Policy Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

Policy 4.130 (Missing Persons and Runaways.

What are the minimum data elements required for NCIC entry?

A

Name
DOB
Sex
Race
Height
Weight
Hair color
Eye color
Date of last known contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

4.130 (Missing Persons)

Amber Alert Criteria (4) prongs

A
  1. Confirmed Abduction
  2. Child is under 18
  3. Threat of serious bodily harm
  4. Info on suspect and/or vehicle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

4.180 (COP)

What is the SARA method?

A

Scanning
Analysis
Response
Assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

5.100 (Search and Seizure)

The 4th amendment protects an expectation of privacy that must be both____ and ____

A

Reasonable and legitimate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Exceptions related to criminal investigations where the 4th amendment does not apply are..?

(6) prongs

A

1) Open view
2) Person has no standing to assert a legal right
3) Trash searches outside the cartilage
4) Detention facility
5) Abandoned Property
6) Searches by private citizen not acting as a government agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

7.136 (Body Worn Camera)

Officers MAY view their BWC recording to;

(3) prongs

A
  1. Assist in an investigation and preparing final reports.
  2. Prior to court to refresh recollection.
  3. Provide a statement pursuant to an internal investigation, including OIS and other deadly force investigations.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

7.136 (Body Worn Camera)

Officers have discretion to deactivate their BWC for the following circumstances;

(3) prongs

A
  1. They have cleared from the scene and are no longer assigned to the event.
  2. They have discontinued contact with (and are no longer in proximity to) the subjects.
  3. On static crime scenes when directed by a supervisor or investigative personnel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

7.430 Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP)

EIIP is a _________ approach to addressing employee performance problems

A

Non-Disciplinary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

7.430 EIIP

Primary responsibility is to identify _____ and ____ in employee behavior before they become ___ and _____ for the department and employee.

A

1) trends and patterns
2) risks and liabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This policy strives to proactively identify patterns of employee performance, facilitate early supervisory intervention and to prevent more serious problems from developing;

A

7.430 Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This allows EIIP to identify employees involved in significant events to ensure employee wellness of the long term monitoring employee exposure to TRAUMATIC events

A

Significant Event Report (SER)

Note: Blue team based, confidential, and non-disciplinary process focused on well-being.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A significant event is any on or off duty incident which involves direct personal exposure to an event involving the following;

(5) prongs

A
  1. Actual or threatened death or serious injury.
  2. Substantial threat to physical or emotional integrity.
  3. Witnessing an event that involves the above experience.
  4. Learning about an unexpected or violent death, serious harm or injury experienced by a family member or close friend.
  5. Any on or off duty event which may adversely impact employees mental well-being
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Disputes concerning methods and procedures used by the department. Investigated by a supervisor with the goal of EXPLAINING and EDUCATING the complainant as to the operations of the department. A customer service dispute IS NOT an allegation that involves a violation of department policy or violation of law

A

Customer Service Dispute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

This team aims to isolate, contain, or neutralize the threat and create a warm zone.

A

Assault Team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A location established at the scene of the incident where injured victims will be taken prior to a formal triage, treatment, and transport (TTT) area by medical personnel. This is managed by the fire branch of the unified command.

A

Casualty Collection Point (CCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A geographic area with a known threat. Only law enforcement or armed personnel attempting to isolate, contain, or neutralize hostile threat(s) are allowed in this area.

A

Hot Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

3.220 (Foot Pursuits)

Supervisor will respond to foot pursuits if any of the following occur;

A
  1. injury to Officer, Citizen or suspect.
  2. Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if it occupied or not
  3. Any reportable use of force; or
  4. Any other unusual occurrence warrants supervisory oversight.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A team effort that allows agencies with jurisdictional responsibility, either geographical or functional, to participate in the management of an incident.

A

Unified Command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

3.500 Major Incident and all Hazard Plan

The top 3 priorities, regardless of the size/type of incident are?

A

Life Saftey
Incident Stabilization
Property Preservation

(LIP)

20
Q

It is the policy of this department to consider the Saftey of civilians and officer, and to enhance the prospect of peacefully resolving the incident through de-escalation tactics

A

3.505 Barricaded Subject Plan

21
Q

4.100 Arrest Procedures and Decelerations of Arrest.

When contacted by an officer regarding releasing arrested for medical, ensure that the arrested is not released for the following charges;

(6)

A
  1. Crime against a PO
  2. DV
  3. DUI
  4. Any violent felony crime against a person with significant injury
  5. Any violent crime involving a deadly weapon
  6. Sexual Assault
  7. Kidnapping
22
Q

Officers WILL record in the following circumstances and inform individuals they are being recorded as soon as safe to do so:

A
  1. All calls for service involving contact with citizen or suspects.
  2. Officer initiated activities
  3. Any citizen contact becomes adversarial.
  4. Witness, victim and suspect interviews including Miranda.
  5. Detentions or investigations pursuant arrest.
  6. Searches of persons, structures or vehicles
  7. While transporting arrestees
  8. After the occurrence of an Officer- involved traffic accident.
  9. Third party video source
  10. Code 3 driving
  11. Any criteria that meets a pursuit
  12. When field testing narcotics
23
Q

Means that every individual is accountable to only one designated supervisor to whom they report at the scene of an incident

A

Unity of Command

24
Q

Collective Bargaining Agreement

Immediate family shall be defined as;

A
  1. Spouse
  2. Parent
  3. Sibling
  4. Child
  5. Grandchild
  6. Grandparent

Or any of the previously mentioned relationships to the employees spouse

25
The standard tool used for command, control response, coordination and overall management of complex incidents, planned events, or emergencies. This system permits a clear point of command and can be expanded or contracted with ease.
Incident Command System (ICS)
26
Pertains to the number of individuals or resources that one supervisor can manage effectively during emergency response incidents or special events.
Span of Control
27
A subject who is believed to have been involved in a criminal act or is a significant threat to themselves or safety of others; refuses to submit to arrest and may be armed; is in a position of advantage, affording cover and concealment; or is contained in an open area, and the presence or approach of police officers could precipitate an adverse reaction by the subject.
Barricaded Subject/ Incident
28
A secure, designated location where the Patrol Division supervisors operate. It consists of the patrol supervisor, fire and medical personnel, and the public information officer (PIO).
Incident Command Post (ICP)
29
3.210 Vehicle Pursuit Officers involved in a motor vehicle collision during a pursuit WILL IMMEDIATELY discontinue pursuit when…?
1. No available unit to assume the pursuit or respond to the unit involved. 2. Damage to the unit is minor and it can still be operated without danger. 3. No apparent injuries as a result to of the collision
30
4.104 Domestic Violence Investigations Supervisor will:
1. In cases of mutual arrest, ensure that every attempt has been made to try and determine a primary physical aggressor and that probable cause exists for both arrests prior to giving approval for any mutual arrest. 2. In cases meeting the Family Justice Center callout criteria, immediately notify FJC detectives. Current criteria can be obtained through the Dispatch supervisor. For cases that do not meet the FJC callout criteria, contact the area command on duty or on-call PD detective squad. 3. If parties involved are believed to be a pimp and prostitute, immediately notify the Vice Section. 4. In cases when a law enforcement employee of any agency is involved as a suspect or victim of domestic violence, immediately notify the watch commander and the area lieutenant to respond. a. The watch commander will contact the Criminal Investigations Section (CIS) supervisor if the domestic violence suspect/victim is an LVMPD employee (see LVMPD 8.200, Criminal Investigations Involving Law Enforcement Employees). 5. Review all reports for accuracy and consistency, including jurisdiction, elements of the crime, and probable cause.
31
3.310 Officer Tactical Considerations to responding to ShotSpotter
Responding officers will treat ShotSpotter incidents as “crimes in progress” and respond in a safe and strategic manner with the following considerations: 1. Whether a Code 3 response will alert the suspect(s) in the area. 2. The use of multiple officers to address the potential threat. Officers should not assume the suspect has departed the area based on the ShotSpotter alert. 3. The safest approach to the target location. 4. The use of the Air Unit to assist in searching for the suspect(s) and establishing a perimeter. 5. The potential for multiple shooters or the use of high-capacity weapons, which may be indicated in the ShotSpotter alert. 6. The use of a perimeter for subsequent responding officers. 7. The use of a perimeter and containment to de-escalate the situation. 8. Additional resources that may be needed for the incident. 9. Rifle deployment will be determined by department policy.
32
3.310 ShotSpotter. Supervisor WILL
17. Acknowledge and self-dispatch to the call as a STAR de-escalation protocol. If unavailable to respond, will ensure Communications requests a sergeant or lieutenant from another area command to respond. 18. Ensure proper tactics for response and proper supervision of the ShotSpotter event. Rifle deployment will be determined by LVMPD 8.188, Authorized Firearms, Associated Equipment, and Required Training. 19. Ensure the deployment of personnel and resources matches the type of event initiated by ShotSpotter. 20. Notify the on-duty watch commander, when warranted. 21. Notify appropriate area command detectives and supervisors, when warranted. 22. Ensure a Central Intelligence Notification and an Incident Crime Report is completed for all ShotSpotter events in which a crime is confirmed to have been committed, including all pertinent information and any recommendations for follow-up.
33
Effective ICS communications include three (3) elements:
Modes Planning Networks
34
A supervisor should make an immediate peer support notification when..?
1. An employee is a victim of a person crime 2. An LVMPD employee has been arrested for a crime. 3. If any employee has been involved in a stressful incident during their work shift and the supervisor feels the employee or team needs additional resources
35
Protest Saftey: When will a dispersal order be issued?
1. If illegal activity is occurring in the protest. 2. Weapons, traffic violations and other activity described above are all considered before declaring an assembly unlawful. 3. Only a uniformed officer may give an order to disperse. 4. The order will be read in both English and Spanish at 10 minute intervals when possible. 5. Dispersal order may be repeated depending on the acts being committed, and action may be taken after the first warning.
36
An area designated as a delineation between the clean (unaffected) and dirty (affected) areas of an event. This area should have officers present to sweep everyone for weapons. The injured will be swept and moved to the formal triage, treatment, and transport area(s), while uninjured/witnesses will be swept and moved to a refuge area.
Transition Area
37
Vehicle Pursuits, Supervisor will:
1.Immediately acknowledge the notification made by the pursuing officers or Communications and authorize the continuation of the vehicle pursuit over the radio by stating, “I am supervising this pursuit.” 2. Continuously evaluate the need to authorize additional units to the pursuit. 3. Determine whether a transition to the bubble tactic is more appropriate based on availability of the Air Unit and unmarked vehicles. 4. Evaluate whether to discontinue the pursuit if the Air Unit has arrived and assumed primary responsibility for broadcasting the progress of the pursuit. 5. During the pursuit, consider use of PIT and/or stop sticks. 6. Discontinue the pursuit over the radio when apprehension of the fleeing suspect(s) is outweighed by the danger caused by the pursuit. a. Confirm that speeds of pursuing units and fleeing vehicle are reasonably being broadcast over the radio throughout the duration of the pursuit. 7. Discourage overconvergence at termination point to avoid officers unduly jeopardizing the safety of themselves and others (see LVMPD 3.110, Use of Force, “De-escalation”). 8. Respond to the termination point and manage the overall scene (i.e., high-risk vehicle stop procedures, a low-lethal option, and a custody plan). 9. If the occupant(s) of the suspect vehicle flees on foot: a. When available, coordinate with the Air Unit to communicate with bubbling units on apprehension/containment procedures (see LVMPD 3.220, Foot Pursuits). If Air Unit is unavailable, communicate with bubbling units on apprehension/containment procedures. b. Manage police activities for the suspect vehicle (e.g., high-risk vehicle stop procedures and containment). 10. Ensure all required post-pursuit procedures are completed.
38
A sub-category of “exigent circumstances” allowing entry into a structure when there is probable cause to believe a dangerous person has committed a serious felony. The suspect is fleeing from law enforcement and the officer has direct knowledge of the suspect’s location.
Hot Pursuit
39
EIIP strives to identify ____ of employee performance, facilitate early supervisory intervention and to prevent more serious problems from developing
Patterns
40
Any supervisory action taken during EIIP is…?
Informal Flexible Confidential
41
Is the location from which primary logistics and administrative functions are coordinated and administered
Base: one (1) per incident. Established and managed by the Logistics Section
42
Organizational level having functional responsibility for primary segments of incident management (FLOP)
General Staff, referred to as Chiefs
43
These are used when the number of divisions or groups exceeds the span on control and can be both geographically and functional
Branch
44
A MACTAC incident is confirmed, compelling the affected area command to respond directly.
Mactac activation
45
A report of a MACTAC incident occurring or potentially occurring. In-the-Box patrol squads may be placed on alert in preparation or as a reserve to activated units.
Mactac Alert
46
An area where law enforcement has passed through and swept for immediate hostile threats and where a threat is not expected but cannot be ruled out completely.
Warm Zone