher occurs how often?

A

every 2 years

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56
Q

Specialty impact weapons deployment authorized by _____?

A

Watch Commander, LE/Corrections Sergeant, SWAT Commander, CSRT Commander, EFF Commander

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57
Q

Who are authorized users of special impact weapons?

A

road patrol/corrections sergeant, FDOs, selected road patrol/corrections deputy sheriffs, training staff, SWAT and EFF members

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58
Q

How many holidays do we get per year?

A

11 days plus 2 floating days, total=13

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59
Q

Max accrual amount of holiday time?

A

215 hours to be paid out quarterly once maxed out

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60
Q

Employees on military leave or active duty get full pay for how many days?

A

30 days, then the sheriff may supplement pay

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61
Q

The use of the taser must include either of which 2 scenarios?

A

an arrest or a custodial situation where the subject escalates to active physical resistance, and has the ability to physically threaten the officers or is preparing to flee or escape

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62
Q

What are the restrictions for use of tasers?

A

pregnant females, juveniles 12 years old or less, elderly and disabled, areas of head/neck/groin

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63
Q

What are the criteria for vehicle pursuits “absolute compelling emergency circumstance”?

A

Suspect has committed a violent felony, and is such a danger to society that the suspect’s escape would expose immediate death or danger to society such that deadly force is warranted

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64
Q

What does monitoring mean?

A

The operation of marked or unmarked vehicle in an effort to surveil or follow a suspect remaining at a safe distance behind with the intent to remain undetected without using lights and sirens and obeying all traffic laws

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65
Q

8 Examples of violent felonies

A

1) Murder, 2) armed robbery, 3) home invasion, 4) armed burglary, 5) armed battery with serious bodily injury, 6) agg assault with a firearm where shots were fired where the LEO is either a victim or witness, 7) armed carjacking, 8) felony hit and run with serious bodily injury

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66
Q

Special circumstances means?

A

Commission or attempt of violent felony and related escape, extraordinary circumstances when authorized by the watch commander, or anything else authorized by the sheriff or designee

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67
Q

Marked or unmarked may monitor under ____.

A

Special circumstances

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68
Q

After a hearing, a child can be handled like an adult if the child is how old?

A

14 years or older

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69
Q

A child under 18 who commits an offense punishable by life or death can be handled like an adult when?

A

After a grand jury indictment

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70
Q

A juvenile child is defined as?

A

An unmarried person under 18 alleged to be dependent or married/unmarried person charged with a violation of law prior to reaching 18 years of age

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71
Q

Truant is defined as?

A

A child from 6 to 16 years old who is absent from school without permission

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72
Q

A Silver alert applies to _____.

A

Persons over 60 years old with irreversible deterioration of mental faculties/dementia or 18-59 years old under extraordinary circumstances

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73
Q

In a Missing persons case, who has jurisdiction?

A

Where the person was last seen. If unknown, any LEO can take the report

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74
Q

Only who can initiate an Amber alert?

A

LE

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75
Q

For missing children, what is considered “tender age”?

A

Less than 13 years old

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76
Q

On a child abduction, missing person, the Watch Commander is the _____?

A

Incident commander in charge of field operations

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77
Q

For DV involving LE, if suspect is LEO what are the steps to be taken?

A

1) If suspect is LEO, Notify supervisor, 2) if suspect is PBSO-notify Watch Commander who notifies the CDO. The CDO then contacts the suspect’s command and the Commander of where incident occurred. IA would also be notified. If PC exists, supervisor will respond to scene.

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78
Q

For signal 4D involving death, who will respond in all cases?

A

IA

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79
Q

If an employee is killed/seriously injured who makes the notification?

A

Involved employees district commander and traffic commander

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80
Q

Once a vehicle is appraised, it must be brought to motor pool within how many hours?

A

24 hours

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81
Q

If an employee alleges that the vehicle malfunctioned, who must be noticed immediately?

A

Risk management

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82
Q

Corrections can only do LE activity with whose approval and circumstance?

A

Exigent circumstances and approval of LE watch commander

83
Q

Prior to C.I.I.T. arrival on scene, the Watch Commander has the following 8 tasks:

A

1) take command of scene, 2) crime scene tape, 3) crime scene log, 4) detain witnesses, 5) briefly speak with involved officer, 6) allow involved employee to speak with PBA/PBSO psychologist, 7) initiate a canvas for witnesses, 8) perimeter security

84
Q

The CIIT will investigate the following 5 things:

A

1) use of force causing death/life threatening injuries, 2) LEO who is shot or has shot someone, 3) LEO with self inflicted gun shot wounds, 4) in custody death of arrestees, 5) anything else deemed necessary by the sheriff

85
Q

If a critical incident occurs in another jurisdiction, what steps are to be taken?

A

1) watch commander responds, 2) staff notifications (includes colonel of Legal), 3) notify IA, 4) Notify CIIT who may respond, 5) notify commander of involved employee

86
Q

Who can be the SWAT commander?

A

Lt. or above, 5 years minimum service with PBSO and 3 years on SWAT

87
Q

Who can be a Tactical squad leader?

A

a Sergeant with 5 years service to PBSO and 2 years on SWAT

88
Q

Who can be a hostage negotiator team leader (HNTL)?

A

a Sergeant with 5 years service to PBSO and 2 years on SWAT

89
Q

Who can be a tactical team leader?

A

a Sergeant with 5 years service to PBSO and 3 years on SWAT

90
Q

Who can be a tactical team member?

A

2 years with PBSO (after field training), same for HNT except have training in HN

91
Q

Who can be SWAT training coordinator?

A

SWAT team member with 5 years PBSO service and 3 years with SWAT

92
Q

All on duty LE must carry handcuffs except ____.

A

administration

93
Q

Handcuffs are considered what level of control?

A

Soft

94
Q

Transport vehicles shall be searched when _____.

A

Prior to and after every transport

95
Q

The jail will not take prisoners with a BAC of what or higher?

A

.30 or higher

96
Q

The evidence administrator is responsible for _____.

A

Control of perishable items, bulk narcotics and the impound lot

97
Q

Evidence property custodian is responsible for ____.

A

Control of evidence and property excluding perishable items, bulk narcotics and the impound lot

98
Q

Prisoner Transport can stop to offer help in what 3 instances?

A

1) LEO is requesting help and no one is available, 2) a severe crash and they are the first on scene, 3) Emergency

99
Q

What are 2 types of fingerprints?

A

Latent and patent (patent can be seen by the naked eye)

100
Q

If evidence is being sent somewhere other than PBSO, who do you use for transport?

A

A common carrier who is registered or certified with return receipt for chain of custody.

101
Q

What are authorized rifles per PBSO policy?

A

.223 Bushmaster or Colt AR15 with barrel length of at least 16 inches

102
Q

SWAT can carry what kind of rifles?

A

.308 or .338

103
Q

To carry a rifle you must have _____?

A

Completed basic rifle training and have an issued vehicle.

104
Q

To use rifle optical sighting, you must have ____?

A

Taken advanced rifle course.

105
Q

Optics for the rifle will not exceed ____.

A

1.5 magnification

106
Q

Are lasers allowed on rifles?

A

They are prohibited

107
Q

Vehicles with rifles must have _____.

A

A rifle rack with pin switch and trunk alarm

108
Q

Temporary storage of drugs at narcotics office will not exceed how many days?

A

7 days

109
Q

Currency in excess of how much requires notification and to whom?

A

Greater than $5000, requires notification to the narcotics supervisor

110
Q

A random currency sample should include how many bills?

A

10 bills

111
Q

If the amount of currency is in excess of $10,000 what happens?

A

narcotics will take custody of the money

112
Q

What is the over/under amount of drugs to be submitted before a call out is required?

A

under 50 pounds can go in evidence lockers, over 50 pounds will call out an evidence technician

113
Q

The bomb transport trailer is also known as ____.

A

Single Vent Trailer

114
Q

To secure an area around suspicious packages, what is the minimum footage requirement?

A

500 feet minimum

115
Q

If no device is found, who determines the need for K9?

A

The watch commander or on scene supervisor

116
Q

Discovery of a suspicious packages requires the response of?

A

2 bomb techs and a supervisor

117
Q

Footage guidelines for the use of the portable x-ray machine:

A

120 feet in front and 20 feet for all sides and back

118
Q

Who is the primary authority for use of force/chemical agents?

A

Incident command team commander

119
Q

The incident command team commander assumes command of 3 things:

A

1) security, 2) crowd control, 3) support function

120
Q

Up to 20 years of PBSO service, you can accrue how many hours of vacation?

A

500 hours

121
Q

After 20 years of PBSO service, you can accrue how many vacation hours?

A

850 hours

122
Q

Annual leave can be used after how long of full time employment?

A

3 months

123
Q

Longevity leave starts at how many years and how many hours?

A

5 years, 16 hours

124
Q

What are the increments of time accrued after longevity starts?

A

8 hours for every year up to 10 years of service, then 8 hours for every 5 years of service (up to 4 years total)

125
Q

Donated sick time cannot be used for:

A

Bonding with child or convenience follow pregnancy, while on probation, or while approved for alternate duty until you have completed one year of full time employment

126
Q

Cannot exceed how long for donated sick time:

A

6 months then permanent disability may apply

127
Q

While in military training you are allowed up to how many hours of leave?

A

LOA not to exceed 240 hours in an annual period

128
Q

What is Florida Safe Harbor Act?

A

Set forth in Chapter 39, a system for the treatment of sexually exploited children in the dependency process

129
Q

What is a commander?

A

The highest ranking supervisor in any component of PBSO

130
Q

Formal action report form is used for?

A

Written reprimands and only as a recording instrument

131
Q

DRRs should only be used when the appropriate discipline can be accomplished through ____?

A

Verbal counseling/reprimand, initial/remedial training, or formal action report form

132
Q

Pre-disciplinary hearing is also known as?

A

a loudermill hearing

133
Q

What is the primary tool used by PBSO to improve employee conduct, productivity, and effectiveness?

A

Training

134
Q

Is a formal action report form appealable?

A

No

135
Q

What are the administrative leave with pay hours?

A

Monday-Friday, 8-4 pm

136
Q

If discipline results in the loss of pay or benefits, employee has a right to ___.

A

A Pre-disciplinary hearing/Loudermill hearing

137
Q

How many days does a commander have to forward a disciplinary recommendation to the sheriff?

A

10 days

138
Q

If the discipline is appealable, how long should the discipline be delayed?

A

11 days

139
Q

The time frames in G.O. 202 are?

A

Recommended and not mandatory

140
Q

What are the first steps in a grievance process for non-CBA members?

A

Try to resolve with first level supervisor and request conference with next higher supervisor if not corrected. If no remedy you can file a formal written grievance.

141
Q

A grievance form (G.O. 210) is submitted to whom and in what time frame?

A

Within 5 days of meeting with 2nd level supervisor and its given to the 1st line supervisor

142
Q

How long does the 1st level supervisor have to agree or disagree with a grievance?

A

3 days

143
Q

If not resolved, employees can give the grievance to whom within how many days?

A

2nd level supervisor within 6 working days

144
Q

How long does the 2nd level supervisor have to agree or disagree with a grievance?

A

3 days

145
Q

Who is the next person in line if a grievance by 1st and 2nd level supervisors is not resolved and within how many days?

A

Sheriff, 6 days

146
Q

Employees are only permitted to have one tattoo on each arm visible. NO greater in width than ?

A

3 inches X 3 inches

147
Q

If hired before June 2010, what is the allowable size for tattoos?

A

3 inches X 5 inches

148
Q

Medical exceptions to uniforms must have what attached?

A

medical documentation provided to risk management

149
Q

What is Rapid ID? (RIDD)

A

a handheld wireless supported scanning device that communicates with FDLE Rapid ID (Falcon system)

150
Q

When must your laptop be activated to include i-mobile?

A

Regular duty (to and from work), extra duty and court, etc.

151
Q

For computer usage, what does PBSO employ as components of advance authentication?

A

logical access security measures

152
Q

Mobile video system shall be inspected when?

A

Beginning of each shift

153
Q

6 things are required to be captures by mobile video system:

A

1) 10-50/10-60, 2) priority responses, 3) 10-31, 4) prisoner transports, 5) crimes in progress, 6) anything else a deputy sheriff believes should be recorded

154
Q

When video is activated, what must activate?

A

audio

155
Q

A supervisor shall conduct periodic reviews of video to?

A

Assess employee performance, functioning of equipment, verify it is being operated properly, and to identify recordings that can be used as training

156
Q

How often should supervisors conduct reviews of employees new to the system?

A

Bi-weekly, then quarterly after that

157
Q

Minor infractions found should be viewed as ?

A

training opportunities

158
Q

To use RIDD, deputy sheriff must meet the following 6 requirements:

A

1) must be a LEO, 2) has been fingerprinted, 3) completed FCIC/NCIC course, 4) be current on FCIC/NCIC certification, 5) completed RIDD course, 6) issued a RIDD with PBSO approval

159
Q

The RIDD may generally be used in situations where ?

A

When an individual would otherwise be mandated to give traditional fingerprints

160
Q

Confirmation of a match or hit notification must be requested by ?

A

The deputy sheriff who submitted the request through the RIDD

161
Q

Use of DAVID emergency contact shall be used for what 3 purposes?

A

1) accidents, 2) natural disasters, 3) missing persons

162
Q

An employee cannot use PBSO vehicle if?

A

non-qualified-more than 1 day of leave or FMLA, a qualified vehicle-non-intermittent FMLA

163
Q

While off duty and in civilian attire, members will not take traffic enforcement unless?

A

violation is flagrant and likely to cause damage or personal injury

164
Q

If taking prescribed drugs that may affect normal faculties while on duty, who must be notified?

A

Their commanding officer who maintains confidentiality

165
Q

A drug test is required after returning from leave of absence of?

A

6 months or more

166
Q

A drug test is required when entering and leaving?

A

narcotics unit

167
Q

If arrest or conviction on drug/alcohol offense, must notify?

A

direct supervisor and IA within 24 hours

168
Q

Random drug testing applies to?

A

sworn employees, those who hold a CDL as required by job assignment, those in high liability assignments

169
Q

Statutory time occurs when?

A

workers comp liability continues and the employee exhausts the normal 90 days granted at 100% pay

170
Q

On the ____ day, FMLA kicks in and runs concurrent.

A

46th day

171
Q

Modified or altered duty assignments is for short term duration and is not to exceed ______.

A

12 months

172
Q

**Personal time must be used for?

A

After hours appointments and physical therapy appointments

173
Q

What are the 2 types of C.I.?

A

Those that require agency control and those that do not

174
Q

What type of C.I.’s do not require control?

A

1)Good citizen, 2) witnesses to crimes, 3) government/citizen sponsored info gathering service, 4) LE, 5) co-defendents, 6)crime stoppers

175
Q

No deputy shall use an informant or be given access to Pegasus until?

A

a minimum of 4 hours training in Rachel’s Law

176
Q

No deputy shall use an informant or become a C.I. handler until?

A

Minimum of 8 hours of formalized training in Pegasus system

177
Q

C.I. file status: Active, inactive, deactivated, reactivated

A

Active-working, inactive-not working, deactivated-credibility is lost (cannot use), reactivated-functioning again

178
Q

Investigative funds are under the control of?

A

The major of strategic ops

179
Q

What is a clandestine drug lab? (CDL)

A

An elicit operation consisting of sufficient combination of apparatus and chemicals to manufacture controlled substances

180
Q

A CDL is considered operational if?

A

chemicals and apparatus’ are present, and the lab is set up so that chemicals synthesis can begin in a short amount of time

181
Q

CDL policies specifically excludes?

A

Heroin or cocaine, crack operations

182
Q

What is the definition of Marijuana grow lab?

A

consists of plants, growing equipment and chemicals that have or could be used to produce marijuana

183
Q

A MGLis considered operational if?

A

live plants as well as apparatus are present

184
Q

CLET members can be?

A

sworn and civilian

185
Q

There are 5 stages for CDL or MGL search warrants.

A

1) planning, 2) entry, 3) assessment, 4) processing, 5) exit

186
Q

For every member of the on site investigation of a CDL or MGL, ____ shall be completed.

A

notice of first reported injury

187
Q

What are considered engineering controls?

A

Things like negative pressure rooms that remove blood born pathogens from work place

188
Q

What are considered work practice controls?

A

They are practices that reduce the likelihood of exposure by altering the manner in which a task is performed

189
Q

What are considered universal precautions?

A

Things like using a PPE kit

190
Q

What are the minimum report requirements for an injury/exposure?

A

Workers comp internal notification, notice via phone to the managed care provider, notification to infectious control coordinator (if an exposure), notice to risk management

191
Q

To be considered a career service employee you must?

A

have completed probation (one year from entering orientation or beginning FTO)

192
Q

For career service employee, if hired into supervisory role below rank of major.

A

Must complete 10 years of full time service

193
Q

Colonels, majors, directors, executive staff can only be demoted to?

A

All the way down to the rank of captain during transition-not appealable

194
Q

Hearing review boards hear appeals for?

A

Dismissal, suspension, demotion, or reduction in pay

195
Q

What type of employee duty changes/discipline are not appealable?

A

lateral tranfers, shift changes, reprimands and suspensions of 2 working days or less

196
Q

Is Sheriff bound by findings of hearing review board?

A

No

197
Q

Employee may request a hearing with the termination review board within?

A

10 days of the original HRB

198
Q

How many members needed to uphold or reverse decision of hearing review board?

A

4 members

199
Q

If reinstated, how many hours to put employee back to work?

A

72 hours

200
Q

The term strip search includes?

A

Remove or arrange some or all clothing permitting visual inspection of genitals, buttocks, anus, breasts or undergarments

201
Q

A strip search requires?

A

written authorization from supervisor

202
Q

Definition of an elderly person:

A

60 years of age or older who is suffering from the infirmities of aging

203
Q

Disabled adult definition?

A

18 years of age or older who suffers from conditions of physical or mental incapacitation/developmental disability

204
Q

Under fraudulent practices, “access device” does not include?

A

A transfer originated solely by paper instrument

General Orders/FSS (2 decks)

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